Friday, July 29, 2011

CBSE declared Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) result 2011


The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) declared result of the Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) on 26 July 2011. A total of 97919 qualified either for Paper I/ II or both at All India level.
The candidates can check their results on the following websites www.cbse.nic.in  or www.cbseresults.nic.in or www.nad.co.in.
The exams were held for the first time for the recruitment of Teachers to Central Government Schools as per the directives of Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India. The CTET-2011 was conducted in 1178 centres at 84 cities across the country and 2 cities abroad.
A total of 794080 candidates had registered for the Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) of which 715050 candidates appeared for the exam. The exam was held on 26 June 2011.

Thursday, July 21, 2011

GENERAL STUDIES PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. The proper system for education is:
(a) The present examination-system
(b) The examination-system with books
(c) Semester system
(d) Objective question paper
Ans. (c)
2. Hypothesis can not be stated in:
(a) Null and question form terms
(b) Declarative terms
(c) General terms.
(d) Directional terms
Ans. (c)
3. Satellite communication works through:
(a) Radar
(b) Transponder
(c) Receptor
(d) Transmitter
Ans. (b)
4. Computer can:
(a) Process both quantitative and qualitative information
(b) Store huge information
(c) Process information and fast accurately
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
5. Informal communication network with in the organization is known as:
(a) Grape vine communication
(b) Interpersonal communication
(c) Mass communication
(d) Interpersonal communication
Ans. (a)
6. Linear programming models solve problems dealing with:
(a) Relatives and absolutes
(b) Routes and mixes
(c) Dispersions and similarities
(d) Rupees and percentages
Ans. (b)
7. Hierarchy has been described as the Scalar process by:
(a) L. D. White
(b) P. H. Appleby
(c) Mooney and Reilley
(d) Gullick and Urwick
Ans. (d)
8. Henry Fayol supports the:
(a) Humanistic approach
(b) Mechanistic approach
(c) Organic approach
(d) Scientific approach
Ans. (b)
9. The main focus of Human Relations theory is on:
(a) Formal organization
(b) Informal organization
(c) Individual
(d) Participatory decision making
Ans. (c)
10. Environment is synonymous with:
(a) Task
(b) Relations
(c) People
(d) Situational variables
Ans. (d)
11. An organization principle based upon divisions of Labour is called:
(a) Line organization
(b) Functional organization
(c) Informal organization
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
12. In the organization, authority flows in a vertical line:
(a) From the top downward
(b) From the bottom upward
(c) Both ways downward and upward
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
13. Match the following:
A. Advisory function 1. Staff executives
B. Manpower development 2. Directing
C. Guiding function 3. Line executives
D. Managerial authority 4. Staffing
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (b)
14. Dorwin Cartwright and Alvin Zander identified the following two
variables:
(i) Employee-oriented
(ii) Production-oriented
(iii) Goal-oriented
(iv) Group -oriented
The correct code is:
(a) (i) and (U)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Ans. (c)
15. Quantitative techniques used to solve business problems are called:
(a) operations management
(b) operation science
(c) operation research
(d) management operation
Ans. (c)
16. Assertion (A): A tenet of scientific management is co-operation and
harmony between workers and managers.
Reason (R): Taylor believed in participative management.
In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is
correct?
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (c)
17. Assertion (A): According to Taylor, one of the best way of doing
each task leads to increase in productivity in organization.
Reason (R): It was the management’s responsibility alone to find out
this one of the best way.
Codes:
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (b)

18. Which of the following creates time utility?
(a) Farmer
(b) Carpenter
(c) Trader
(d) Driver
Ans. (c)
19. Match the following:
A. Responsiveness of demand to change in price 1. Income elasticity of
demand
B. Responsiveness of demand to change in tastes 2. Price elasticity of
demand
C. Responsiveness of demand to change in income 3. Cross elasticity of
demand
D. Responsiveness of demand to change in price 4. Taste elasticity of demand
of related goods.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (d)
20. Assertion (A): The theory and hypotheses of Argyris suggest no
relationship between personal development of the individual and the
organizational situation.
Reason (R): The principles and characteristics of a formal organization,
in the opinion of Argyris, are incongruent to the needs of adult human
beings.
Codes:
(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)
21. Management by objectives is implemented in an organization by
stages, one such stage action planning, includes:
I. Assigning responsibilities for achieving objectives
II. Choosing strategies appropriate to the objectives
III. Allocating resources for achieving objectives
IV. Scheduling specific activities to achieve maximum resource utilization
Identify from th following combinations the correct sequence in which
the action planning stages are implemented
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, III, IV, I
(c) III, IV, I, II
(d) II, I, III, IV
Ans. (d)
22. What is BIS?
(a) Business Information System
(b) Business of Industrial Sale
(c) Bureau of Indian Standard
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c))
23. Match List-I (Activity) with List-Il (Associated organization) and
select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Mutual fund 1. Stock exchange
B. Public issue of capital 2. Assets management company
C. Forward trading 3. Merchant banking
D. Option pricing 4. Forex market
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (d)
24. Which of the following are the methods of market new issues of
securities?
I. Listing of securities
II. Jobbers and brokers
III. Private placement of securities
IV. Privileged subscriptions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II, III, and IV
Ans. (c)
25. SEBI was established in:
(a) 1993
(b) 1992
(c) 1988
(d) 1990
Ans. (c)
26. Increase in net RBI credit for central government represents:
(a) Budgetary Deficit
(b) Revenue Deficit
(c) Fiscal Deficit
(d) Monetized Deficit
Ans. (d)
27. The famous book “The Philosophy of Management” was written by:
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Oliver Scheldon
(c) F. W. Taylor
(d) Urwick
Ans. (b)
28. Arrange the following ingredients of communication process in the
proper order:
1. Message
2. Receiver
3. Encoder
4. Channel
5. Decoder
(a) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
(b) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5
(c) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
(d) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5
Ans. (c)
29. Marginal Revenue will be negative if the demand is:
(a) Relatively elastic
(b) Unitary elastic
(c) Relatively inelastic
(d) Perfectly elastic
Ans. (c)
30. Price control; is one of the monopoly regulations which is most
advantageous for:
(a) The producer
(b) The consumer
(c) The government
(d) The seller
Ans. (b)
31. Which one of the following is considered as the first principle of
organization?
(a) Delegation
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Unity of command
(d) Supervision
Ans. (b)
32. Find the odd one out:
(a) Human relations theory
(b) Informal functioning
(c) Humanistic theory
(d) Structural theory
Ans. (d)
33. The real aim of production is:
(a) To create material goods
(b) To eliminate poverty
(c) To satisfy people’s wants
(d) To provide basic necessities.
Ans. (c)
34. At the point of inflexion, the marginal utility is:
(a) Increasing
(c) Maximum
(b) Decreasing
(d) Negative
Ans. (c)
35. “Production” may be defined as an act of:
(a) Creating utility
(b) Earning profit
(c) Destroying utility
(d) Providing services
Ans. (a)
36. The Scientific Management stressed upon:
1. Rationality
2. Specialization
3. Technical Competence
4. Predictability
Select the correct code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
37. Arrange the Maslow’s Need Hierarchy in the descending order:
1. Social
2. Self-Actualization
3. Physiological
4. Ego
5. Security
(a) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
(b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
(d) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
Ans. (d)
38. According to which theory, leadership is multi dimensional?
(a) Behavioural Theory
(b) Situational Theory
(c) Trait Theory
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
39. Which of the following according to Hertzberg are not the motivators?
1. Responsibility
2. Recognition
3. Interpersonal relations
4. Work itself
Ans. (c)
40. The practice of placing a candidate at the right job is:
(a) Selection
(b) Placement
(c) Interview
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
41. Selection process in any organization is usually proceeded by the
preparation of:
(a) Human resources audit
(b) Operations audit
(c) Human resources inventory
(d) Human resources accounting
Ans. (c)
42. A written statement of the main duties and responsibilities which a
particular job entails is called:
(a) Job analysis
(b) Job specification
(c) Job description
(d) Job evaluation
Ans. (c)
43. Partnership is a form of business organization in which business
debts can be recovered from:
(a) The managing partners
(b) MI the managers and partners
(c) The firm and the managers
(d) The firm and all the partners
Ans. (d)
44. The main objective of Stock Exchange is to:
(a) Provide facilities for speculation
(b) Safeguard the interest of investors
(c) Help in the capital formation in the country
(d) Provide a ready market for securities
Ans. (b)
45. Contango charge is paid by a:
(a) Bull speculator to bear speculator
(b) Bear speculator to bull speculator
(c) Lame duck to bull speculator
(d) Bull to lane duck speculator
Ans. (a)
46. MRTP Act came into force in:
(a) 1969
(b) 1970
(c) 1971
(d) 1980

47. Dumping is an example of:
(a) Monopolistic practice in international trade
(b) Monopoly in international trade
(c) Oligopoly in international trade
(d) Perfect competition in international trade
Ans. (a)
48. A critical activity is defined as one whose:
(a) Total float is zero
(b) Free float is zero
(c) Duration is the longest
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
49.‘t’ Distribution was discovered by:
(a) Karl Pearson
(b) Fisher
(c) Laplace
(d) Gosset
Ans. (d)
50. Scheduled bank is that bank which is:
(a) Nationalized
(b) Not nationalized
(c) Bared at foreign country
(d) Include in the second schedule of RBI
Ans. (d)

Saturday, July 16, 2011

Punjab National Bank Management Trainee recruitment Cutoff marks

Punjab National Bank Management Trainee recruitment  Cutoff marks  for general candidates.
Subjects of Exam          Minimum Qualifying marks        
General Awareness 22
Quantative Aptitude 26
Marketing 12
English 26
Descriptive 26
Max Marks 113
Note  : The marks since it is submitted by who got it through RTI.

RBI Grade (B) officers Exam Cut Off Marks

RBI provide weightage marks to candidates which is calculated differently.

RBI GRADE B OFFICERS :
SUBJECT MARKS FOR CUTOFF  WEIGHTAGE MARKS
REASONING 17 0.75
GENERAL AWARENESS 12 1.60
ENGLISH 11 0.75
QUANTATIVE APPT. 06 0.75

Union Bank of India PO Exam Cutoff Marks

Minimum Cutoff Marks Decided By the Bank
SUBJECTS   GENERAL CATEGORY MARKS  RESERVED CATEGORY MARKS
REASONING (OUT OF 75)  22  16
 QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (OUT OF 75)  14  9
 GENERAL AWARENESS (OUT OF 50)  13  10
 MINIMUM AGGREGATE MARKS (OUT OF 200)  80  70
 COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE(OUT OF 50)  25  23
 TOTAL (OUT OF 250)  105  93
 ENGLISH (OUT OF 50)  8  5
*For Interview the marks are 25 and 22.50 respectively
How ever the lowest and highest marks for PO in Union Bank selection varies i.e. the selection were made under 173-223 marks out of 300.

Tuesday, July 12, 2011

INDIAN BANK P.O. EXAM PAPER

GENERAL AWARENESS
 
Q.1 Which of the following carries out ‘Open Market Operations?
(1) Finance Ministry
(2) External Affairs Ministry
(4) Planning Commission
(5) Ministry of Commerce
Q. 2 Who among the following Ministers will hold telecom portfolio in addition to his own portfolio till next reallotment?
(1) Kamal Nath
(2) Kapil Sibal
(4) Mamta Banerjee
(5) None of these
Q. 3 Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, the RBI issues directives to the Banks in India?
(1) RBI Act
(2) Banking Regulation Act
(3) Essential Commodities Act
(4) RBI and Banking Regulation Act
(5) None of these
Q.4 On which one of the following ‘Head of Expenses’, the expenses of the Government of India are highest?
(1) Food subsidy
(2) Fertilizer subsidy
(3) Pradhan Mantri Gram SadakYojana
(4) Maintenance of national highways
(5) Oil subsidy
Q.5 Which one of the following foreign agencies will assist the municipal agencies to improve quality of municipal schools through its School Excellence Programmes (SEP) ?
(1) IMF
(2) UNDP
(3) UNICEF
(4) ADB
(5) None of these
Q. 6 Which one of the following tools is used by RBI for selective credit control?
(1) It advises banks to lend against certain commodities
(2) It advises banks to recall the loans for advances against certain commodities
(3) It advises banks to charge higher rate of interest for advance against certain commodities
(4) It discourages certain kinds of lending by assigning higher risk weights to loans it deems undesirable
(5) None of these
Q.7 For which one of the following Loan Products ‘teaser loans’ are offered by Banks?
(1) Education Loans
(2) Commercial Loans
(3) Loans against security of gold
(4) Retail Trade Loans
(5) Home Loans ,
Q. 8 The Commonwealth Games 2010 were held in Delhi from October 3 to 14, 2010. Who amongst the following picked up the Game’s first gold medal? ‘
(1) Augustina Nwaokolo
(2) Ravinder Singh
(3) Azhar Hussain
(4) Carol Huynh
(5) None of these
Q.9 In which one of ihe following cities was the recent meet of G-20 Countries organised ?
(1) Tokyo
(2) Seoul
(3) London
(4) Beijing
(5) Singapore
Q.10 As per recent newspaper reports, which one of the following countries (among the given) has highest literacy rate?
(1) India
(2) Sri Lanka
(3) China
(4) Vietnam
(5) Bangladesh
Q.11 Which one of the following has decided to give guarantee for infra loans? .
(1) IDBI
(2) SBI
(3) IIFCL
(4) SIDBI
(5) None of these
Q.12 In which one of the following States is the uranium project proposed to be set up ?
(1) Manipur
(2) Meghalaya
(3) Orissa
(4) Assam
(5) Nagaland
Q.13 Amongst 169 countries on Human Development Index, which one of the following is India’s rank?
(1) 89
(2) 91
(3) 119
(4) 129
(5) 138
Q.14 What is ‘Kaveri’ ?
(1) India’s indigeneous aircraft engine
(2) India’s Low Cost laptop
(3) India’s Air to Air Missile
(5) Unmanned Aircraft acquired from Israel
Q.15 An increasing finished good stock as % to sales of a manufacturing Company indicates that-
(1) the market is getting competitive.
(B) the quality of the goods is not upto the mark.
(C) the production cost has increased.
(D) the production has decreased.
(1) Only (A) and (B)
(2) Only (B) and (C)
(3) Only (C) and (D)
(4) Only (C)
(5) Only (D) and (A)
Q. 16 Which one of the following has got RBI nod to issue pre-paid cards to its clients?
(1) LIC
(2) GIC
(3) SIDBI
(4) NABARD
(5) None of these

Q.17
For which one of the following reasons is an amendment in Companies Bill 2009 proposed?
(1) To provide more powers to Department of Company Affairs
(2) To provide regulatory powers to Department of Company Affairs
(3) To make Indian Accounting Standards applicable with effect from 1.4.2011
(4) To ensure smooth convergence of the Indian Accounting Standards with IFRS
(5) None of these

Q.18
As per recent newspaper reports, India’s public debt rises 2.8 percent to Rs. 28 lakh crores. Which one of the following is the reason that has forced commercial banks 10 buy Government securities?
(1) Lack of credit growth
(2) Increase in credit growth
(3) Raising of repo rate
(4) Raising of reverse repo rate
(5) None of these
Q.19 In which one of the following States Sariska Tiger Reserve is located?
(1) M. P.
(2) U. P.
(3) Orissa
(4) Gujarat
(5) Rajasthan
Q.20 On which one of the following characters, Biometric security is based?
(1) Finger prints and palm recognition only
(2) Face recognition and voice recognition only
(3) Hand writing and manual recognition only
(4) Only(l) and (2)
(5) All (1),(2) &(3)
Q.21 Which one of the following may be the consequence of buying forex in the market by the RBI ?
(1) It leads to inflation
(2) It leads to control over inflation
(3) It does not affect inflation
(4) It results into deflation
(5) None of these
Q.22 Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, the Reserve Bank of india has the power to
regulate, supervise and control the banking sector?
(1) RBI Act
(2) Banking Regulation Act
(3) Negotiable Instrument Act
(4) RBI and Banking Regulation Act
(5) None of these
Q.23 Who amongst the following is the author of the book “The God of Small Things” ?
(1) Chetan Bhagat
(2) V.S. Naipul
(3) Namita Gokhale
(4) Kiran Desai
(5) Arundhati Roy
Q. 24 Which one of the following has proposed $ 11 billion infrastructure debt fund?
(1) NABARD  
(2) SBI
(3) RBI
(4) Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India
(5) Planning Commission
Q. 25 Myanmar’s pro-democracy leader Suu Kyi is a _
(1) 42 years old politician
(2) Bharat Ratna
(3) Military General
(4) Nobel Prize winner
(5) None of these
Q.26 Which one of the following factors influence working capital of a unit?
(1) Seasonally of operations only
(2) Production Policy only
(3) Suppliers Term only
(4) Only (1) and (2)
(5) All (1), (2) & (3)
Q.27 The G-20 Summit was held in which of the following places in October 2009 ?
(1) Paris
(2) Vienna
(3) Tokyo
(4) Pittsburgh
(5) London
Q.28 As per a newspaper report, only few countries are left to make Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), a universal treaty. Which of the following is one of them?
(1) Japan
(2) Indian
(3) Italy
(4) France
(5) Russia
Q. 29 Which TV channel has been in the news for its coverage of the Bin Laden crisis, especially for having carried all broadcasts of Osama Bin Laden to. audiences in West Asia?
(1) Star Asia
(2) BBC Asia
(3) Al Jazeera
(4) Khaleed Times
(5) None of these
Q.30 India will host the world Tiger Summit for the first time in 2010. The Summit will be organized in __
(1) Kolkata
(2) Bharatpur
(3) .Junagarh
(4) Ranthambore
(5) None of these
Q.31 Under what name is MTNL marketing its GSM based mobile telephony?
(1) Swarna
(2) Dolphin
(3) Speed
(4) Vayu
(5) None 0 f these
Q.32 Which of the following countries has been fully suspended from the Common wealth of Nations after its refusal to announce General Elections which have been due since long?
(1) Pakistan
(2) Nepal
(3) Fiji
(4) Sri Lanka
(5) None of these
Q.33 What is the name of the branded petrol with cleansing additives that is being marketed by HPCL?
(1) Power
(2) Premium
(3) Speed
(4) Clean X
(5) None of these
Q. 34 Under what name is MTNL marketing its CDMA based WiLL service in Mumbai and Delhi?
(1) Dolphin
(2) Swarna
(3) Garuda
(4) Seema
(5) None of these
Q.35 Which of the following countries agreed recently to discontinuar efuelling ships in the Indian Ocean for the NATO led coalition in Afghanistan?
(1) Japan
(2) Indonesia
(3) Bangladesh
(4) Pakistan
(5) None of these
Q.36 To which business group did the Ambanis of Reliance Group sell their holding in Larsen and Toubro?
(1) RP Goenkas
(2) A V Birla
(3) Kanorias
(4) Mittals
(5) None of these
Q.37 Name the brand that was launched and promoted by a famous father-son duo.
(1) ICICI Credit cards
(2) Parket Beta
(3) Maruti Versa
(4) All of these.
(5) None of these
Q.38 What is the sub brand of the new car that Toyota is launching in India?
(1) Accord
(2) Jupiter
(3) C Planet
(4) Camry
(5) None of these
Q.39 Who amongst the following is the winner of the Mahatma Gandhi International Award for Peace and Reconc iliation 2009 ?
(1) Yukiya Amano
(2) Aung San Suu Kyi
(3) Bill Gates
(4) Hillary Clinton
(5) None of these
Q.40 With which brand would you identify the famous advertising slogan ‘Think Different’?
(1) Apple
(2) IBM
(3) Wipro
(4) HCL
(5) None of these
Q.41 Credit Rating .
(1) is used to rate the borrowers while giving advances.
(2) is used to work out performance of the employees.
(3) is used to calculate the number of excellent audit rated branches.
(4) is NOT used in any Bank.
(5) is necessary before giving promotion to employees
Q.42 Who amongst the following is the recipient of the ‘Dadasaheb Phalke Award – 2010′?
(1) Javed Akhtar
(2) Amitabh Bachchan
(3) Guizar
(4) Hema Malini
(5) None of above
Q.43 In Corporate Hedging, which one of the following types of risks can be covered?
(1) Liquidity risk
(2) Currency risk
(3) Credit risk
(4) Transaction risk
(5) None of these
Q.44 Bank of Rajasthan is now merged with which of the following banks?
(1) AXIS Bank
(2) IDBI Bank
(3) ICICI Bank
(4) HDFC Bank
(5) None of these
Q.45 As per GDP figures on calendar year basis, according to World Bank, which one of the following economies will have highest GDP growth in the year 2011 ?
(1) US
(2) China
(3) Japan
(4) India
(5) Brazil
Q.46 In respect of infrastructure bonds is sued under provisions of Section 80 CCF of the Income Tax Act, what is the maximum amount (Rs. in thousands), upto which these bonds can be covered?
(1) 30
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 5.0
(5) None of these
Q.47 Which of the following is the full form of the abbreviation ‘IFRS’ as used in corporate / finance Sector ?
(1) Indian Financial Reconciliation Standards
(2) Interpretation and Formal Reporting System
(3) International Financial Reporting Standards
(4) International Financial Reporting System
(5) None of these
Q.48 As per the new guidelines issued by SEBI, companies are required to list shares within how many days of the closure of the Initial Public Offers (IPOs) ?
(1) 60 days
(2) 12 days
(3) 30 days
(4) 45 days  
(5) None of these
Q.49 RTGS stands for —–
(1) Real Time Gross Settlements
(2) Reduced Time Gross Settlements
(3) Relative Time Gross Settlements
(4) Real Total Gross Securities
(5) None of these

Answer:
1 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 1 (5) 5
(6) 1 (7)5 (8) 5 (9)2 (10)2
(11)3 (12)2 (13)3 (14)1 (15)2
(16)1 (17)4 (18)4 (19)5 (20)5
(21)3 (22)4 (23)5 (24)5 (25)5
(26)2 (27)5 (28)4 (29)3 (30)3
(31)4 (32)2 (33)3 (34)1 (35)3
(36)1 (37)2 (38)3 (39)4 (40)2
(41)1 (42)1 (43)5 (44)2 (45)3
(46)2 (47)2 (48)3 (49)3

BANK OF MAHARASHTRA P.O EXAM PAPER

GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the economy of China ? (It was recently in news).
1. China is the world’s fastest growing economy with average growth rate of 10% for the last 30 years.
2. China is the world’s second largest economy by purchasing power parity.
3. China’s economy was valued a little higher than that of Japan’s.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
(Ans) : (D)
2. As per the news published a few days back Reliance Power got a huge loan from the US Export-Import Bank for building a coal fired based power plant in India. The plant will be developed in—
(A) Sasan (MP)
(B) Angul (Odisha)
(C) B(Ans)wara (Rajasthan)
(D) Barauni (Bihar)
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (A)
3. As per the reports published in various newspapers, the Reserve Bank of India has directed all core investment companies in India to register themselves with it if their asset size is 100 crore or more. Which of the following is True about the Core Investment Companies (CICs) ?
1. CICs are non-banking finance companies.
2. CICs invest in shares for the purpose of taking stake in a company rather than for trading.
3. CICs are required to register with RBI as most of them were found involved in business in foreign countries and not in India.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (B)
4. As per newspaper reports, the RBI recently divested its stake in NABARD. Now RBI’s stake in it is only—
(A) 10%
(B) 5%
(C) 3%
(D) 1%
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (D)
5. The Union Commerce and Industry Minister, while talking to press expressed his desire that India and USA both should work together for a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA). How will this help India ?
1. It is the agreement which allows liberalization of trade in goods by cutting/eliminating tariffs on most or all goods from both the sides.
2. It will help in easing of the flow of investment and special treatment to each other.
3. It will help USA to outsource more jobs to Indian companies and also to employ more Indians without any restriction.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (D)
6. Immediately prior to Prithviraj Chavan who amongst the following was the Chief Minister of Maharashtra ?
(A) Vilasrao Deshmukh
(B) Ashok Chavan
(C) Ajit Pawar
(D) R.R. Patil
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (B)
7. The RBI has been asked to study and give a report on the loan waiver scheme announced by the United Progressive Alliance Govt. for farmers in 2008. How much amount was given by the Govt. for the scheme ? About—
(A) 10,000 crore
(B) 20,000 crore
(C) 50,000 crore
(D) 71,680 crore
(E) 2,00,000 crore
(Ans) : (D)
8. Which of the following organizations/agencies has sought an emergency fund of 1000 crore from banks to tackle acute liquidity crisis, which is coming in the way to give loans to micro borrowers ?
(A) Regional Rural and Cooperative Banks
(B) RBI
(C) Micro Finance Institutions
(D) NABARD
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (B)
9. The ministry of Finance recently released a comprehensive paper on Govt. debt. Which of the following is/are true about the same ?
1. The paper presents the road map for general debt to be raised by the Govt. of India during the period of 2011-2015 which is the period of the awards of the 13th Finance Commission.
2. As per the estimates, the target debt in the terminal year 2014-15 will be lower than whatever recommended by the 13th Finance Commission.
3. The paper has recommended that the Govt. should try to generate resources in such a way that it does not have to depend much on debt.’ The total debt should not be more than 1/3rd of the total requirements.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (C)
10. As a measure to check inflation, the RBI on November 2, 2010 increased its short term indicative rates Repo and Reverse Repo by—
(A) 25 basis points
(B) 50 basis points
(C) 75 basis points
(D) 100 basis points
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (A)
11. What is the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) at present ?
(A) 4%
(B) 4.5%
(C) 5%
(D) 5.5%
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (E)
12. The Finance Ministry has decided to provide 8,700 crore as equity support to public sector banks so that they can raise funds from the capital market without diluting the Govt. holding in them. What is the Govt. holding in most of the public sector banks ?
(A) 49%
(B) 50%
(C) 51%
(D) 59%
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (C)
13. Which of the following is not amongst the core industries/sectors ?
(A) Coal
(B) Service sector
(C) Crude oil
(D) Power
(E) Steel
(Ans) : (E)
14. Who amongst the following Indian players won maximum number of Gold Medals (4 gold) in Commonwealth Games 2011 held in Delhi ?
(A) Saina Nehwal
(B) Deepika Kumari
(C) Sushil Kumar
(D) Gagan Narang
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (D)
15. Mr. Zhou Yong Kang was recently on a visit to India. Who is Mr. Zhou Yong Kang ?
(A) President of China
(B) Member of the Polit Bureau of China
(C) Prime Minister of Vietnam
(D) Member of the Polit Bureau of Vietnam
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (B)
16. The countries these days are most worried about the currency war. They are arguing about whose actions harmed the world economy the most. What are the views of the rich countries, particularly USA, in this regard ?
1. They feel that it was China who was unwilling to allow the Yuan to rise.
2. They feel that it was India who had snatched jobs in most of the European countries and USA. This made
the situation more grim.
3. Some countries feel that it was Japan who allowed swapping of its currency with other nations and created a grim situation in world market.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (A)
17. As per reports in various newspapers, Ben Bernanke, the Chairman of the Federal Reserve has predicted a bleak outlook for the economy in his country. This means the economy in which of the following countries is likely to be gloomy in the days to come ?
(A) UK
(B) Australia
(C) Canada
(D) Germany
(E) USA
(Ans) : (E)
18. India recently signed some agreements of strategic importance with Japan. Which of the following areas are covered under these agreements ?
1. Some mega infrastructure projects in North-Western India.
2. Implementation of a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement.
3. India’s role in resolving crisis in Sudan.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) Only 2 and 3
(Ans) : (D)
19. Which of the following is true about the Sudanese Civil War which is going on since last several years ?
1. The war started in 2003 when the Sudan Liberation Movement Army and some others took up arms against the Govt. of Sudan.
2. The main accusation was that the Govt. is involved in genocide of blacks in favour of Arabs.
3. The main cause of the war is Govt.’s support to European Nations and non willingness to join OPEC. The other party feels Sudan should play active role in OPEC as it is one of the main oil producing nations.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (A)
20. ‘FBTR’ is a term/abbreviated name related to the area of—
(A) Nuclear Power
(B) Agriculture
(C) Economy
(D) Medical Science
(E) Sports
(Ans) : (A)
21. World’s largest Diamond Bourse was recently inaugurated in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Jaipur
(E) Mumbai
(Ans) : (E)
22. Which of the following summits (17th summit) was organized in Hanoi in October 2010 in which Dr. Manmohan Singh took part ?
(A) G-8
(B) G-15
(C) OPEC
(D) EU
(E) ASEAN
(Ans) : (E)
23. The European Union is recently considering its membership to Serbia. Years back Serbia decided to become an independent nation by breaking up from—
(A) Russia
(B) Yugoslavia
(C) Armenia
(D) Lithuania
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (B)
24. Busher Nuclear Plant was recently in news. The plant is located in—
(A) Iraq
(B) Russia
(C) Iran
(D) UAE
(E) North Korea
(Ans) : (C)
25. N. K. P. Salve Challenger Series is a tournament associated with which of the following games ?
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Cricket
(D) Lawn Tennis
(E) Badminton
(Ans) : (C)
26. ‘Irani Trophy’ is associated with—
(A) Hockey
(B) Badminton
(C) Football
(D) Lawn Tennis
(E) Cricket
(Ans) : (E)
27. Trecia Kaye Smith’s name was in news recently. She is a well known—
(A) Athlete
(B) Journalist
(C) Film Actress
(D) Politician
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (A)
28. Dilma Rousseff has taken over as the first female President of—
(A) Japan
(B) Brazil
(C) Cameroon
(D) Romania
(E) Portugal
(Ans) : (B)
29. Miss World 2010 contest in which Alexandria Mills was crowned ‘Miss World’ was organized in —
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Britain
(D) France
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (A)
30. Roger Federer won the Stockholm open 2010 by defeating—
(A) Leander Paes
(B) Mikhail Youzhny
(C) Rafael Nadal
(D) Gael Monfils
(E) Florian Mayer
(Ans) : (E)
31. Harward Jacobson’s name was recently in news. Who is Harward Jacobson ?
(A) Film Actor
(B) Politician
(C) Author
(D) Sports person
(E) Journalist
(Ans) : (C)
32. Which of the following is recognized as the biggest cause of Global Hunger in the world ?
(A) Inflation
(B) Poor management of public distribution system
(C) Unemployment and/or underemployment
(D) Malnutrition
(E) All of these
(Ans) : (D)
33. What is the purpose of National Green Tribunal, which started functioning recently ?
(A) It is a Save Earth Campaign
(B) It will hear the cases related to environmental degradation
(C) It is launched to promote awareness towards climatic changes
(D) Its main aim is to give suggestions–how to protect and increase forest cover in India
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (B)
34. Shri Nitish Kumar who won the recent elections held in Bihar is from which of the following parties ?
(A) Congress (I)
(B) BSP
(C) JD (U)
(D) Communist Party of India
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (C)
35. ‘‘The Bridge–The Life and Rise of Barack Obama’’, is a book written by—
(A) Cynthia Tucker
(B) Sarah Palin
(C) Barbara Walters
(D) Michelle Obama
(E) David Remnick
(Ans) : (E)
36. Human Rights Day is observed on which of the following dates ?
(A) December 15th
(B) December 20th
(C) December 10th
(D) November 15th
(E) November 20th
(Ans) : (C)
37. The 8th Asia-Europe Meeting (ASEM) was organized in October 2010 in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Paris
(C) Dhaka
(D) London
(E) Brussels
(Ans) : (E)
38. Dale T. Mortensen and Christopher A. Pissarides are the joint winners of the Nobel Prize 2010 in—
(A) Medicine
(B) Economics
(C) Literature
(D) Peace
(E) Physics
(Ans) : (B)
39. Mr. O. N. V. Kurup who is the winner of the Jnanpith Award, announced recently, writes in—
(A) Tamil
(B) Telugu
(C) Malayalam
(D) English
(E) Hindi
(Ans) : (C)
40. The Govt. of India recently brought an IPO to offload its 10% stake in which of the following companies ?
(A) Hindustan Organic Chemicals Ltd.
(B) Electronics Corporation of India Ltd.
(C) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(D) Air India Ltd.
(E) Coal India Ltd.
(Ans) : (E)
41. Which of the following terms is not used in the field of banking and finance ?
(A) Blue chip companies
(B) Commercial paper
(C) Hedge
(D) Premium Bonds
(E) Wobbe Index
(Ans) : (E)
42. Which of the following prizes/award is not given for excellence in literature ?
(A) Murtidevi Award
(B) Arjuna Award
(C) Vyas Samman
(D) Pulitzer Prize
(E) Saraswati Samman
(Ans) : (B)
43. Which of the following schemes is not launched by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(B) Rural Health Mission
(C) Programme for Control of Blindness
(D) Jeevan Anurag
(E) ASHA
(Ans) : (E)
44. Which of the following programmes is run by the Govt. of India to provide safeguard against starvation during the period of natural calamities ?
(A) Targeted Public Distribution System
(B) Antyodaya Anna Yojana
(C) National Food for work programme
(D) Village Grain Bank Scheme
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (E)
45. India is not self-sufficient in the production of—
(A) Sugar
(B) Milk
(C) Wheat
(D) Edible oil
(E) Jute
(Ans) : (E)
46. Which of the following is a famous Pharma Company in India ?
(A) HCL
(B) BPCL
(C) IDPL
(D) Infosys Technology
(E) Grasim Industries
(Ans) : (C)
47. Rohan Bopanna who represented India in International events is a famous—
(A) Football player
(B) Lawn Tennis player
(C) Cricket player
(D) Hockey player
(E) Athlete
(Ans) : (B)
48. As per Fortune Magazine who amongst the following Indians is ‘The Businessman of the Year’ ?
(A) Anil Agarwal
(B) Kumarmangalam Birla
(C) Mukesh Ambani
(D) Ratan Tata
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (E)
49. The World Habitat Day is observed on which of the following dates ?
(A) October 24
(B) October 14
(C) November 4
(D) November 14
(E) None of these
(Ans) : (E)
50. Chewang Norphel who was given prestigious Jamnalal Bajaj Award 2010 recently, has made contributions in the field of—
(A) Rural development
(B) Literature
(C) Folk art/music
(D) Sports
(E) Film production
(Ans) : (A)

Sunday, July 10, 2011

IBPS Recruitment of Probationary Officers/Management Trainees 2011

The system of Common Written Examination has been approved by each of the 19 participating Public Sector Banks and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) with the consent of Government of India. The written examination for this exam will be conducted by Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) on 18 September 2011.
The Common Written Examination or CWE will be held for the recruitment of Probationary Officers/ Management Trainees posts twice a year. The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has been authorised by Indian Banks’ Association and has received mandate to conduct these exams.
Participating Banks
A total of 19 banks are participating in the Common Written Examination (CWE) held by IBPS.
  1. Allahabad Bank
  2. Indian Overseas Bank
  3. Andhra Bank
  4. Oriental Bank of Commerce
  5. Bank of Baroda
  6. Punjab National Bank
  7. Bank of India
  8. Punjab & Sind Bank
  9. Bank of Maharashtra
  10. Syndicate Bank
  11. Canara Bank
  12. Union Bank of India
  13. Central Bank of India 
  14. United Bank of India
  15. Corporation Bank
  16. UCO Bank
  17. Dena Bank
  18. Vijaya Bank
  19. Indian Bank
Important Dates
  • Opening date for Online Registration: 9 July 2011
  • Payment of Application Fees: 8 July 2011 to 30 July 2011 (both days inclusive)
  • Last date for Online Registration: 1 August 2011
  • Last date for making changes in Application Details: 3 August 2011
  • Download of Call letter for Written Examination: After 4 September 2011
  • Date of Written Examination: 18 September 2011
Eligibility Criteria
Prospective Candidates should ensure that they fulfil the specified eligibility criteria before applying to various Public Sector Banks for the Common Written Examination (CWE). However merely applying for CWE/ appearing for the examination does not imply that a candidate will necessarily be eligible for employment in all or any of the 19 Public Sector Banks as each Bank will stipulate its own eligibility/ qualifying criteria.
Educational Qualification: Bachelor degree in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.
Age limit: Between 20 years and 30 years as on 1 July 2011.
Application Fee: Application fee for SC/ ST/ PWD category candidates is Rs 50 and fee for other category candidates is Rs 450.
Selection Procedure
Written Examination
Sr. No.
Name of Tests (Objective)
No. of Questions
Maximum Marks
Duration
1
Reasoning
50
50

Composite
Time of
150 minutes
2
English Language
50
25
3
Quantitative Aptitude
50
50
4
General Awareness (with special reference to banking industry)
50
50
5
Computer Knowledge
50
50
Descriptive Paper on English Composition (Essay, Précis, Letter Writing etc)

25
60 minutes

Total
250
250

The above tests except the Test of English Language and Descriptive Paper on English Composition will be printed bilingually, ie English and Hindi. The Descriptive Papers of only those candidates who secure minimum qualifying marks in each of the objective tests will be evaluated.
Penalty for Wrong Answers
There will be penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Test. For each wrong answer given by the candidate one fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at corrected score. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
Final Selection
Each participating Public Sector Bank will independently issue a separate recruitment notification, specifying their vacancies and stipulating the eligibility criteria in terms of age, educational qualification, experience (if any), minimum required level of IBPS
score in each component test plus Total Weighted Score (if any) etc.
Successful candidates in the CWE who have been issued scorecards and who meet the stipulated eligibility criteria are then required to apply to any of the participating banks they wish to, quoting their personal details and their CWE scores. Each bank will then individually shortlist candidates and carry out their own selection processes such as Group Discussions and/ or Interviews etc. for final selection.
How to Apply
Candidates can apply online only from 9 July 2011 to 1 August 2011 and no other mode of application will be accepted.
Before applying online, candidates should have the following documents.
1. Candidates are first required to go to the IBPS’s website www.ibps.in and click on the link “Common Written Examination” and apply Online by clicking  on the option “CLICK HERE TO APPLY ONLINE FOR CWE- PROBATIONARY OFFICER/ MANAGEMENT TRAINEES SEPTEMBER 2011” to open up the On-Line Application Form.
2. Candidates are required to upload their photograph and signature as per the specifications given in the Guidelines for Scanning and Upload of Photograph and Signature.
3. Candidates should note their Registration Number and Password for future reference.
4. After applying on-line, the candidate should immediately take a printout of the system generated on-line application form, ensure the particulars filled in are accurate, and retain it for future reference. They should not send this print out to the IBPS.
5. No acknowledgment will be given for online registration. However a Registration Number and Password will be generated and an email/ sms intimation will be sent to the candidate’s email ID/ Mobile Number specified in the online application form.
6. Request for change/correction in any particulars in the Application Form shall not be entertained under any circumstances AFTER THE LAST DATE FOR Editing/ Updating application details specified.
For more details please visit http://www.ibps.in/

Yojana Magazine July 2011

Yojana Magazine: July 2011
The decades of efforts aimed at containing population growth in the country have finally started yielding results, albeit mixed ones. As the provisional results of the 2011 census reveal, we have a lot to feel happy and proud about -but this happiness comes with a baggage of some very serious concerns.
With the growth rate of population slowing down to 17.64from the earlier 21.54 , we can hope to see our population stabilizing earlier than we had expected. The sustained campaign by central and state governments, non government organizations and leaders of the society to educate our masses have also borne fruit – with literacy levels having risen to 74.04 from 64.83 in 2001. What is more heartening in this regard is the fact that among these additional literates the number of women is more than that of men. India is finally giving due thought to the education of her daughters. We are now 4.91 points closer to bridging the gender gap in literacy.
However, while India may have started showing concern about her daughters’ education, the same cannot be said about her enthusiasm in welcoming female offsprings into the family- at least in major parts of the country. The alarming and continuous drop in the Child Sex Ratio over the years is not just a matter of serious concern for the nation but also a matter of shame for any civilized society. Studies point to the growing scale of son preference and the resultant sex- selective abortion or female foeticide as the major reason for this drop in CSR. The trend seems to be more alarming in the northern and the western parts of the country. Clearly, the legislation preventing sex-selective abortion has proved totally ineffectual, and we need to work out more effective strategies in this regard.

Wednesday, July 6, 2011

Puduvai Bharathiar Grama Bank Officers Exam 2010 Solved Paper


English:
Directions—(Q. 1–10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
What Indian politicians and bureaucrats share with their scientist, engineer and carpenter counterparts is their acceptance of mediocrity and lack of skill. The greatest moral failure of Indian institutions is the tolerance of incompetence, …(1)… criminality or corruption. The tolerance of incompetence in …(2)… is a result of a low cultural value attached to the creation and …(3)… of institutions.
Institution building is a hard work; it requires a combination of vision, commitment and performance. Any institution involves a contract between those who …(4)… to the institution and those who support it. The support can take the form of money or votes but that support must be …(5)… continuously. In a properly functioning institutional system, the institutional contract …(6)… the institution members and their supporters takes the form : you give me support and I will give you results. Competence is the channel that sustains the flow of trust from supporters to institutions and back. If doctors don’t cure will they not lose our trust ? While blaming individual politicians and babus for their corrupt ways, let us also examine the system that accepts mediocrity and even lets it …(7)….
What we are seeing in India is a case of contract failure. The contractor who bribes an official and then builds a leaky stadium is not just being …(8)…. He is sustaining a collusive system that subverts rules regulating mutual co-operation between government institutions, market players and society as a whole. In the case of endemic contract failure everyone …(9)…, including the contractor, for once the public loses its trust in institution is even businessmen will …(10)… out on opportunities to make money. The moral status of institutions is central to continued development and prosperity.
1. (A) as
(B) to
(C) never
(D) not
(E) for
Ans : (D)
2. (A) turn
(B) individual
(C) world
(D) partly
(E) importance
Ans : (B)
3. (A) destruction
(B) justification
(C) sustenance
(D) excess
(E) marginalization
Ans : (C)
4. (A) belong
(B) work
(C) help
(D) employed
(E) trust
Ans : (A)
5. (A) returned
(B) earned
(C) needed
(D) discouraged
(E) asked
Ans : (C)
6. (A) suggests
(B) akin
(C) twosome
(D) centered
(E) between
Ans : (E)
7. (A) question
(B) bolder
(C) thrive
(D) out
(E) kill
Ans : (C)
8. (A) variant
(B) trivial
(C) immature
(D) corrupt
(E) generous
Ans : (D)
9. (A) succeeds
(B) suffers
(C) proliferates
(D) responsible
(E) encompasses
Ans : (B)
10. (A) storm
(B) venture
(C) lose
(D) get
(E) walk
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) Rearrange the following five sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) Thus, if we really value it, we will work hard to make it a reality.
(b) Inner peace is the most elusive thing that a human being can seek.
(c) The most important criterion in order to experience it is to value the importance of inner peace.
(d) To experience inner peace one doesn’t have to retreat to a Himalayan cave; rather, one can experience inner peace seated exactly where they are by watching these thoughts.
(e) Nobody can gift the other inner peace at the same time it is only one’s own thoughts that can rob them of their inner peace.
11. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (C)
12. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (e)
(B) (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (b)
(E) (a)
Ans : (A)
13. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (e)
(B) (d)
(C) (c)
(D) (b)
(E) (a)
Ans : (C)
14. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (B)
15. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
16. After ……… payrolls and tightening perks to cope with the economic slowdown last year, software companies are finding that a rising number of engineering and management graduates are transferring their ……… to vocations such as manufacturing and banking.
(A) trimming - loyalties
(B) reducing - accounts
(C) hiking - services
(D) increased - affections
(E) dropped – potentials
Ans : (A)
17. It is very important to ……… that when the swine flu virus enters a human body, it takes a minimum of one day to a maximum of eight days for the disease to develop ……….
(A) gauge - extensively
(B) ascertain - further
(C) understand - fully
(D) verify - remarkably
(E) fathom – clearly
Ans : (C)
18. Scientists, working to save the earth, have ……… ‘dry water’ that soaks carbon three times better than water, and hence helps ……… global warming.
(A) aided - cut
(B) created - combat
(C) built - stop
(D) produced - increase
(E) invented – monitoring
Ans : (B)
19. The first round of the contest had the students ……… themselves and ……… about their hobbies.
(A) introducing - talking
(B) sensitizing - sketching
(C) showcasing - planning
(D) acclimatizing - mentioning
(E) gearing – chalking
Ans : (D)
20. The varsity’s poll process for ……… of new candidates has ……… poor response with only ten thousand applications being received till date.
(A) entrusting - seen
(B) registration - evoked
(C) entrance - made
(D) admission - visited
(E) experimenting – generated
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
21. Initially, shop owners tried to (A) / offer some resistance to the demolition but (B) / seeing the heavy presence of the police force, (C) / their resistance faded off. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
22. Cleanliness drives will be (A) / conducted in various localities (B) / to opening the drains blocked (C) / with polythene bags. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
23. The results of the study showed that (A) / if the partners were willing to talk to each other (B) / and arrive at a mutually agreeable decision,` (C) / the joint decisions were more better than any one person’s judgment. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
24. A year after the global financial crisis saw (A) / students from the best B-schools across the world struggling for a job, (B) / a survey on management education this year thrown (C) / up some rather interesting   findings. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
25. The district authorities are making (A) / a last-ditch attempt to provide (B) / alternative solutions to farmers but (C) / the options is clearly inadequate. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
At the time when the unfortunate incident of the ‘accidental’ exposure to radiation that affected workers and waste collectors in Delhi as they handled radioactive material, took place, the issue of waste disposal, particularly hazardous waste, made the headlines. The lives of those who live off collecting and sorting waste came into out line of vision. But then the issue disappeared.
Long term policies that ensure that the safety and health of those who do such an essential job – “a community of silent environmentalists” someone called them – are not such a high priority any more. One reason is that the people affected are virtually invisible.
Waste collectors around India work silently, often late into the night, sorting out mountains of waste, foraging for anything that can be sold. If you walk down some streets of Central Mumbai after 11 at night, you will see an army of waste collectors. Men, women, children are all hard at work. They work through the night and finally manage to get some sleep on the doorsteps of the shops on those streets. By daylight they become invisible, having stowed their belongings in boxes behind the signs of the shops on whose doorsteps they sleep. These are the people of the night, not noticed by those who inhabit the areas in the day.
What is often not entirely appreciated is that a substantial percentage of waste collectors is women. According to a study, 85 per cent of waste collectors in the city are women, five per cent are children and 10 per cent are men. The majority of them are poor and landless people who came to the city because of drought in their villages. The age group ranges from 7 to 70 years and 98 per cent of them are illiterate. A survey of 60,000 waste collectors found a similar proportion : 60 per cent women, 20 per cent men and 20 per cent children. Studies have revealed that 90 per cent of the women waste pickers are primary bread-winners, often widowed or deserted. It is interesting how the gender division of labour plays out even in the business of waste. While women, and children, do the more hazardous job of sorting and separating the waste, the men deal with the dry garbage, which they transport to wholesalers and factories. As a result, it is the women who are exposed to hazardous waste – none of them wear any kind of protective gear – and also face the physical problems of constantly bending and carrying head loads of the waste. Look at any group of waste collectors and you will spot the bent old women who have been performing this function for decades.
In the slum-city of Mumbai, waste collectors experience the most acute degree of homelessness. While poor people in other kinds of jobs somehow manage to find some shelter in a slum, irrespective of whether it is legal or illegal, waste collectors sleep next to the garbage they have sorted. This is their “wealth”, something they have to protect after they have collected and sorted it until they can monetize it. Hence, near many garbage dumps, even in the better off localities of cities like Mumbai, you see families of waste pickers asleep in the morning. And most often you see only women and children.
Why bring up waste collectors at a time when the main environmental issues being debated are the larger issues of global warming, or environmental disasters such as the oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico ? This is because one cannot speak of the environment without considering its impact on the lives of people. We have hundreds of small-scale and continuing environmental disasters taking place all around us. But we overlook them so long as they do not impact our lives or our lifestyles. Millions of waste pickers in India, who play a crucial role in dealing with the perennial environmental crisis of waste, risk their lives and their health every single day. This is an on-going environmental issue that requires as much attention from ordinary people, the media and policy makers as the larger macro issues.
26. Why are long term policies favouring waste collectors not high priority ?
(A) The Government is currently contemplating over the effects of the oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico and does not have time for other issues.
(B) The plight of these people is not evident as they work late into the night and are not seen much during the day.
(C) The Government is unable to see these people at all and thus is not aware of their existence.
(D) These waste collectors themselves are not in favour of being brought into the organized sector because of the numerous complications involved.
(E) As previous such favourable policies failed to improve the conditions of these waste collectors as they were not implemented effectively.
Ans : (B)
27. Which of the following is true about waste collectors as given in the passage ?
1. Majority of waste collectors are people who have migrated from their village because of some natural calamity.
2. Waste collectors prefer to sleep next to the garbage they have sorted.
3. Most waste collectors are not literate.
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3) are true.
Ans : (E)
28. Why are women waste collectors at a disadvantage as compared to the men waste collectors as mentioned in the passage ?
(A) The men sell the waste collected by the women to wholesalers and keep all the money to themselves without sharing it with the women.
(B) The women do the more dangerous and physical work of sorting through the garbage whereas men mostly transport dry garbage.
(C) Men wear protective gear while sorting through the garbage thereby shielding themselves from the ill effects of being exposed to the waste.
(D) The men force their wives and children to work for them whereas the women do not have this luxury.
(E) The men are not as affected by the waste as the women waste collectors because of the difference in their physical constitution.
Ans : (B)
29. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) The General Public’s Apathetic ways
(B) The Unorganized Sector
(C) The Invisible Waste
(D) Waste Collectors – The World Over
(E) Recognizing the ‘Work’ in ‘Dirty Work’
Ans : (B)
30. Why, according to the author, is the issue of waste collectors as important as the issue of global warming ?
1. As most waste collectors in big cities are children who are ultimately the future of our nation.
2. As without the waste collectors sorting waste the phenomenon of global warming would increase exponentially.
3. As waste collectors deal with wastage which impacts the people’s everyday lives and is also environmentally significant.
(A) Only (2) and (3)
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 31–33) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
31. INHABIT
(A) Reside in
(B) Encompass
(C) Infest
(D) Submerge
(E) Are used to
Ans : (A)
32. FORAGING
(A) Penetrating
(B) Incising
(C) Probing
(D) Begging
(E) Searching
Ans : (E)
33. MONETIZE
(A) Currency
(B) Buy
(C) Encash
(D) Regulate
(E) Pay
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 34–35) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
34. CONSIDERING
(A) Untying
(B) Remembering
(C) Understanding
(D) Disregarding
(E) Condemning
Ans : (D)
35. HAZARDOUS
(A) Pleasant
(B) Efficient
(C) Important
(D) Risky
(E) Harmless
Ans : (E)
 Reasoning:
1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)
3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions : (Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)
12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)
13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)
15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983
16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)
17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)
20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)
Directions : (Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions : (Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.
26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.
31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

General Awareness :
1. The Rate on which Banks borrow from the RBI is called—
(A) SLR
(B) CRR
(C) Interest Rate
(D) Bank Rate
(E) Repo Rate
Ans : (D)
2. M. K. Narayan has taken over as the Governor of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Assam
(C) Meghalaya
(D) West Bengal
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. Which of the following will be the venue of the India-ASEAN Summit to be held in 2012 ?
(A) Tokyo
(B) Jakarta
(C) Beijing
(D) New Delhi
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. As we know the RBI is the apex Bank of India, similarly the apex Bank of USA is called—
(A) Federal Reserve
(B) The Central Bank of USA
(C) Bank of America
(D) Central National Bank of USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
5. As per the newspaper reports the Standards and Poors (S&P) has changed India’s sovereign rating from ‘Negative’ to ‘Stable’. This means—
1. India’s economic condition has improved a lot.
2. There is no pressure of inflation of the economy as it is well under control.
3. India’s economic condition has further gone down as it has failed to control the fiscal deficit.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. As per the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) unveiled by the UPA Govt. in August 2009, India will try to capture new markets for its exports in Asia, Latin America, Africa and Oceania etc. Earlier amongst the following were India’s biggest export markets ?
1. USA
2. Europe
3. SAARC Nations
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. As per the recent reports published in various newspapers, the core infrastructure industries registered a 4.5% growth in the month of February 2010. This figure does not include the performance of which one of the following industries; as it is not a core industry ?
(A) Coal
(B) Power
(C) Paper
(D) Cement
(E) All are core industries
Ans : (C)
8. Who amongst the following has taken over as the new Chief of the Armed Forces ?
(A) Pradeep V. Naik
(B) V. K. Singh
(C) Suresh Mehta
(D) Deepak Kapoor
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. As per the provisions made in the Union Budget 2010-11, Govt. will infuse Rs. 16,500 crores in banks to make their capital base strong. This money will be infused in which of the following types of banks ?
(A) Gramin Banks
(B) Cooperative Banks
(C) National Housing Banks
(D) Public Sector Banks
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Nobel Prize for Peace in 2009 ?
(A) Herta Mulber
(B) Barack Obama
(C) Martli Ahtisaari
(D) Paul Krugman
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
11. As reported in various financial newspapers the Govt. of India is planning to link the prices of diesel and petrol to market prices and may also introduce a graded system of sharing subsidy. If it is done this will be in order to implement the recommendation of which of the following committees ?
(A) Murli Deora Committee
(B) C. Rangarajan Committee
(C) Kirit Parikh Committee
(D) S. Sundareshan Committee
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
12. Which of the following schemes of the Govt. of India is planned to help farmers by providing a competitive price to their produce ?
1. Minimum support price of agro products
2. Creating buffer stock of food grains
3. Making loans available to them on special and subsidized rates of interest
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
13. Which of the following norms/practices adopted by the banks is/are launched to ensure that the money from illegal activities/sources does/do not come to banks and therefore, the economic health of the nation does not get affected ?
1. Know your Customer
2. Financial Inclusion
3. Branchless Banking
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)
14. As a practice, all banks now deduct some amount from their pre tax income and set aside in a separate account to create a cushion for the loans which may go bad. This is called—
(A) CRR
(B) SLR
(C) Provisioning
(D) PLR
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
15. As we know many Indian Banks are opening their branches in foreign countries these days. What in your opinion is/are the reasons owing to which these banks are willing to open branches in foreign countries ?
1. India has the largest network of bank branches in the world. Hence other nations also wish to take advantage of their services.
2. Indian Banks get an opportunity to raise foreign currency funds and also the experience funding joint ventures of multinationals. This prompts them to open their branches in foreign nations.
3. As many foreign banks are functioning in India, India in turn is also required to open equal number of branches in foreign countries. Hence Indian Banks are opening branches in these countries.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
16. Who amongst the following was recently nominated as the ‘Member of the Rajya Sabha’ ?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Manoj Kumar
(C) Aamir Khan
(D) Javed Akhtar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
17. The 97th annual session of the Indian Science Congress was held in which of the following cities in January 2010 ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) New Delhi
(D) Thiruvananthapuram
(E) Hyderabad
Ans : (D)
18. Which of the following crops need plenty of water to grow ?
(A) Jowar
(B) Cotton
(C) Paddy
(D) Bajra
(E) All these need plenty of water
Ans : (C)
19. Which of the following is/are true about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?
1. The Act is now known as Indira Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.
2. The Act is now applicable to all the districts of the country.
3. Minimum wage fixed under this Act is now Rs. 250 per day.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. Who amongst the following was recently awarded the prestigious “Order of Merit of the Italian Republic” ?
(A) Sunil Mittal
(B) Ratan Tata
(C) Harshpati Singhania
(D) Rahul Bajaj
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
21. Govt. of India recently approved the national policy on Bio fuels. Which of the following crops is one which is used to make biofuels ?
(A) Onion
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Wheat
(D) Coconut
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. Which of the following countries is the largest producer of milk in the world ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Denmark
(D) USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
23. Which of the following terms is not associated with the game of Hockey ?
(A) Bouncer
(B) Bully
(C) Short Corner
(D) Goal
(E) Penalty Corner
Ans : (A)
24. Saina Nehwal is a famous—
(A) Lawn Tennis Player
(B) Golf Player
(C) Table Tennis Player
(D) Badminton Player
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
25. Who amongst the following is associated with music and is a maestro of international repute ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) Steve Waugh
(C) Salman Rushdie
(D) Ritu Beri
(E) A. R. Rahman
Ans : (E)
26. India is providing help to which of the following nations in setting up a Medical College there on the lines of the AIIMS ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
27. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the company which produces chemical fertilizers in India ?
(A) IASRI
(B) BHEL
(C) IFFCO
(D) FICCI
(E) FERA
Ans : (C)
28. Which of the following is not a food grain ?
(A) Paddy
(B) Jatropha
(C) Bajra
(D) Jowar
(E) Wheat
Ans : (B)
29. As we know Govt. is paying much attention towards the development of watersheds and water bodies in all the areas of the country. What is/are the reasons owing to which Govt. has to take these special efforts to develop/recharge watersheds and water bodies ?
1. The one single biggest problem of the agricuture in the country is inappropriate irrigation facilities and farmers’ overdependence on the monsoon. Govt. wants farmers to come out of it.
2. The water table in some of the areas in the country is going down. This is a matter of great concern for all of us as this may result in severe water problem in days to come. Govt. is serious about it.
3. Around 30 to 35 per cent watersheds/water bodies in the country are not being utilized as the quality of the water in these has deteriorated over the years.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. Which of the following is/are true about the Indira Awas Yojana ?
1. The scheme provides financial assistance to people living below poverty line for construction of housing units.
2. Every family gets an assistance of Rs. 3 lakhs for construction of new housing unit and upto Rs. 2 lakhs for upgradation of old/existing units.
3. Scheme is available only to those who are staying in any village or urban areas having a population of 50000 or more.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
31. The head office of the World Trade Organisation is located in—
(A) Nepal
(B) India
(C) Japan
(D) Australia
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
32. Who amongst the following is/was not a famous writer of English Language ?
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) Anita Desai
(C) Harivansh Rai Bachchan
(D) Kiran Desai
(E) Chetan Bhagat
Ans : (C)
33. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of Sports ?
(A) Kalidas Samman
(B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(C) Jananpith Award
(D) Arjun Award
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (D)
34. Which of the following trophies/cups is associated with the game of Cricket ?
(A) Davis Cup
(B) Agha Khan Cup
(C) Nehru Trophy
(D) Durand Cup
(E) Duleep Trophy
Ans : (E)
35. Who amongst the following is NOT a recipient of the Padma Vibhushan Award given away recently ?
(A) Y. V. Reddy
(B) Zora Segal
(C) V. Ramakrishnan
(D) Pratap C. Reddy
(E) Shreya Ghosal
Ans : (E)
36. The conference of the Speakers and presiding officers of the commonwealth countries was organized recently in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) London
(C) Pretoria
(D) Kuala Lumpur
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
37. Which of the following films was adjudged as the ‘Best Feature Film’ in 56th National Film Awards, announced recently ?
(A) Antaheen
(B) Fashion
(C) Jogva
(D) Bioscope
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. Who amongst the following Indian Players won the Mixed Doubles of the Australian Open Tennis 2010 ?
(A) Mahesh Bhupati
(B) Leanders Paes
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Rohan Bopanna
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
39. As per the “Education for All Global Monitoring Report”, released by the UNO, over half of the total illiterate population of the world lives in just four countries. Which of the following is not one of these four ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) South Africa
(D) Pakistan
(E) Bangladesh
Ans : (C)
40. Which of the following is/are correct about the Rajiv Gandhi LPG Vitrak Yojana ?
1. Women/men in the age group of 21-45 years will be stakeholders.
2. All stackeholders will earn Rs. 15,000 to Rs. 20,000 per month as their income.
3. LPG will be supplied through a pipeline from the nearest depot to the filling station which will be common for a constellation of 4 to 5 villages.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)
41. An individual going to Bangladesh will be required to make all his/her payments in which of the following currencies ?
(A) Rial
(B) Dinar
(C) Taka
(D) Rupee
(E) Dollar
Ans : (C)
42. Mr. Najib Tun Razak, who was on a visit to India a few months back, is the—
(A) President of Iran
(B) Prime Minister of Iran
(C) President of Malaysia
(D) Prime Minister of Malaysia
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
43. The construction of a dam on which of the following rivers in Arunachal Pradesh has become a matter of concern as some people feel that it will damage the socio cultural environment of the State ?
(A) Brahmaputra
(B) Teesta
(C) Gandak
(D) Padma
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
44. India recently provided a US $ 1 billion credit to which of the following countries in its neighbourhood so that bilateral trade with it can be improved ?
(A) China
(B) Pakistan
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
45. Which of the following regulatory fiscal bodies is celebrating its Platinum Jubilee this year ?
(A) NABARD
(B) SEBI
(C) IRDA
(E) RBI
Ans : (E)
46. As we all know the Govt. of India had launched ‘Look East Policy’ a few years ago so that it can have better relations and trade with South East Asian counties. Which of the following nations is considered or called the “Door of South East Nations” ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Myanmar
(C) China
(D) Afghanistan
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
47. Which of the following countries is going to host SAARC summit next year ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) India
(C) Pakistan
(D) Nepal
(E) Maldives
Ans : (E)
48. As per the reports published in various newspapers, the Union Minister of Corporate Affairs is planning to introduce a system where two firms may audit accounts of every company. Which of the following may be the impact of this dual audit system, when implemented ?
1. This will bring transparent, independent and objective assessments of the functioning of the companies.
2. This will create a warning or alarming system so that Satyam like episodes can be averted.
3. This will give an opportunity to auditors to learn more about the ‘inside activities’ of the companies and also a better understanding of the business tactics, the companies adopt to beat their competitors.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
49. Some financial experts and business leaders feel that the present policies of the RBI may result in hardening of the interest rates further. Besides this hardening of the ‘rupee in international markets is also possible. If it happens, what will be its impact on the market ?
1. More and more Indian firms would like to borrow from global markets instead of domestic ones.
2. Companies may have to suspend their plans of raising capital needed for extension of business for sometime.
3. More and more Indian companies would like to open their offices/branches in foreign nations so that they can approach foreign investors easily.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
50. Which of the following is/are true about the “Gram Nyayalayas” ?
1. These courts will be mobile courts and will function at Panchayat level.
2. The Magistrate of these courts will go to the villages in their area of coverage and will dispose off cases of the villages there itself.
3. Only civil suits related to the property of Rs. 5,00,000 and above will be disposed off in this way.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

CURRENT AFFAIRS PREPARATION PLAN

“Current Affairs” and “General Knowledge” cover many topics like from economy to sports or education to politics, or even technology to automobiles. In every second some issues are happening around the world in these sectors, and to accumulate the excerpt of some highlighted news, and memorize it is a good plan to prepare current affairs and GK.

Some Important Tips to Follow:

Read Newspapers regularly

We all know that “Old is Gold”, same thing applies here too. We need to make a habit of reading newspapers regularly. I’ll suggest you to read more than one newspaper. It will be better if you read one newspaper of your mother language, and other of English. Some useful newspapers are “The Times of India”, “The Hindu”, “The Telegraph” etc. You need to start this habit at least 6 months before the actual exam that will help you to get access to all the important events of that period of time.

You need to keep an eye on what’s happening around you in your country and world as well. Trust me guys, you will surely find it interesting after several days. We all know that staying updated is always a good idea, as it will stand you apart from the rest.

Read Magazines thoroughly

This is another great option to prepare the subject we are talking about. There are many leading magazines that focus on current affairs and General Knowledge. You need to buy it from your local magazine seller, and start reading it thoroughly. These magazines beautifully categorize the articles with its genres to make it interesting to read on. Some of the useful magazines are Pratiyogita Darpan andManorma.

Try to read some business magazines and sports magazines too along with a general magazine. This will increase your chances of cracking the competitive exams with ease. Some useful business magazines areBusiness Today, Business Line etc.

Follow News Channels

You will need to follow news channels at least once a day. Now most of the leading news channels are active for 24*7. You need to pick up a suitable time for yourself to watch any favorite news channel of yours. You can watch ABP News, NDTV, Times Now, ET Now, Zee News etc. Try to go through all the breaking and highlighted news, and make it a habit.

I know that watching news channels for long will bore you, so I’ll suggest you to allocate only 30 minutes for it in a whole day. All the leading ones shows the glimpses of all important events of the day quite frequently, so 30 minutes will be enough for you to boost up your current affairs and GK knowledge.

Maintain a Diary

My teacher used to tell me that whenever you learn something try to write it down in your diary, as it will help you to memorize it in a better manner. He is so right, as this method helped me a lot to score good marks in every exam that I appeared for. As I already mentioned before that a lot of events are occurring in the country and around the world, so it is easily understandable that it is not easy to remember everything. It’s always a superb idea to maintain a diary of current events.

You need to update this diary on a daily basis with all the events that you consider as important ones. This diary will become quite useful for the revision part, as it will provide you information about all the important events at a place. You should keep revising the diary frequently, as it will help you to memorize important names, dates, awards etc.

Channelize your Preparation Accordingly

All the competitive exams are not same, as all of them have different pattern, even when it comes to the same topic as ‘Current Affairs’ or ‘GK’. For example for civil services exam, you need to give importance on events of National value. On the other scenario, in matter of bank job exam, the focus should be on the news on banking sectors, and economic and business news.

Thus I’ll suggest you to prepare as per the exams you are appearing for, as channelizing your preparation according to the pattern of the exam will accelerate your chance of getting selected.

Use Internet Resources

Google, YouTube and Wikipedia are my favorite teachers’; one of my friends told me this once. This is quite true indeed, so you should use all the available online resources to study current affairs and GK for exams. For example this blog is all about “Current Affairs”, so you can check this blog regularly by subscribing to us (check the sidebar for subscription options). You can actively take part some forums that are focusing on current events. The good part is you can follow the websites of all leadingnewspapers online if you don’t have enough time to read newspapers.

Use Social Networking Sites for Good

Believe me or not you can surely use social networking sites to your benefits. Especially to prepare current affairs and General knowledge Facebook, Twitter, LinkedIn and StumbleUpon may help you a lot. You can join some Facebook pages, or follow some twitter accounts that are related to current affairs. You can join our Facebook Page too for this matter, or connect with me at LinkedIn or circle me in Google Plus for all the information on recent happenings to boost up your General Knowledgeability.

Give Priority to your Strength

We usually find difficulties when we try to learn everything at once. In that process basically we study a lot, but remember a little. We need to first select our strength areas for our preparation. Try to givepriority to your strength areas. It may be Sports, economy, Government Affairs or technology. Suppose you are applying for Bank exams, then you should prepare industry related news. Along with that you may pick any 2-3 areas of your strength like sports or technology. You need to prepare these sections to the utmost level. I can assure you that these strategies will help you to score much better in Current Affairs section.

Participate in Online Quizzes

You should participate in some free quizzes that are available online to evaluate yourself. For this matter you can easily access our “Quiz Section”. This will give you proper idea whether you are ready for the big exam day or not. As an added factor it will also provide you confidence i.e. very much essential. You can download Monthly-wise current affairs questions from Here.