FCI MANAGEMENT TRAINEE (Accounts) EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at—
(A) Cost price
(B) Market price
(C) Cost or market price which ever is higher
(D) Cost or market price which ever is lower
Ans. (D)

2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of—
(A) Over statement of assets
(B) Understatement of assets
(C) Understatement of liabilities
(D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts
Ans. (B)

3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to—
(A) Accrual concept
(B) Entity concept
(C) Dual aspect concept
(D) Money measurement concept
Ans. (D)

4. Balance in ‘Nazrana’s a/c’ in the books of lessee is shown in—
(A) Landlords a/c
(B) P&L a/c
(C) Balance sheet assets side
(D) Balance sheet liabilities side
Ans. (C)

5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on—
(A) Cash price of the asset
(B) Hire purchase price of the asset
(C) Higher of the two
(D) Lower of the two
Ans. (A)

6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under—
(A) Asset accrued method
(B) Total cash price method
(C) Any of the two methods
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be-—
(A) Rs. 16667
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 33333
Ans. (B)

8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at—
(A) Opening rate of exchange
(B) Closing rate of exchange
(C) Average rate of exchange
(D) Rate applicable to debtors
Ans. (B)

9. If goods are transferred from ‘X’ department to ‘Y’ department at cost +25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in ‘Y’ department will be—
(A) Rs. 4000
(B) Rs. 5000
(C) Rs. 6000
(D) Rs. 3333
Ans. (A)

10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonoured, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs.6000
(C) Rs. 4000
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)

11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum—
(A) 5 partners
(B) 10 partners
(C) 20 partners
(D) Any number of partners
Ans. (B)

12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ‘X’. If ‘X’ withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be—
(A) Debited to his capital a/c
(B) Credited to his drawing a/c
(C) Credited to his current a/c
(D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c
Ans. (A)

13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm—
(A) Interest at 6% p.a.
(B) Interest at 12% p.a.
(C) Interest at 15% p.a.
(D) No interest
Ans. (A)

14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be—
(A) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2
(B) 4: 3 : 2: 1
(C) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be—
(A) 10:6:4
(B) 6:10:4
(C) 8:8:4
(D) 9:7:4
Ans. (D)

16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24000. C is admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill—
(A) Rs.21000
(B) Rs.9000
(C) Rs. 15000
(D) Rs. 6000
Ans. (D)

17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of—
(A) Rs. 500000
(C) Rs. 800000
(B) Rs.600000
(D) Rs. 375000
Ans. (A)

18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c—
(A) Passage money
(B) Freight
(C) Primage
(D) Address commission
Ans. (D)

19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking company have been revised w.e.f.—
(A) 1st April 1949
(B) 1st April 1991
(C) 1st April 1992
(D) 1st April 1956
Ans. (C)

20. If accured outstanding premium is given in the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in—
(A) Revenue Account
(B) Balance Sheet
(C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

21. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost or net realisable value on account of the accounting principle of—
(A) Realisation
(B) Consistency
(C) Conservatism
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)

22. In the period of rising prices, LIFO method may result in—
(A) Lowering the profit
(B) Raising the profit
(C) Raising the tax liability
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)

23. Given,
Total assets turnover 4
Net Profits 10%
Total Assets Rs. 50000
Net profit will be—
(A) Rs. 15000
(B) Rs. 10000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs.20000
Ans. (D)

24. A company auditor addresses his audit report to-
(A) Board of directors
(B) Members
(C) Managing director
(D) Company secretary
Ans. (B)

25. Bonus shares means shares issued to—
(A) Workers
(B) Existing equity shareholders
(C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of dividend
(D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest
Ans. (B)

26. Which of the following does not call for physical verification?
(A) Stock
(B) Plant
(C) Loose tools
(D) Goodwill
Ans. (D)

27. Cash from operations is equal to—
(A) Net profit + increase in current assets
(B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities
(C) Profit from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and liabilities
(D) Fund from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and current liabilities
Ans. (C)

28. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 Firm’s capital is Rs. 60000 and normal return on business is expected at 10%. The goodwill by capitalisation method will be-
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 40000
Ans. (A)

29. Which of the following is not a current liability?
(A) Bank overdraft
(B) Redeemable debentures
(C) Account payable
(D) Provision for bad debts
Ans. (B)

30. Amount of under writing commission payable on the issue of debentures is limited to—
(A) 2%
(B) 2.5%
(C) 3%
(D) 5%
Ans. (B)

31. Which of the following acid test ratio can be said to be satisfactory?
(A) 2: 1
(C) 1: 1
(B) 1: 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

32. The two factor theory of motivation was propounded by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Herzberg
(C) McGregor
(D) Maslow
Ans. (B)

33. Which of the following leadership styles is most commonly found now a day?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Free rein
(D) Participative
Ans. (B)

34. Deciding in advance what is to be done in future is called—
(A) Management
(B) Coordination
(C) Planning
(D) Decision-making
Ans. (C)

35. The organisation structure where there is direct vertical relationship is called—
(A) Line organisation
(B) Chain organisation
(C) Command organisation
(D) All the above
Ans. (D)

36. When managers devote their attention only to those events where results are highly deviated from normal; ft is called—
(A) Management by objective
(B) Management by exception
(C) Management by crisis
(D) Management by choice
Ans. (B)

37. Under delegation of authority—
(A) Authority is given to subordinates
(B) Authority flows from top to bottom
(C) Delegator of authority is not received of accountability
(D) All the above happens
Ans. (D)

38. The process of determining by observation and study and reporting pertinent information relating to the nature of specific job is called—
(A) Job specification
(B) Job evaluation
(C) Job analysis
(D) Job description
Ans. (C)

39. In case of a private company—
(A) There is restriction on the right to transfer of shares
(B) The number of members is restricted
(C) Invitation to public for the subscription of shares is prohibited
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)

40. A person at anyone time can not be DIRECT of more than—
(A) 1 Company
(B) 7 Companies
(C) 15 Companies
(D) 20 Companies
Ans. (C)

41. Certificate of commencement of business is not required by a—
(A) Public company
(B) Any type of company
(C) Private company
(D) Private company subsidiary to a public company
Ans. (C)

42. Henry Fayol is known for—
(A) Scientific management
(B) Rationalisation
(C) Industrial psychology
(D) Principles of managements
Ans. (D)

43. The principle of unity of command’ implies—
(A) Unity of thought and action
(B) Unity amongst subordinates
(C) Instructions from staff authority
(D) Instructions from line authority
Ans. (D)

44. A company has equity capital of Rs. 200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100000, long term loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be—
(A) 1:1
(B) 0.5: 1
(C) 0.4: 1
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)

45. In case of a company, total assets less outside liabilities is called—
(A) Net working capital
(B) Gross working capital
(C) Deferred liabilities
(D) Net worth
Ans. (D)

46. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is sold would be—
(A) Rs. 39000
(B) Rs. 40000
(C) Rs.41000
(D) Rs. 44000
Ans. (A)

47. Premium on issue of shares is shown in balance sheet as—
(A) An asset
(B) A liability
(C) An expense
(D) A revenue
Ans. (B)

48. Which of the following is known as ‘backbone of auditing’?
(A) Verification of assets
(B) Internal check
(C) Vouching
(D) Internal audit
Ans. (C)

49. A limited company? 100 shares of Rs. 10/- cash fully called up on which Rs. 4/- per share was paid up. The company reissued 50 shares at the rates of Rs. 8/- each. The amount transferred to capital reserve will be—
(A) Rs. 500
(B) Rs.200
(C) Rs. 250
(D) Rs. 100
Ans. (D)

50. Sale of long term investments indicates—
(A) A change in current assets
(B) Application of funds
(C) Increase in working capital
(D) Source of funds
Ans. (D)

51. Net working capital refers to—
(A) Current assets
(B) Current assets minus current liabilities
(C) Equity share capital minus fixed assets
(D) Retired earnings.
Ans. (B)

52. If sales Rs. 6000 gross profit is 1/3 on cost, purchases are R. 4900 and the closing stock is Rs. 900, the opening stock will be—
(A) Rs.400
(B) Rs.500
(C) Rs. 1100
(D) Rs. 2000
Ans. (B)

53. The primary objective of audit is—
(A) Detection and prevention of frauds
(B) Detection and prevention of errors
(C) Detection of frauds and errors
(D) To ensure the final accounts and statements exhibit true and fair position of business
Ans. (D)

54. ‘An auditor is a watch dog and not a blood hound’. This was observed in case of— (A) London oil storage company
(B) Kingston cotton Mills Limited
(C) London General Bank
(D) Delightful Cigarette Company Ltd.
Ans. (B)

55. If two or more sugar mills combine together, it is known—
(A) Horizontal combination
(B) Vertical combination
(C) Lateral combination
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)

56. Surrender value is related to—
(A) Marine insurance
(B) General insurance
(C) Life insurance
(D) Fire insurance
Ans. (C)

57. Over capitalisation refer to—
(A) Excess of capital
(B) Excess rate of dividend payment, on shares
(C) Over estimation of rate of capitalisation
(D) Raising more capital than is warranted by its earning power
Ans. (D)

58. Motivation refers to—
(A) Coordinate the people
(B) Guide the working people
(C) Terrorise the people
(D) Inducing people to work willing by
Ans. (D)

59. Which of the following is not a barrier in communication—
(A) Fear and distrust
(B) Affection
(C) Perception
(D) Noise
Ans. (B)

60. “Management is an art of getting things done through and with formally organised group.” This definition has been by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Harod Koontz
(D) F. W. Taylor
Ans. (C)

61. Foreign exchange for import of goods is sanctioned by—
(A) Exim Bank
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) State Bank
(D) Ministry of commerce
Ans. (B)

62. The cost of a machine having a span of life of 5 years is Rs. 10000. It has a scrap value of Rs. 1000. The amount of depreciation in the first year under the sum of year’s digit method will be—
(A) Rs. 1600
(B) Rs. 1800
(C) Rs. 2000
(D) Rs. 3000
Ans. (D)

63. Given:
Gross profit Rs. 60000
Gross profit ratio: 20%
Debtor’s velocity 2 months
The amount of debtors will be—
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 50000
(C) Rs. 120000
(D) Rs.200000
Ans. (B)

64. Premium on issue of shares can be used for—
(A) Issue of Bonus shares
(B) Payment of Dividends
(C) Payment of operating expenses
(D) Redemption of debentures
Ans. (A)

65. If current ratio is 25, quick ratio (1) 5 and net working capital Rs. 15000. This value of inventory will be—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs. 15000
(C) Rs. 37500
(D) Rs. 52500
Ans. (A)

66. Unclaimed dividend is shown on the liability side of the balance sheet under the heading—
(A) Revenue and surplus
(B) Provisions
(C) Current liabilities
(D) Miscellaneous items
Ans. (C)

67. Accounting standards in India are prescribed by—
(A) Company Law Board
(B) Institute of charted accountants of India
(C) Institute of coat and works accountants of India
(D) Indian standard Board
Ans. (B)

68. Which of the following is not correct—
(A) Purchase + Opening stock—Cost of goods sold = Closing stock
(B) Opening stock + Purchases — Closing stock = Cost of goods sold
(C) Closing stock + Cost of goods sold — Purchases = Opening stock
(D) Cost of goods sold — Closing stock + Purchases = Opening stock
Ans. (D)

69. A company bought assets worth Rs. 360000 and in lieu issued debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 10%. The number of debentures issued will be—
(A) 3000
(B) 3600
(C) 3960
(D) 400
Ans. (D)

70. A person got insured his goods worth Rs. 10000 for Rs. 80QO against fire. Loss by fire to him was Rs. 9000. He can claim—
(A) Rs. 8000
(B) Rs. 9000
(C) Rs. 10000
(D) Rs. 7200
Ans. (D)

71. The data obtained from a newspaper are—
(A) Primary data
(B) Secondary data
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)

72. Current Ratio of a firm is 3: 1 and working capital is Rs. 60000. What will be the amount of current Assets—
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs90000
(C) Rs. 120000
(D) Rs. 180000
Ans. (B)

73. The income from that house property is taxable under the head “Income from House property”.
(A) The assessee has ownership on that house
(B) The assessee uses that house for his business
(C) The assessee himself lives in that house
(D) The assessee has let out that house on rent for residence
Ans. (A)

74. Following is the deduction in respect of repair under the head of income from house property—
(A) 25% of Annual Value
(B) 30% of Net Annual Value
(C) 1/5 of Annual Value
(D) 1/5 of Net Annual Value
Ans. (B)

75. Single entry system can not be maintained by—
(A) Sole proprietorship
(B) Partnership concerns
(C) Joint stock company
(D) All of these
Ans. (D)

76. Cash account will not be affected by—
(A) Cash paid to creditors
(B) Discount received
(C) Cash sales
(D) Cash received from debtors
Ans. (B)

77. Maximum standard Deduction for employees getting gross salary not more than Rs.
100000 is allowed—
(A) Rs. 20000
(B) Rs. 25000
(C) Rs. 30000
(D) Rs. 33000
Ans. (C)

78. Tax audit is compulsory in case of a person carrying on business whose gross receipt) turnover/sales and exceeds—
(A) Rs. 50 Lakhs
(B) Rs. 40 Lakhs
(C) Rs. l0 Lakhs
(D) Rs. 25 Lakhs
Ans. (B)

79. Mr. Rastogi of Meerut was declared insolvent. One of his liabilities related to one months rent due to his landlord. This liability will be treated as—
(A) Preferential Creditor
(B) Partly Secured Creditor
(C) Fully Secured Creditor
(D) Unsecured Creditor
Ans. (A)

80. When two or more companies liquidate to form a new company. It is called—
(A) Amalgamation
(B) Absorption
(C) Reconstruction
(D) Purchase of Business
Ans. (A)

81. A, B and C are partners in a firm. If D is to be admitted to the firm as a new partner—
(A) Old firm has to be dissolved
(B) Old partnership has to be dissolved
(C) Both the old firm and the old partnership have to be dissolved
(D) No need to dissolve either firm or the partnership
Ans. (D)

82. Remington sold one typewriter to Ramesh Chandra under installment purchase system on 1st January 1996, payment for which was to be made as under—
On 01.01.1996 - Rs. 3000
On 31.12.1996 - Rs. 1700
On 31.12.1997 - Rs. 3600
On 31.12.1998 - Rs. 2300
On 31.12.1999 - Rs. 1100
Interest at 10% p.a. is included in each installment. The total interest charged amount to-
(A) Rs.2100
(B) Rs. 1950
(C) Rs. 1800
(D) Rs. 1700
Ans. (B)

83. The liquidator of a company is entit1edio a remuneration of 2% on assets realised, and 3% on the amount distributed to unsecured creditors. The assets realised Rs. 100000 including cash balance of Rs. 3000. Amount available for distribution to unsecured creditors before paying liquidators remui4eration was Rs. 46350 liquidator’s remuneration will be—
(A) Rs.3100
(C) Rs. 3290
(B) Rs.3140
(D) Rs. 3350
Ans. (C)

84. EXIM Bank was established on—
(A) 1st Dec 1984
(B) 1st June 1985
(C) 1st Jan 1982
(D) 1st July 1980
Ans. (C)

85. For capital gain being long term capital gain, an assessee should retain the assets for a period of—
(A) 40 months
(B) 36 months
(C) More than 36 months
(D) Less than 36 months
Ans. (C)

86. The salary received by a member of parliament is—
(A) Exempt from Tax
(B) Taxable under the head of salary
(C) Taxable under the head of other sources
(D) Taxable under the lead of business
Ans. (C)

87. For the purpose of income tax it is necessary for agriculture income that—
(A) Land should be used for agricultural activities
(B) Land should be used for godown
(C) Land should be used for irrigation
(D) None of above
Ans. (A)

88. Depreciation is allowed on—
(A) Tangible Assets
(B) Current Assets
(C) Fixed Assets
(D) Intangible Assets
Ans. (C)

89. When shares are forfeited, the share capital account is debited by—
(A) Nominal value of forfeited shares
(B) Paid up amount of forfeited shares
(C) Called up amount on forfeited shares
(D) Forfeited amount of shares
Ans. (C)

90. The term ‘POIM’ for the four functions of management. Planning, organisation, integration and measuring was given by.—
(A) F.W. Taylor
(B) Harold Smiddy
(C) Tanon Brown
(D) Peter F. Drucker
Ans. (B)

FCI MANAGEMENT TRAINEE (General/Depot) Reasoning Practice Questions

1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
Ans. (A)

2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
Ans. (B)

3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
Ans. (D)

4. acme : mace :: alga: ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
Ans. (D)

5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
Ans. (D)

6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
Ans. (C)

7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D)G
Ans. (C)

8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans. (D)

9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
Ans. (C)

10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(C) 52
(B) 49
(D) 56
Ans. (B)

Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the other three.
11. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)

12. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
Ans. (B)

13. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
Ans. (B)

14. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
Ans. (C)

Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.

15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)

16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
Ans. (B)

17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
Ans. (C)

Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

18. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
Ans. (C)

19. (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
Ans. (A)

20. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
Ans. (A)

21. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
Ans. (B)

22. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
Ans. (B)

23. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (D)

24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
Ans. (D)

25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
Ans. (C)

26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
Ans. (B)

27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
Ans. (A)

28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
Ans. (C)

29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (B)

30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (D)

31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?

(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
Ans. (A)

32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)

33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)

34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
Ans. (C)

35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
Ans. (C)

36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
Ans. (D)

37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
Ans. (D)

38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
Ans. (D)

39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (A)

40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (C)

41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
Ans. (D)
42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded
in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
Ans. (D)

43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
Ans. (B)

44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Ans. (B)

45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
Ans. (D)

46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
Ans. (B)

47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to …….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)

48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to………
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
Ans. (D)

49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
Ans. (B)

50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Ans. (B)

FCI Management Trainee (General/Depot) exammODEL qUESTIONS

FCI selection process will be consisting of written test, group discussion (GD)and interview.
written test will comprise of 90 multiple choice question of general aptitude consisting of
Reasoning,
Data Analysis,
Computer Awareness,
General Awareness,
Management and Current Affairs for the post of ManagementTrainees (Genl./Depot/Movt.)

1. Who of the following brought the Sikh Kingdom of Punjab under direct British rule
by an official proclamation?
(A) Lord Hastings
(B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) Lord Minto
(D) Lord Dalhousie
Ans. (D)

2. India is comparatively not rich in which one of the following minerals compared to the other three?
(A) Bauxite
(B) Copper
(C) Iron
(D) Manganese
Ans. (B)

3. Among the following, which one has recorded the highest population growth rate during 1991-2001?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Manipur
(C) Nagaland
(D) Sikkim
Ans. (C)

4. In which one of the following regions does the Indus river originate?
(A) Laddakh
(B) Lahaul
(C) Nepal
(D) Tibet
Ans. (A)

5. What is the term used to denote the temperature at which the water vapour present in the atmosphere is sufficient to saturate?
(A) Condensation point
(B) Dew point
(C) Sublimation point
(D) Saturation point
Ans. (D)

6. The earth’s reflectivity of solar radiation, termed albedo, is highest in which one of the following?
(A) Cropland
(B) Forest area
(C) Sand desert
(D) Snow area
Ans. (D)

7. Who of the following wrote the book Precepts of Jesus?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy
(B) Devendranath Tagore
(C) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(D) Keshab Chandra Sen
Ans. (A)

8. Who for the first time saw bacteria through a microscope made by himself?
(A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
(B) Louis Pasteur
(C) Robert Hooke
(D) Robert Virchow
Ans. (A)

9. Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration?
(A) Dictyosomes
(B) Endoplasmic reticula
(C) Lysosomes
(D) Mitochondria
Ans. (D)

10. To which of the following types of animals are Salamanders closely related ?
(A) Dolphins and Whales
(B) Frogs and Toads
(C) Prawns and Crabs
(D) Seals and Walruses
Ans. (B)

11. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A seed is a ripened —
(A) ovary
(B) flower
(C) gynoecium
(D) ovule
Ans. (D)

12. Historical materialism is a tenet of which one of the following political theories ?
(A) Capitalism
(B) Liberalism
(C) Fascism
(D) Marxism
Ans. (D)

13. What is ‘Look East Policy’ often in the news?
(A) Government of India’s initiative for the infrastructural development in the North Eastern States
(B) India’s search for oil and gas in its Eastern shoreline
(C) India’s collaboration with some East Asian countries in the exploration of oil and gas
(D) India’s continuing pursuit of close relations with South-East Asian countries
Ans. (D)

14. Who of the following published a famous pamphlet known as ‘Right of Mass’ and urged the people in England, America and France to fight for their liberty ?
(A) Thomas Jefferson
(B) Thomas Paine
(C) John Locke
(D) Jean Jacques Rousseau
Ans. (B)

15. Who of the following invented the cotton gin that separates the seeds from cotton three hundred times faster than by hand?
(A) Eli Whitney
(B) George Stephenson
(C) McAdam
(D) James Watt
Ans. (A)

16. Whose duty is it to recommend to the President of India on the issue of the distribution and allocation of the net proceeds of taxes in the context of Centre State fiscal relations ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Union Ministry of Finance
(D) Finance Commission
Ans. (D)

17. In the Union Government, under whose charge is the Cabinet Secretariat?
(A) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(B) The President of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) The Union Home Minister
Ans. (C)

18. Which Five-Year Plan had an objective of “Rapid Industrialization with particular emphasis on development of basic and heavy industries”?
(A) First
(C) Third
(B) Second
(D) Fourth
Ans. (B)

19. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given rulers of ancient India?
(A) Ashoka — Kanishka — Milinda
(B) Milinda — Ashoka — Kanishka
(C) Ashoka — Milinda — Kanishka
(D) Milinda — Kanishka — Ashoka
Ans. (C)

20. Which one of the following is not a disease caused by virus?
(A) Bird-flu
(B) Chickenpox
(C) Cholera
(D) Dengue
Ans. (C)

21. In terms of the evolution of organisms, which one among the following is the most advanced?
(A) Bat
(C) Shark
(B) Pigeon
(D) Vulture
Ans. (A)

22. Which one of the following is not a genetic disorder?
(A) Colour blindness
(B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Hemophilia
(D) Xerophthalmia
Ans. (D)

23. Which one of the following is an enzyme?
(A) Gastrin
(B) Keratin
(C) Trypsin
(D) Vasopressin
Ans. (C)

24. In human body, which one of the following secretes hormones as well as digestive enzymes ?
(A) Oesophagus
(B) Pancreas
(C) Spleen
(D) Large intestine
Ans. (B)

25. In the human body, which of the following store / stores extra blood for release when
shortages occur?
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Spleen
(D) Lymph nodes
Ans. (C)

26. A bullet travelling horizontally hits a block kept at rest on a horizontal surface and gets embedded into it, the two together then move with a uniform velocity. Which one of the following conservation laws holds?
(A) Conservation of angular momentum
(B) Conservation of kinetic energy
(C) Conservation of linear momentum
(D) Conservation of velocity
Ans. (C)

27. Which one of the following is correct?
A negatively charged glass rod has always—
(A) less electrons than protons
(B) less electrons than neutrons
(C) less protons than electrons
(D) less neutrons than protons
Ans. (C)

28. Who among the following was sent by Lord Harding’s to South Africa to plead the cause of Indians led by the young Gandhi?
(A) B. G. Tilak
(B) G. K. Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Motilal Nehru
Ans. (B)

29. Which one of the following is not a current of North Atlantic Ocean?
(A) Falkland Current
(B) Canary Current
(C) Labrador Current
(D) Gulf Stream
Ans. (A)

30. Which one of the following States does not share boundary with Jharkhand ?
(A) Chattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (B)

31. Through which States does Vamsadhara river flow?
(A) Andhra Pradesh and Chattisgarh only
(B) Chattisgarh and Orissa only
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa only
(D) Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh and Orissa
Ans. (C)

32. Whose entry into India resulted in the introduction of maize crop in India?
(A) Dutch
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
Ans. (D)

33. The efforts of who of the following led to the “Age of Consent Act, 1891”?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) M. G. Ranade
(C) Surendra Nath Bannerjee
(D) Mulbari
Ans. (D)

34. What was the name of the party formed by Subhas Chandra Bose after leaving Indian
National Congress?
(A) Congress Socialist Party
(B) Forward Bloc
(C) Indian National Conference
(D) Swaraj Party
Ans. (B)

35. Among the following who was a prominent leader of Khilafat Movement?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans. (B)

36. Who was the architect of the ‘Drain Theory’ and the author of the book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Ramesh Chandra Dutt
Ans. (A)

37. The Civil Disobedience Movement started with which of the following?
(A) No-tax campaign in Bardoli district
(B) Demonstration of Akali Sikhs at Nabha
(C) Demonstration against the Simon Commission
(D) Dandi March
Ans. (D)

38. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide
Ans. (B)

39. Which dance form are Birju Maharaj and Gopi Krishna renowned for?
(A) Kathak
(B) Chhau
(C) Kathakali
(D) Odissi
Ans. (A)

401. Which is the official language of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep?
(A) Tamil
(B) Marathi
(C) Malayalam
(D) Konkani
Ans. (C)

41. Who is known as the ‘Father of India’s missile programme’?
(A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) R. Santhanam
(C) Raja Ramanna
(D) Homi Bhabha
Ans. (A)

42. The birthday of which sportsperson is celebrated as National Sports Day?
(A) Sunil Gavaskar
(B) PT. Usha
(C) Prakash Padukone
(D) Dhyan Chand
Ans. (D)

43. Who among the following holds a record of the fastest 100 test wickets taken by an Indian bowler?
(A) Erapalli Prasanna
(B) Bhagawat Chandrasekhar
(C) Bishan Singh Bedi
(D) Kapil Dev
Ans. (D)

44 In which city were the first Asian Games held?
(A) Bangkok
(B) Kuala Lumpur
(C) New Delhi
(D) Moscow
Ans. (C)

45. The First Five Year Plan covered the period—
(A) 1951-56
(B) 1952-57
(C) 1947-52
(D) 1950-55
Ans. (A)

46. The breadth of the railway broad gauge is approximately—
(A) 1.67m
(B) 1.33m
(C) 2.00m
(D) 1.83m
Ans. (A)

47. Modulation used in a GSM mobile phone is—
(A) PSK
(B) BPSK
(C) MSK
(D) GMSK
Ans. (D)

48. The light in optical fibre cable propagates due to—
(A) Refraction
(B) Diffraction
(C) Total internal reflection
(D) Interference
Ans. (C)

49. When a TV receiver is switched n, the picture comes late, Why ?
(A) Video bandwidth is large
(B) Video signal takes longer to arrive
(C) Electron emission takes time
(D) All of the above.
Ans. (C)

50. Seismograph is used in the study of—
(A) Moon
(B) Earthquake
(C) Floods
(D) Tides
Ans. (B)

BSF HEAD CONSTABLES ENGLISH MODEL PAPER

1. Who among the following is the author of the book ‘Deep-Shikha?
(a) Gora
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Mahadevi Verma
(d Ram Naresh Tripathi
Ans. (c)

2. The author of the book “Meri Eqyavan Kavitayen” is—
(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(b) Abul Kalam
(c) Dharamveer Bharti
(d) Manmohan Singh
Ans. (a)

3. The Capital of Mizoram is—
(a) Imphal
(b) Shillong
(c) Kohima
(d) Aizawl
Ans. (d)

4. The Book ‘Harry Potter and Goblet of Fire’ is been written by—
(a) Robert Ludlum
(b) J.K. Rowling
(c) Sidney Sheldon
(d) Spencer Johnson
Ans. (b)

5. Which among the fo1lowing is the 28th State of India?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Uttaranchal
(c) Chattisgarh
(d) Gorkhaland
Ans. (a)

6. Population explosion in a country means —
(a) High birth rate and high death rate
(b) High birth rate and low death rate
(c) Low birth rate and high death rate
(d) Low birth rate and low death rate
Ans. (b)

7. How the poverty line is calculated?
(a) Their house
(b) Nature of employment
(c) Calorie consumption
(d) Standard of education
Ans. (c)

8. Elasticity of demand is a nature
(a) to increase and decrease on the change of price
(b) to increase the price
(c) to decrease the price
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)

9. Capital is—
(a) to earn property
(b) it is kept in boxes and locker
(c) it is earthed
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)

10. For a study of the long-term growth of the economy we use—
(a) personal income
(b) disposable income
(c) money GNP
(d) real GNP
Ans. (d)

11. Who is said to be the father of nuclear research in India?
(a) Raja Ramanna
(b) U.R. Rao
(c) Homi J. Bhabha
(d) C.V.Raman
Ans. (c)

12. The- science dealing with the study of phenomena at very- low temperature is known as—
(a) cryogenics
(b) frozenics
(c) cytogenics
(d) Refrigenics
Ans. (a)

13. Constituent Assembly was presided by—
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. Ambedkar
(c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Dr. K.M Munshi
Ans. (a)

14. Which two words were added in the Preamble of the Indian constitution by the 42nd Amendment?
(a) Secular and Democratic
(b) Secular and Socialist
(c) Secular and Republic
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

15. By which Article of Indian Constitution a citizen can go to the Supreme Court for his Fundamental Rights?
(a) Article-31
(b) Article—29
(c) Article-32
(d) Article-10
Ans. (c)

16. By which constitutional Amendment voter’s age was lowered down to 18 years from 21 years?
(a) 48th
(b) 57th
(c) 61st
(d) 63rd
Ans. (c)

17. Which among the following is now not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right of Equality
(b) Right of Property
(c) Right to Religion
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

18. In which Five-Year–Plan the poverty line was defined?
(a) Seventh Five-Year-Plan.
(b) Sixth Five-Year-Plan
(c) Eighth Five-Year-Plan
(d) Fifth Five-Year-Plan
Ans. (d)

19. The Eighth Five Year Plan was started on—
(a) 1991
(b) 1990
(c) 1992
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)

20. When the planning Commission was started?
(a) June, 1949
(b) October, 1951
(c) March, 1950
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

21. One rupee note in India has the signature of—
(a) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
(b) Finance Secretary
(c) Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
(d) Note of these
Ans. (b)

22. Vikram Era was started in—
(a) 19 B.C.
(b) 58 B.C.
(c) 78 A.D.
(d) 73 A.D.
Ans. (b)

23. Which among the following is chronologically true?
A. Gandhi-Irwin Pack
B. Nehru Report
C. Non-Cooperation Movement
D. Formation of Forward Block
Find the answer from the codes given below—
(a) C, D, A, B
(b) C, B, A, D
(c) B, C, D, A
(d) B, C, A, D
Ans. (b)

24Who has been referred to as the conscience keeper of Gandhiji?
(a) C. Rajgopalachari
(b) R. Tagore
(c) V. Patel
(d) G.K. Gokhale
Ans. (a)

25. Which among the followiig is the result of Taimur Invasion?
(a) Downfall of Mughal
(b) Downfall of Lodhi dynasty
(c) Downfall of Tughlaq dynasty
(d) Downfall. o Khilji dynasty
Ans. (c)

26. Who was the First Governor General of Independent. India?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) C. Rajgopalachari
(c) J. L. Nehru
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans. (b)

27. Tigris river flows through ‘which of the following countries?
(a) Israel
(b) Iran
(c) Italy
(d) Iraq
Ans. (d)

28. BBC is a
(a) broadcasting corporation
(b) news agency
(c) banking company
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)

29. Kroner is the currency of
(a) Sweden
(b) Switzerland
(c) England
(d) Portugal
Ans. (a)

30. Surinam is the new name of—
(a) Dutch Guyana
(b) Cameroon
(c) Indonesia
(d) Papua Guinea
Ans. (a)

Directions (Q. 31-35): Read the passage given below carefully and answer these questions.
PASSAGE
Self poisoned in this fashion, civilization looks as though it might easily decline into a kind of premature senility. With a mind almost atrophied by lack of use, unable to entertain itself and grown so wearily uninterested in the readymade distractions offered from without that nothing but the grossest stimulants of an ever increasing violence and crudity can move it, the democracy of the future will sicken of a chronic and mortal boredom. It will go perhaps, the way the Romans went the Romans who came at last to lose, precise1y as we are doing now, the capacity to distract themselves; the Romans who like us, lived on readymade entertainment in which they had no participation. Their deadly ennui demanded ever more gladiators, more tight rope-walking elephants, more rare and far fetched animals to be slaughtered. Ours would demand no less, but owing to the existence of a few idealists, doesn’t get all it asks for. The most violent forms of entertainment can only be obtained illicitly, to satisfy a taste for slaughter and cruelty you must become a member of Klu Klux Klan: Let us not despair, however; the force of a boredom clamoring to be alleviated may yet prove too much for the idealists.

31. The main, idea of the passage is —
(a) Mind is degenerated
(b) Democracy is spoiled because of boredom
(c) Entertainment are illegal
(d) Civilizations may become imbecile because of ennui
Ans. (a)

32. Why will future democracy be diseased?
(a) Because of the lack of distractions
(b) Because of the lack of entertainment
(c) Because of the degeneration of the mind
(d) Because of idealists
Ans. (c)

33. What does the reference to Romans imply?
(a) Idealists are responsible for degeneration
(b) Ennui result in decay
(c) Romans wanted entertainment like the modern man
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

34. What is the reference of the writer?
(a) Boredom will be alleviated
(b) There will be more participation
(c) Civilization it seems will decay
(d) None Of these
Ans. (c)

35. The example of the Romans—
(a) adds to the force of the arguments
(b) makes the passage graphic in description
(c) extends the contention
(d) serves as a parallel to the main idea
Ans. (d)

Directions (Q. 36-37): Fill in the blanks to complete the sentences.

36. He jumped as if the scorpion had………… him.
(a) threatened
(b) stung
(c) bitten
(d) brushed
Ans. (b)

37. The doctor had to………… on him to cure him of the disease.
(a) screen
(b) inject
(c) operate
(d) treat
Ans. (c)

Directions (Q. 38-39): Choose the portion of the sentence having error, if any

38. (a) Because he is learned /
(b) so he is /
(c) respected by all /
(d) no error.
Ans. (b)

39. (a) Shankar is greater /
(b) than /
(c) any philosophers /
(d) no error.
Ans. (c)

Directions (Q. 40—41): Pick out the nearest correct meaning or synonym of the words given below.

40. CAPTIVATE
(a) repel
(b) subjugate
(c) dangerous
(d) fascinate
Ans. (d)

41. UNGUENT
(a) ointment
(b) detergent
(c) remnant
(d) dish
Ans. (a)

Directions (Q. 42-43): In each sentence below, a group of words has been underlined. Below each four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given. Pick out the one which can substitute the underlined, group of words correctly, without changing the meaning of the sentence.

42. The centre has decided to take Enron’s arbitration notice head on and chances of out-of-court settlement have seem ruled out
(a) an out-of-court settlement seems ruled out
(b) an out-of-court settlement seems to have been ruled out
(c) an out-of-court settlement seem ruled out
(d) an out-of-court settlement seems to have ruled out
Ans. (c)

43. The finance ministry has initiated, talks with the low and power ministries on an arbitrator being appointed.
(a) for an arbitrator being appointed
(b) on the appointment of an arbitrator
(c) to appoint an arbitrator
so that an arbitrator be appointed
Ans. (b)

Directions (Q. 44-45): Choose the most suitable antonym of the given word.

44. ABOMINATE
(a) love
(b) loathe
(c) abhor
(d) despise
Ans. (a)

45. JOCOSE
(a) humorous
(b) regulated
(c) brief
(d) dull
Ans. (d)

Directions (Q. 46—50): Substitute single words for the following statements.

46. A sad song is a—
(a) ditty
(b) dirge
(c) knell
(d) lay
Ans. (b)

47. A person who goes on horse back —
(a) epicurean
(b) sinecure
(c) equestrian
(d) connoisseur
Ans. (c)

48. A person who is very fond of sensuous pleasures—
(a) philanderer
(b) charlatan
(c) philistine
(d) epicure
Ans. (d)

49. Below the surface—
(a) subterranean
(b) abortive
(c) surreptitious
(d) venial
Ans. (a)

50. A person with full discretionary powers to act on behalf of a country—
(a) emissary
(b) plenipotentiary
(c) ambassador
(d) envoy
Ans. (c)

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Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Exam., 2008

General Awareness
(Held on 21-12-2008)

1. Which of the following crops cannot be called a Plantation Crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Oil Palm
(C) Rubber
(D) Coffee
(E) Coconut 2. Which of the following is the name of the spacecraft launched by India as a part of Mission to Moon ?
(A) Moon-1
(B) Chandrayaan-1
(C) Kalpana
(D) RADOM
(E) None of these
3. As per the reports published by the World Bank what percentage of Indian population lives below the new International Poverty Line ?
(A) 30%
(B) 62%
(C) 52%
(D) 42%
(E) 68%
4. Which of the following is not a ‘Social Sector Programme’ run by the Govt. of India ?
(A) National Rural Health Mission
(B) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) Mid-Day Meal Scheme
(D) Integrated Child Development Services
(E) Bharat Nirman
5. In order to augment Credit flow to small and poor borrowers, commercial banks are required to provide how much percentage of their priority sector advances to weaker sections of the society ?
(A) 15%
(B) 20%
(C) 30%
(D) 25%
(E) 35%
6. As reported in some newspapers/magazines a large number of children/infants are falling sick because of the use of melamine contaminated dairy products in the world. Due to this many countries like Africa, Japan, Singapore, etc. have stopped import of these products. Which of the following countries was the main exporter of such products ?
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Pakistan
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
7. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the programme launched in India for the economic empowerment of persons with severe to profound disabilities ?
(A) ARUNIM
(B) NREGA
(C) GCMMF
(D) UNCTAD
(E) SCOPE
8. As per the recommendations of the 12th Finance Commission, what will be the share of the State Govts. in total shareable proceeds of Central taxes ?
(A) 15%
(B) 20·5%
(C) 22%
(D) 30·5%
(E) 35·5%
9. Which of the following is/are objective(s) of the ‘Rural Drinking water supply Programme’ launched by the Govt. of India ?
1. Supply safe drinking water to all villages.
2. Assisting local communities to maintain sources of safe drinking water in good condition.
3. Giving special attention for water supply to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
10. Which of the following is not a Source of Tax Revenue collected by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Custom Duty
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Income Tax
(D) Service Tax
(E) Dividends and Profits
11. Asif Ali Zardari who has taken over as the new President of Pakistan is from which of the following political Parties ?
(A) Pakistan Muslim League
(B) Awami League
(C) Pakistan People’s Party
(D) Pakistan National Congress
(E) None of these
12. India is now out of the nuclear sanction imposed on it about 16 years back. This sanction was imposed by which of the following organisations ?
(A) Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
(B) Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
(C) INTERPOL
(D) UN Security Council
(E) None of these
13. Very often we read in newspapers about the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Through Automatic Route. What is meant by Automatic Route ?
1. It is a process which allows foreign investors to trade shares of any Indian Company on day-to-day basis openly in stock markets.
2. It is a process by which Indian Companies are allowed to issue shares to any foreign investor as a part of their paid up Capital in the project in which they have made an investment.
3. It is a process in which all foreign investors are asked to make all their investments in Indian projects in rupee currency only and that too in cash only. Technical knowhow or any other type of participation is not allowed as a part of investment.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
14. The Govt. of India is planning to introduce a ‘National Security Exception Act’ in the Parliament, which will work on the lines of Exxon-Florio provision prevalent in the USA. What is the purpose of the proposed Act ?
1. The Act is a part of Indo-US Nuclear Pact as this only will allow India to start building nuclear facilities in the country.
2. The Act will empower the Govt. of India to stall any foreign Company from acquiring any local asset (FDI) if it is found to be compromising with national security.
3. The Act will empower the Govt. of India to control terrorism in a better way as all e-services will be under thorough scrutiny by security agencies.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
15. Which of the following is not included in the list of UN Millennium Goals ?
(A) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
(B) Develop a global partnership for development
(C) Promote Gender equality
(D) Reduce Child Mortality
(E) Make World Nuclear free
16. Which of the following agencies/bodies has asked all foreign funds to come forward and register itself as Foreign Institutional Investments (FIIs) prior to any investment in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) IBA
(D) Registrar of Companies
(E) None of these
17. Who amongst the following Indian players could not win any medal in Beijing Olympic 2008 ?
(A) Sushil Kumar
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Anjali Bhagwat
(D) Jitendra Kumar
(E) Saina Nehwal
18. India recently signed an agreement in the field of hydrocarbon with which of the following countries for which Hernan Martinez Torres, Minister of Energy of that country was in India ?
(A) Zambia
(B) Ukraine
(C) Colombia
(D) Turkey
(E) None of these
19. Which of the following countries has asked India to scrap Kosi River Pact, the river which created a havoc in Bihar recently ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan
(C) China
(D) Nepal
(E) Bhutan
20. Which of the following is the amount of the relief package announced by the Prime Minister of India for Flood-hit Bihar ?
(A) Rs. 1000 crore
(B) Rs. 1010 crore
(C) Rs. 1050 crore
(D) Rs. 1100 crore
(E) Rs. 1120 crore
21. As reported in the newspapers some people are of the opinion that India may not be able to achieve its export targets set for the year 2008-09. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) of their worry ?
1. There was a major flood in some parts of Bihar, Orissa, Gujarat and some other States recently, owing to which fruit/horticultural crop has not reached export markets in sufficient quantity.
2. Rupee is frequently getting depreciated against US dollar.
3. Some major economies of the world are passing through the phase of economic recession. Hence many export orders are cancelled.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3 only
(E) None of these
22. While talking to the Press/Media/Group of experts in Singapore the former Governor of RBI, Dr. Y. V. Reddy, said that the impact of global financial turmoil will be less on Asia. What in opinion of the people like Dr. Reddy are the strengths of Asian Financial System which will help it to sustain the turmoil ? (Pick-up correct statement(s) as your answer.)
1. Banks in Asia are better capitalized and are not much exposed to sophisticated derivatives.
2. Asian economies were in a high growth mode and hence they have better ability to withstand the crisis.
3. Most of the Asian countries used to enjoy a strong fiscal position and current account surpluses in the past. This has given them an ability to bail out a failing financial institution in case it appeared.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
23. Subsequent to the RBI’s move of reducing the CRR, the industry Chambers in India are demanding for softened interest rates. How will this demand of softened interest rates help the industry ?
1. It will give a push-up to new investments and augment the demand of new proposals for more credits.
2. The move will help in creation of many new employment opportunities.
3. It will strengthen the position of the Stock Markets in India.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
24. The recent decision of the RBI to cut Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 150 basis points (October 2008) will be able to infuse how much liquidity into the market ?
(A) Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Rs. 30,000 crore
(C) Rs. 40,000 crore
(D) Rs. 50,000 crore
(E) None of these
25. As per the reports published in the newspapers recently Indian Rupee was on depreciation and there was a time when the depreciation was about 17% in six months. Which of the following was/were the main cause(s) of this continuous fall ?
1. Foreign fund flow was very low.
2. There was heavy demand for the US dollar in the local forex market.
3. RBI all of a sudden decided to lower the CRR.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 only
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
26. The issues related to the Land Acquisition for setting-up ‘Special Economic Zones (SEZs)’ is frequently seen in the newspapers these days. As per existing laws maximum how much area is allowed to be acquired for a SEZ ?
(A) 1000 hectares
(B) 2000 hectares
(C) 3000 hectares
(D) 5000 hectares
(E) None of these
27. Shibu Soren took over as the new Chief Minister of—
(A) Bihar
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Uttarakhand
(E) None of these
28. Which of the following was one of the major point of disagreement between various countries over which the talks at World Trade Organisation (WTO) got collapsed recently ?
(A) Subsidy to farmers
(B) Providing special status to India
(C) Drafting a new constitution for WTO
(D) Drafting a common Trade Policy for next 5 years
(E) None of these
29. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Lifetime Achievement Award at the 54th National Film Award Ceremony ?
(A) Dilip Kumar
(B) Shashi Kapoor
(C) Rekha
(D) Hema Malini
(E) Mrinal Sen
30. The support price of which of the following commodities was raised by 33%-40% recently to make it Rs. 2,500 per quintal ?
(A) Cotton
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Wheat
(D) Palm Oil
(E) None of these
31. Who amongst the following cricketers made a World Record of 12 Sixes in a One Day International Match recently ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Xavier Marshall
(C) Muttiah Muralitharan
(D) Mike Hussey
(E) None of these
32. Which of the following cities became the first 100% e-literate city of India ?
(A) Pune
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Kozhikode
(D) Jaipur
(E) Bangalore
33. As we all know India will continue to be a net importer of steel as the demand of the same is likely to increase by about 11% in days to come. What is the percentage growth in inland production of steel ?
(A) 3%
(B) 5%
(C) 7%
(D) 8%
(E) 10%
34. International Literacy Day is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) September 18
(B) September 8
(C) October 18
(D) October 8
(E) None of these
35. Which of the following teams won the Durand Cup Football played in New Delhi in September 2008 ?
(A) Tata Motors
(B) Indian Railways
(C) Churchill Brothers
(D) Mahindra United
(E) None of these
36. Which of the following is/are part of New National Biofuel Policy 2008 launched by the Govt. of India ?
1. Minimum Support Price with a provision of periodic revision.
2. No duties or taxes would be levied on Biodiesel.
3. Biodiesel production to be taken up from non-edible oil seeds in waste/marginal lands.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
37. Who amongst the following was given the Mahatma Gandhi Award for Reconciliation and Peace 2008 ?
(A) Akio Ishii
(B) Bill Gates
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Prince Charles
(E) None of these
38. Which of the following is/are some of the recommendations of the Raghurajan Committee on financial sector reforms ?
1. Target inflation control rather than controlling money supply.
2. Open Corporate and Govt. Bond markets.
3. Provide liberal regulations for mergers and acquisitions.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
39. Which of the following countries is passing through a crisis called as ‘Darfur Humanitarian Crisis’ ?
(A) `Uganda
(B) Somalia
(C) Sudan
(D) Sierra Leone
(E) None of these
40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Inside Third World’ ?
(A) Amit Choudhury
(B) William Goldings
(C) V. Harrison
(D) Nana Palkiwala
(E) None of these
41. The ‘18th Safety Olympics’ was organised in—
(A) Seoul
(B) Berlin
(C) London
(D) Moscow
(E) New York
42. Mahendra Kapoor who died recently was a famous—
(A) Politician
(B) Social Worker
(C) Journalist
(D) Sportsman
(E) Playback Singer
43. The Prime Minister of India recently released the Economic Outlook for 2008-09. According to the document Indian economy will grow at what rate during the period of the review ?
(A) 7·7%
(B) 8%
(C) 8·33%
(D) 9·7%
(E) None of these
44. The 48th National Open Athletics Championship was held at—
(A) Kochi
(B) Delhi
(C) Jaipur
(D) Lucknow
(E) Panaji
45. Which of the following countries refused to ratify the ‘Lisbon Treaty’, a very crucial agreement for reforms in the constitution of the European Union ?
(A) Russia
(B) Poland
(C) Germany
(D) France
(E) Italy
46. Which of the following is not an Employment Generating Programme of the Govt. of India ?
(A) NREGA
(B) SGRY
(C) SGSY
(D) TRYSEM
(E) CAMELS
47. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Other Side of Midnight’ ?
(A) Salman Rushdie
(B) Katherine Mayo
(C) Ernest Hamingway
(D) H. G. Wells
(E) Sydney Sheldon
48. China recently resolved its border dispute with which of the following countries ?
(As per agreement Yinlong island will be handed over to China.)
(A) Mongolia
(B) Japan
(C) India
(D) Taiwan
(E) Russia
49. Agha Khan Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Cricket
(B) Football
(C) Badminton
(D) Golf
(E) Hockey
50. Two new countries recently signed the protocols to become the member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
These countries are—
(A) Ukraine–Croatia
(B) Croatia–Albania
(C) Georgia–Russia
(D) Georgia–Croatia
(E) None of these
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (E)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (E) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (E) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (E)
41. (A) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (E) 47. (E) 48. (E) 49. (E) 50. (E)

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Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Test 2009

Biology

1. Which of the following is a ‘club moss’ ?
(A) Selaginella
(B) Equisetum
(C) Lycopodium
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Raphe in Marsilea is present in—
(A) Female gametophyte
(B) Sporocarp
(C) Sporophyte
(D) Male gametophyte
Ans : (B)

3. The stele type occurring in Marsilea is—
(A) Solenostele
(B) Protostele
(C) Amphiphloic Siphonostele
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

4. The morphological nature of rhizophore of Selaginella is—
(A) Root like
(B) Stem like
(C) Both root and stem like
(D) Rhizoid like
Ans : (C)

5. The Selaginella shows—
(A) Large and small leaves arranged spirally
(B) All leaves large
(C) All leaves small
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)


6. The anatomy of Pinus needle reflects the features of a—
(A) Mesophyte
(B) Xerophyte
(C) Hydrophyte
(D) Epiphyte
Ans : (B)

7. Girdling leaf traces are the characteristic feature of the stem of—
(A) Cycas
(B) Pinus
(C) Ephedra
(D) Gnetum
Ans : (A)

8. Pinus is a—
(A) Tree
(B) Shrub
(C) Herb
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

9. The recent era is—
(A) Cenozoic
(B) Mesozoic
(C) Proterozoic
(D) Archeozoic
Ans : (A)

10. Fossils are found in—
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Quartz
(C) Soil
(D) Sedimentary rocks
Ans : (D)

11. Reserve food material in fungi is—
(A) Glycogen
(B) Starch
(C) Sucrose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (A)

12. Which is rootless fern ?
(A) Pteris
(B) Dryopteris
(C) Salvinia
(D) Adiantum
Ans : (C)

13. Which is common between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ?
(A) Similar substrate
(B) Glycolysis
(C) Pyruvic acid
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

14. Turpentine oil is obtained from—
(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Cedarwood
(D) Pinus
Ans : (D)

15. Which alga was used by Calvin and his co-workers in their experiments of photosynthesis ?
(A) Chlamydomonas
(B) Chlorella
(C) Chara
(D) Volvox
Ans : (B)

16. Which is an oilseed crop ?
(A) Marigold
(B) Chrysanthemum
(C) Rose
(D) Sunflower
Ans : (D)

17. The first transgenic plant used for commercial production was—
(A) Cotton
(B) Tomato
(C) Tobacco
(D) Rice
Ans : (B)

18. Rare hybrid plants can be saved by—
(A) Pollen culture
(B) Embryo culture
(C) Protoplast culture
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Which is not a category ?
(A) Ecotype
(B) Species
(C) Genus
(D) Order
Ans : (A)

20. Linnaeus published his concept of binomial nomenclature first in—
(A) Systema Naturae
(B) Species Plantarum
(C) Genera Plantarum
(D) Philosophia Botanica
Ans : (B)

21. When chlorophyll is burnt which element is obtained ?
(A) Ca
(B) Na
(C) Mg
(D) Mn
Ans : (C)

22. Iron deficiency results in—
(A) Leaf tip necrosis
(B) Small leaves disease
(C) Decreased protein synthesis
(D) Intervenal chlorosis appearing first in young leaves
Ans : (D)

23. A phytohormone is—
(A) Naturally produced
(B) Synthetic substance
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

24. During the seismonastic movement in Mimosa pudica turgor changes occur in—
(A) Leaflets
(B) Stipules
(C) Pulvinus leaf base
(D) Petiole and stem
Ans : (C)

25. Evergeen trees remain green through the year on account of—
(A) Cold climate
(B) Absence of leaf fall
(C) Leaves falling in small number interval
(D) Supply of moisture throughout year
Ans : (C)

26. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is—
(A) 15 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(D) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Ans : (C)

27. The damaged ozone layer is situated in—
(A) Ionosphere
(B) Mesosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (C)

28. Which one of the following is ordinarily not an air pollutant ?
(A) CO₂
(B) CO
(C) SO₂
(D) Hydrocarbon
Ans : (A)

29. Genes are made by—
(A) Histones
(B) Lipoproteins
(C) Hydrocarbons
(D) Polynucleotides
Ans : (D)

30. The term ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by—
(A) Odum
(B) Tansley
(C) Whitker
(D) Goli
Ans : (B)

31. The first juvenile larva of Ascaris is known as—
(A) Filiform larva
(B) Rhabditiform larva
(C) Miracidium larva
(D) Microfilariae
Ans : (B)

32. Chromosomes contain—
(A) Protein only
(B) DNA and protein
(C) DNA, RNA and histone
(D) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone proteins
Ans : (B)

33. Which are phagocytes in liver ?
(A) Kupffer cells
(B) Aciner cells
(C) Diter cells
(D) Hensen's cells
Ans : (A)

34. Termites digest wood with the help of an enzyme secreted by the—
(A) Salivary glands
(B) Cells in the midgut
(C) Symbiotic protozoa
(D) Bacteria and fungi outside the body
Ans : (C)

35. In honeybee colony the drones are produced by—
(A) Fertilized eggs
(B) Unfertilized eggs
(C) Larvae fed upon leaves
(D) Fasting larvae
Ans : (B)

36. Jacobson's organ is concerned with—
(A) Smell
(B) Burrowing
(C) Touch
(D) Vision
Ans : (A)

37. Body organisation in Hydra is of—
(A) Tissue grade
(B) Organ grade
(C) Cellular grade
(D) Organ system grade
Ans : (A)

38. Leech obtains continuous blood flow from its victim by pouring in it—
(A) Heparin
(B) Hirudin
(C) Insulin
(D) Pepsin
Ans : (B)

39. Spicules of Sponges are formed by—
(A) Procytes
(B) Pinacocytes
(C) Scleroblasts
(D) Thesocytes
Ans : (B)

40. Heterocoelous centrum is a characteristics of—
(A) Amphibia
(B) Reptilia
(C) Birds
(D) Mammalia
Ans : (C)

41. The exclusively sedentary protochordate animals are found in the class—
(A) Pterobranchia
(B) Larvacea
(C) Ascidiacea
(D) Thaliacea
Ans : (A)

42. Cytopyge is found in—
(A) Paramecium
(B) Entamoeba
(C) Amoeba
(D) Trypanosoma
Ans : (A)

43. Littoral form of animals is found—
(A) In fresh water
(B) In sea water near the shore
(C) In deep sea
(D) At the bottom of the sea
Ans : (D)

44. Bladder worm is a larva of—
(A) Obelia
(B) Silkmoth
(C) Taenia
(D) Nereis
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following secretions associated with digestion does not have enzymes ?
(A) Bile
(B) Gastric juice
(C) Saliva
(D) Pancreatic juice
Ans : (A)

46. Yellow fever is transmitted by—
(A) Female Culex
(B) Female Anopheles
(C) Female Aedes
(D) Housefly
Ans : (C)

47. The covering membrane of the vacuole is known as—
(A) Tonoplast
(B) Cell wall
(C) Plasma layer
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. Age of fishes was known as—
(A) Devonian
(B) Ordovician
(C) Crustaceous
(D) Silurian
Ans : (A)

49. ‘Quartan malaria’ is caused by—
(A) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Plasmodium malariae
(C) Plasmodium ovale
(D) Plasmodium falciparum
Ans : (B)

50. The word ‘species’ was coined by—
(A) John Ray
(B) Mayer
(C) J. Huxley
(D) C. Linnaeus
Ans : (A)

51. An embryo of chick with 7 pairs of somites is—
(A) 20 hours old
(B) 22 hours old
(C) 24 hours old
(D) 18 hours old
Ans : (C)

52. In the mammals, cleavage result formation of solid mass of cells known—
(A) Blastula
(B) Gastrula
(C) Morula
(D) Neurula
Ans : (C)

53. F1particles are found in—
(A) Lysosome
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi Body
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans : (B)

54. The name ‘polytene chromosome’ suggested by—
(A) E.G. Balbiani
(B) Kollar
(C) Heitz
(D) Bauer
Ans : (A)

55. Centriole is found in—
(A) Animal cells
(B) Red algae
(C) Prokaryotes
(D) Flowering plants
Ans : (A)

56. The first phylum of animal kingdom exhibiting bilateral symmetry is—
(A) Arthropoda
(B) Annelida
(C) Mollusca
(D) Platyhelminthes
Ans : (D)

57. The fresh water sponge is—
(A) Spongella
(B) Grantia
(C) Euplectella
(D) Euspongia
Ans : (A)

58. Flame cells are related with—
(A) Excretory system
(B) Digestive system
(C) Circulatory system
(D) Respiratory system
Ans : (A)

59. The intermediate host in the life cycle of F. hepatica (Liver fluke) is—
(A) Sheep
(B) Snail
(C) Man
(D) Bird
Ans : (B)

60. Vitelline membrane is found in—
(A) Birds
(B) Tunicates
(C) Fishes
(D) Mammals
Ans : (A)

61. Two-pigment system theory of photosynthesis was proposed by—
(A) Hill Emerson
(B) Emerson
(C) Blackmann
(D) Hatch and Slack
Ans : (B)

62. Photosynthetic pigments in chloroplast are embedded in membrane of—
(A) Thylakoids
(B) Photoglobin
(C) Matrix
(D) Envelope of chloroplast
Ans : (A)

63. The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in—
(A) Green light
(B) Blue light
(C) Red light
(D) White light
Ans : (C)

64. All energy is trapped in pigment system-1 in—
(A) ATP
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) NADH₂
(D) P-700
Ans : (D)

65. How many ATP molecules are produced, as a net gain, during the complete breakdown of glucose ?
(A) 36
(B) 28
(C) 12
(D) 18
Ans : (A)

66. Father of taxonomy is—
(A) De Candolle
(B) Hooker
(C) Linnaeus
(D) Aristotle
Ans : (C)

67. For entry in gene pool, a mutation occur in—
(A) Somatic cells
(B) Germ cells
(C) Plasma proteins
(D) Somatic DNA
Ans : (B)

68. Vessels diffier from tracheids—
(A) In being living
(B) In being derived from a single cell
(C) In having vertical row of cells and their cross wall dissolved
(D) Because they conduct water
Ans : (C)

69. Which one is true nut ?
(A) Walnut
(B) Cashewnut
(C) Groundnut
(D) Coconut
Ans : (B)

70. After transcription, the mRNA molecule—
(A) Disintegrates
(B) Moves into cytoplasm
(C) Replicates itself
(D) Reassociates to form its structure
Ans : (B)

71. Fossilization is also known by the—
(A) Acclimatzation
(B) Pasteurization
(C) Preservation
(D) Tyndallization
Ans : (C)

72. The branch that deals with the plants studies in the geological past is called—
(A) Pteridology
(B) Palaeobotany
(C) Neurology
(D) Archaeology
Ans : (B)

73. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany is situated at—
(A) Allahabad
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

74. In plants, largest egg is found in—
(A) Cycas
(B) Sequoia
(C) Pinus
(D) Selaginella
Ans : (A)

75. Which one of the following is an example of symbiosis ?
(A) Utricularia
(B) Agaricus
(C) Lichen
(D) Mango
Ans : (C)

76. Which of the following pteridophytes is known as ‘Horse-tail’ ?
(A) Rhynia
(B) Selaginella
(C) Equisetum
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

77. Marsilea is a—
(A) Homosporic pteridophyte
(B) Heterosporic pteridophyte
(C) Non-sporic pteridophyte
(D) Seeded pteridophyte
Ans : (B)

78. A plant bearing two types of spores is termed as—
(A) Heterospory
(B) Seed habit
(C) Homospory
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

79. In Pinus present only—
(A) Male cone
(B) Female cone
(C) Male and female cones
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

80. Number of cotyledons found in the embryo of Cycas is—
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1
Ans : (B)

81. Bryophytes are—
(A) Aquatic
(B) Terrestrial
(C) Amphibious
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

82. Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte in—
(A) Algae
(B) Pteridophyta
(C) Fungi
(D) Bryophyta
Ans : (D)

83. In gametophytic phase of Bryophyta the last cell is—
(A) Gamete
(B) Spore
(C) Elater
(D) Zygote
Ans : (A)

84. In Funaria, the calyptra is formed by—
(A) Antheridium
(B) Columella
(C) Capsule
(D) Archegonium
Ans : (D)

85. A bryophyte differes from pteridophyte in—
(A) Archegonia
(B) Lack of vascular tissue
(C) Independent gametophyte
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

86. Acid rain is mainly a mixture of—
(A) Sulphuric acid and nitric acid
(B) Hexane and methane
(C) Acetic acid and bromine
(D) Ascorbic acid and citric acid
Ans : (A)

87. Ribosomes are sites for—
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Fat synthesis
(D) Respiration
Ans : (A)

88. Pyramid of energy is—
(A) Alwayss inverted
(B) Always upright
(C) Sometimes inverted and sometimes upright
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

89. ATP is—
(A) An enzyme which brings about oxidation
(B) A hormone
(C) A molecule with high energy phosphate bond
(D) A protein
Ans : (C)

90. Which one of the following is not a feature of prokaryotic cell ?
(A) Absence of nuclear membrane and the nucleus
(B) Absence of cell organelles
(C) Absence of genetic material
(D) Absence of histone protein in the chromosome
Ans : (C)

91. Which one of the following is highly dangerous radioactive pollutant ?
(A) Phosphorus-32
(B) Sulphur-35
(C) Strontium-90
(D) Calcium-40
Ans : (C)

92. The indicator of SO₂ pollution of air is—
(A) Lichen
(B) Fern
(C) Black mould
(D) Moss
Ans : (A)

93. The founder of cell theory was—
(A) Wolf
(B) Rudolf Virchow
(C) Myen, Von Moll and Raspail
(D) Schleiden and Schwann
Ans : (D)

94. Fats in our body are formed when—
(A) There is little glycogen in the body
(B) Blood sugar level becomes constant
(C) Glycogen storage in liver and muscles is completed
(D) Intake of protein is high
Ans : (C)

95. Liver performs several functions. One of these functions is—
(A) Histolysis
(B) Digestion of proteins
(C) Glycogenesis
(D) Maintaining salt balance
Ans : (C)

96. Poison fangs of snakes are—
(A) Maxillary teeth
(B) Specialized structures
(C) Premaxillary teeth
(D) Vomerine teeth
Ans : (A)

97. Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are—
(A) Homologous organs
(B) Analogous organs
(C) Unrelated organs
(D) Vestigeal organs
Ans : (B)

98. ‘Ozone Day’ is observed on—
(A) January, 30
(B) April, 21
(C) September, 16
(D) December, 5
Ans : (C)

99. Which one of the following is the link between Annelida and Mollusca ?
(A) Archaeopteryx
(B) Peripatus
(C) Neopilina
(D) Coelacanth
Ans : (C)

100. The heartbeat is regulated by—
(A) Pacemaker
(B) Vagus nerve
(C) Sympathetic nerve
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

101. Which pair is correct ?
(A) Microlecithal eggs — Dipnoi
(B) Homolecithal eggs — Amphibia
(C) Mesolecithal eggs — Bird
(D) Centrolecithal eggs — Insect
Ans : (D)

102. The hypothesis of ‘Coupling and Repulsion’ for linkage was formulated by—
(A) Sutton and Boveri
(B) Bateson & Punnet
(C) T.H. Morgan
(D) W. Sutton
Ans : (B)

103. Balanoglossus is commonly known as—
(A) Earthworm
(B) Tapeworm
(C) Corn worm
(D) Tongue worm
Ans : (D)

104. In Drosophila, sex determination depends on—
(A) Y-chromosome
(B) X-chromosome
(C) Autosome
(D) X-chromosome & autosome both
Ans : (D)

105. Nonsense codons are—
(A) AUG, AAU, UAG
(B) GGU, AGU, AUG
(C) UAG, UAA, UGA
(D) GAU, AAU, GUA
Ans : (C)

106. In which stage does centromere divide in two ?
(A) Metaphase-I
(B) Prophase-I
(C) Metaphase-II
(D) Anaphase-II
Ans : (D)

107. Which animal is egg laying mammal ?
(A) Didelphys
(B) Macropus
(C) Pteropus
(D) Tachyglossus
Ans : (D)

108. An oil producing gland on the tail of bird is known as—
(A) Preen gland
(B) Mucus gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Sebaceous gland
Ans : (A)

109. A snake that is viviparous is—
(A) The Russell’s pitless viper
(B) The pit viper
(C) Rattle snake
(D) Kraits
Ans : (B)

110. A gland which is found on undersurface of the thighs of male lizard ?
(A) Sudorific gland
(B) Femoral gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Stink gland
Ans : (B)

111. Which of the following is not a path flagellate ?
(A) Leishmania
(B) Giardia
(C) Trypanosoma
(D) Noctiluca
Ans : (D)

112. The Glochidium larva of Unio—
(A) Is free swimming
(B) Is ectoparasite on fish
(C) Is endoparasite on fish
(D) Lives in bottom
Ans : (B)

113. The term ‘Plasmalemma’ was given by—
(A) C. Nageli & C. Cramer
(B) J.Q. Plowe
(C) Dancilli & Davson
(D) Robertson
Ans : (B)

114. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs—
1. Synthesis of lipids
2. Glycogenolysis
3. Sterol metabolism
4. Detoxification
Codes :
(A) Only 4 is correct
(B) 1 and 2 both are correct
(C) 2 and 3 both are correct
(D) All are correct
Ans : (D)

115. The innermost layer of egg albumen in birds is called—
(A) Inner thin albumen
(B) Vitelline membrane
(C) Dense alburmen
(D) Chalaziferous layer
Ans : (B)

116. In which one of the following is the anus absent ?
(A) Leech
(B) Roundworm
(C) Earthworm
(D) Flatworm
Ans : (D)

117. Which type of jaw suspension is found in mammals ?
(A) Autostylic
(B) Holostylic
(C) Craniostylic
(D) Hyostylic
Ans : (A)

118. Synthesis of urea in liver takes place by—
(A) Nitrogen cycle
(B) Krebs’ cycle
(C) Glycolysis
(D) Ornithine cycle
Ans : (D)

119. Sexual dimorphism is found in—
(A) Hydra
(B) Earthworm
(C) Ascaris
(D) Fasciola
Ans : (B)

120. Which of the following animals has a nervous system but no brain ?
(A) Amoeba
(B) Hydra
(C) Cockroach
(D) Earthworm
Ans : (B)

121. Aristotle’s Lantern occurs in—
(A) Asteroidea
(B) Echinoidea
(C) Holothuroidea
(D) Crinoidea
Ans : (B)

122. Neoteny is observed in—
(A) Ambystoma
(B) Alytes
(C) Sycon
(D) Sacculina
Ans : (A)

123. Kidneys are vital organs of the body because they help in—
(A) Regulation of body fluids
(B) Regulation of acid-base balance
(C) Removal of metabolic wastes
(D) All of these functions
Ans : (D)

124. The infective stage of malarial parasite is—
(A) Trophozoite
(B) Merozoite
(C) Sporozoite
(D) Cyst
Ans : (C)

125. Parasitic castration occurs in—
(A) Fasciola
(B) Nereis
(C) Sacculina
(D) Palaemon
Ans : (C)

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Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Test, 2009

English

Directions—(Q. 1–10) In questions 1 to 10 you have a brief passage with 10 questions. Read the passage carefully, and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

You may think the sign of a good manager is to have a department where everybody is busy at work on their assigned tasks. But if your people are merely doing their jobs, they’re only working at about half their potential. A truly productive department is one in which every employee is actively thinking of better, more efficient methods of working ways in which to produce a higher quality product, in less time, at lower cost.

To get this kind of innovation from your people, you have to be receptive to new ideas; what's more, you have to encourage your people to produce new ideas. Incentives are one way to motivate employees to be more productive. You can offer a cash bonus, time off, or a gift. But a more potent form of motivation is simply the employee's knowledge that management does listen to him or her, and does put employee suggestions and ideas to work.

When you listen to new ideas, be open-minded. Don't shoot down a suggestion before you've heard it in full. Many of us are too quick, too eager, to show off our own experience and knowledge and say that something won't work because ‘we've tried it before’ or ‘we don't do it that way’. Well, may be you did try it before but that doesn't mean it won't work now. And having done things a certain way in the past doesn't mean you've been doing them the best way. A good manager is open-minded and receptive to new ideas.

1. The given passage speaks about—
(A) the sign of a good manager
(B) the workers doing their job
(C) ways in which to produce a higher quality product
(D) the need to be open to new ideas
Ans : (A)

2. We understand from the passage that a good manager is one—
(A) who has a department where everybody is busy at work
(B) who offers a cash bonus, time off or a gift to his workers
(C) who is open minded and receptive to new ideas
(D) who is too quick, too eager to show off his experience and knowledge
Ans : (C)

3. People merely ‘doing their jobs’ in the passage means—
(A) that people busy at work do not perform their assigned tasks
(B) that such people produce a higher quality product
(C) that such people are working at about half their potential
(D) that such people are innovative
Ans : (C)


4. In a truly productive department—
(A) people are busy at work on their assigned tasks
(B) people are busy at work to produce a large quantity of product
(C) people always think of evolving better and more efficient methods of working
(D) people always make a show of their experience and knowledge
Ans : (C)

5. The word ‘motivation’ in the passage means—
(A) to impute a motive to an action
(B) the act of inspiring others
(C) to put a thing into action
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. ‘To be receptive to new ideas’ in the passage suggests—
(A) Readiness to receive new ideas
(B) to be cautious and careful about the new ideas
(C) to share with your people the new ideas
(D) to think of better and more efficient methods of working
Ans : (A)

7. The word ‘incentives’ in the context of the passage suggests—
(A) to produce higher quality product, in less time
(B) to produce higher quality product, at lower cost
(C) an additional payment or additional facilities to employees to increase production
(D) employee's faith that management does listen to his suggestions and ideas
Ans : (C)

8. A truly productive employee, according to the writer, is always—
(A) busy at work on his assigned tasks
(B) actively thinking of better and more efficient methods of working
(C) has an eye on a cash bonus, time off, or a gift
(D) suggesting but never busy at work
Ans : (B)

9. The innovative suggestions or new ideas from your employee can be obtained when—
(A) you offer a cash bonus to him
(B) you make him feel that management does listen to him or her and puts his ideas to work
(C) you distrust his experience and knowledge
(D) you pressurise him to tender new ideas or face the consequences
Ans : (B)

10. A good manager should—
(A) be open-minded and receptive to new ideas
(B) quickly shoot down innovative suggestions from an employee to assert supremacy of his experience and knowledge
(C) discard innovative ideas dubbing them unworkable
(D) be content with the normal functioning of the department
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Choose the correct alternatives to fill in the blanks in the following sentences—

11. A …… soldier fights for the sake of money.
(A) materialistic
(B) pioneer
(C) veteran
(D) mercenary
Ans : (D)

12. The road to Hell is …… with good intentions.
(A) decorated
(B) engraved
(C) paved
(D) crowded
Ans : (C)

13. Laws grind the …… and rich man rule the law.
(A) criminals
(B) poor
(C) innocents
(D) destitute
Ans : (B)

14. It is not possible for everyone to …… an elephant.
(A) keep up
(B) keep up with
(C) keep in
(D) keep on
Ans : (A)

15. Our college building has a good …….
(A) sight
(B) site
(C) cite
(D) side
Ans : (B)

16. Shakespeare is indebted to one of the following sources for the subject matter of his some plays. Choose the right one from the following—
(A) The Arabian Nights
(B) Holinshed's Chronicle
(C) Bewoulf
(D) The Arthurian Legends
Ans : (B)

17. One of the following poets was nicknamed ‘The Lady of Christ's’ by his fellow undergraduates. Spot the correct name of the poet—
(A) Milton
(B) Spenser
(C) Shakespeare
(D) Marlowe
Ans : (A)

18. ‘When the assault was intended to the city’ is a sonnet written by—
(A) Milton
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Shakespeare
(D) Spenser
Ans : (A)

19. Which play of Shakespeare portrays the character of Malvolio ?
(A) Love's Labour Lost
(B) Twelfth Night
(C) Hamlet
(D) As You Like It
Ans : (B)

20. ‘On the Morning of Christ's Nativity’ is a—
(A) Sonnet
(B) Ode
(C) Masque
(D) Pastoral Elegy
Ans : (A)

21. Which, of the following, is a work of Milton ?
(A) Novum Organum
(B) De Doctrina Christana
(C) Endymion
(D) Prothalmion
Ans : (A)

22. What figure of speech has been used in the following line ? ‘Rascals and rogues ran a race round and round the rugged rock.’
(A) Hyperbole
(B) Alliteration
(C) Onomatopoeia
(D) Apostrophe
Ans : (B)

23. Choose the correct word to complete the given proverb—
‘Barking dogs …… bite.’
(A) Sometimes
(B) Seldom
(C) Always
(D) Never
Ans : (B)

24. What is the antonym of ‘Manly’ ?
(A) Feminine
(B) Effeminate
(C) Masculine
(D) Strong
Ans : (B)

25. What figure of speech has been used in the following line ?
‘Frailty, thy name is woman !’
(A) Metaphor
(B) Personification
(C) Apostrophe
(D) Simile
Ans : (B)

26. ‘Venus and Adonis’ is a poetic composition of a poet who was a dramatist also—
(A) Shakespeare
(B) Milton
(C) Marlowe
(D) Dryden
Ans : (A)

27. ‘For a handful of silver, he left us.’ This line of Browning has a reference to—
(A) Shakespeare
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Tennyson
(D) Dryden
Ans : (B)

28. ‘A Bend in the Ganges’ is a work of—
(A) Anita Desai
(B) Amitav Ghose
(C) Manohar Malgonkar
(D) M.R. Anand
Ans : (C)

29. Pick out the right option which expresses the meaning of word ‘Invaluable’ ?
(A) Valueless
(B) Priceless
(C) Useless
(D) Cheap
Ans : (B)

30. The following sentence has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space ?
‘The doctor said that a small daily …… of the new drug would soon cure him.’
(A) tablet
(B) pill
(C) dose
(D) quantity
Ans : (C)

31. Correct form of the sentence ‘I have often found him negligent …… his work.’ is—
(A) I have often found him negligent in his work
(B) I have often found him negligent of his work
(C) I have often found him negligent to his work
(D) I have often found him negligent with his work
Ans : (B)

32. During his visit to France, Wordsworth fell in love with a girl named—
(A) Catherine
(B) Mary Hutchinson
(C) Annette Vallon
(D) Simon Lee
Ans : (C)

33. ‘The fall of……in 1453 marks the beginning of Renaissance in Europe.’
Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank in the above sentence—
(A) Bastille
(B) The Roman Empire
(C) The Spanish Armada
(D) Constantinople
Ans : (D)

34. Who wrote the following about Shakespeare ?
‘Others abide our question, thou art free.’
(A) T.S. Eliot
(B) Arnold
(C) Blake
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (B)

35. The figure of speech in which the sound suggests the sense or meaning is known as—
(A) Alliteration
(B) Onomatopoeia
(C) Oxymoron
(D) Transferred Epithet
Ans : (B)

36. Punctuate the following sentence—
“She called out angrily so you have been hitting makhan again phatik answered indignantly no I have not who told you that’ Find out the correct option—
(A) She called out angrily, so you have been hitting Makhan again. Phatik answered indignantly. ‘No, I have not. who told you that’.
(B) She called out angrily, ‘So you have been hitting Makhan again.’ Phatik answered indignantly. ‘No, I haven't. who told you that’.
(C) She called out angrily. ‘So you have been hitting Makhan again ?’ Phatik answered indignantly, ‘No, I haven't. Who told you that ?’
(D) She called out angrily, ‘So you have been hitting Makhan ?’ Again Pharik answered indignantly. ‘No, I haven't. Who told you that ?’
Ans : (C)

37. Select the word with its correct spelling—
(A) Vaccum
(B) Vaccume
(C) Vaccuum
(D) Vacuum
Ans : (D)

38. Who calls Milton ‘God-gifted organ-voice of England’ ?
(A) Arnold
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Gray
(D) Tennyson
Ans : (D)

39. Name the critic who remarks ‘Justice (1910) is a commentary upon the prison administration of that period.’ ?
(A) Coats
(B) A.C. Ward
(C) A. Nicoll
(D) Skemp
Ans : (A)

40. What does the idiom (the) pros and cons mean ?
(A) Changes of life
(B) The arguments urged for and against a thing
(C) Irregularly
(D) Repeatedly
Ans : (B)

41. Select from the following the correct meaning of the word ‘Nostalgia’—
(A) A fatal disease
(B) Longing for things that are past
(C) An allegorical story
(D) A state of excessive fear and anxiety
Ans : (B)

42. Choose the correct animal cry to complete the sentence—
‘Dogs bark, lions roar but frogs….’
(A) coo
(B) bleat
(C) croak
(D) cluck
Ans : (C)

43. A figure of speech in which a qualifying adjective is sometimes transferred from a person to a thing or from one word to another, to which it does not strictly belong, is called—
(A) Metonymy
(B) Transferred Epithet
(C) Apostrophe
(D) Personification
Ans : (B)

44. Find out the mis-spelt word—
(A) accompaniment
(B) explaination
(C) superstitious
(D) miscellaneous
Ans : (B)

45. Choose the correct spelling of the word—
(A) restaurant
(B) restuarant
(C) resteurant
(D) restorant
Ans : (A)

46. Which, of the following words, means ‘a place where the birds are kept’ ?
(A) Aquarium
(B) Zoo
(C) Amnesty
(D) Aviary
Ans : (D)

47. Which of the following plays is not written by Galsworthy ?
(A) The Silver Box
(B) Joy
(C) Weavers
(D) A Doll's House
Ans : (D)

48. ‘Every great poet is a teacher’ are the words of—
(A) Shelley
(B) Keats
(C) Byron
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (A)

49. The Restoration period was influenced by—
(A) French dramatists
(B) The dramatists of England
(C) Italian dramatists
(D) Greek dramatists
Ans : (A)

50. Punctuate the following lines—
“as caeser loved me i weep for him as he was fortunate i rejoice at it as he was valiant i honour him but as he was ambitious I slew him’
Find out the correct one—
(A) As Caeser loved me I weep for him, as he was fortunate I rejoice at it, as he was valiant I honour him but as he was ambitious I slew him
(B) As Caeser loved me, I weep for him. As he was fortunate. I rejoice at it. As he was valiant, I honour him but as he was ambitious, I slew him
(C) As Caeser loved me, I weep for him; as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it; as he was valiant, I honour him but—as he was ambitious, I slew him
(D) As Casear loved me I weep for him; as he was fortunate I rejoice at it; as he was valiant I honour him but as he was ambitious I slew him
Ans : (C)

51. Find out the figure of speech in the following lines—
‘Is this the face that launched a thousand ships.
And burned the topless towers of Illium ?’
(A) Personification
(B) Hyperbole
(C) Metaphor
(D) Oxymoron
Ans : (B)

52. The first Indian author to win the prestigious Pulitzer Prize in the U.S.A. was—
(A) Anita Desai
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Vikram Seth
(D) Khushwant Singh
Ans : (B)

53. What is the antonym of ‘consent’ ?
(A) descent
(B) dissent
(C) decent
(D) assent
Ans : (B)

54. Select the right meaning of the word ‘Aristocracy’ from the following—
(A) Government by the rich
(B) Government by the nobles
(C) Government by the officials
(D) Rule by mob
Ans : (B)

55. Select, from the following, the name of the author on whose grave the words he chose himself are carved—
‘Here is one whose name is writ in water.’
(A) Keats
(B) Byron
(C) Milton
(D) Swinburne
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 56–65) Read each of the following sentences to trace the parts which are incorrect grammatically. The alphabet of the part is to be mentioned as the answer—

56. The father as well as (A) / the sons were (B) / involved in the murder. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

57. He could not give cattle (A) / green fodder today because (B) / he has broken his right hand a week ago. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

58. What to talk of charity (A) / you do not practise (B) / even ordinary humanity. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)

59. I am very thirsty (A) / give me little water (B) / to drink. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

60. You and your wife (A) / appear to have seen (B) / much more happier days. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

61. Nobody was prepared (A) / to give up their seat (B) / to the old man bending on a stick. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

62. The price of this car (A) / is higher than (B) / your new car. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)

63. No sooner the bell rang (A) / than all students ran out (B) / of their classes helter-skelter. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)

64. The Principal, along with teachers, (A) / were invited (B) / on the occasion. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

65. Suresh asked Akbar (A) / when could he (B) / reach Kanpur. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)

66. ‘Docile’ means—
(A) vague
(B) gentle
(C) stupid
(D) stubborn
Ans : (B)

67. ‘Enigmatic’ is—
(A) displeased
(B) puzzling
(C) learned
(D) short-sighted
Ans : (B)

68. ‘Alleviation’ is the antonym of—
(A) lessening
(B) magnification
(C) aggravation
(D) exaggeration
Ans : (C)

69. ‘Deviate’ is the antonym of—
(A) obliviate
(B) break
(C) concentrate
(D) follow
Ans : (C)

70. ‘Inevitable’ bears the opposite meaning of—
(A) unavoidable
(B) eatable
(C) uncertain
(D) mutilated
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 71–75) Choose the most appropriate proposition—

71. A good judge never jumps …… the conclusion.
(A) at
(B) for
(C) to
(D) on
Ans : (A)

72. Such remarks are certainly derogatory …… your reputation.
(A) for
(B) to
(C) with
(D) of
Ans : (B)

73. Minority aspirations cannot forever be kept in check …… the gun.
(A) by
(B) through
(C) with
(D) from
Ans : (A)

74. The Sarpanch turned……the proposal without thinking properly.
(A) in
(B) out
(C) up
(D) down
Ans : (D)

75. His story seems to be devoid …… truth.
(A) from
(B) of
(C) to
(D) in
Ans : (B)

76. Tick the correct sentence—
(A) Neither Ram or Shyam has done it
(B) Either Ram nor Shyam has done it
(C) Both Ram and Shyam has done it
(D) Neither Ram nor Shyam has done it
Ans : (D)

77. Find out the correctly spelt word—
(A) consumpshion
(B) conjumption
(C) consumption
(D) conjumpshan
Ans : (C)

78. Find out the correctly spelt word—
(A) aroplane
(B) aroplain
(C) aeroplain
(D) aeroplane
Ans : (D)

79. The sonnet is a poem of—
(A) ten lines
(B) twelve lines
(C) fourteen lines
(D) sixteen lines
Ans : (C)

80. Classical tragedy was a form of—
(A) drama
(B) novel
(C) prose
(D) poetry
Ans : (A)

81. Elegy began to be so called because—
(A) it was written in the elegiac measure
(B) it was a poem of sorrow
(C) it was written by writers of elegies
(D) some expert critics named it so
Ans : (A)

82. The novel is—
(A) one of the earliest forms of writing
(B) one of the latest forms of writing
(C) one of the discarded forms of writing
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

83. In which play do the following lines occur ?
“Neither a borrower nor a lender be—
For loan oft loses both itself and friend.
And borrowing dulls the edge of husbandry.”
(A) Macbeth
(B) The Merchant of Venice
(C) Hamlet
(D) King Lear
Ans : (C)

84. Choose the correct name of the play (from those given) from which the following lines have been taken—
“We are such stuff As dreams are made on, and our little life Is rounded with a sleep.”
(A) The Tempest
(B) Othello
(C) Macbeth
(D) Cariolanus
Ans : (A)

85. Who has said it ?
“One impulse from a vernal wood May teach us more of man.
Of moral evil and of good Than all the sages can.”
(A) Shakespeare
(B) Milton
(C) Galsworthy
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (D)

86. From which book has it been taken ?
“To be weak is miserable Doing or suffering ?”
(A) The Tempest
(B) Paradise Regained
(C) The Prelude
(D) Paradise Lost
Ans : (D)

87. One of the following works of Milton is a prose work. Mention that—
(A) Lycidas
(B) Paradise Regained
(C) Paradise Lost
(D) Areopagitica
Ans : (D)

88. Shakespeare—
(A) was a great scholar of Latin
(B) knew a lot of Greek
(C) had a great command over English
(D) knew little Latin and less Greek
Ans : (C)

89. The first play by John Galsworthy was—
(A) Justice
(B) Loyalties
(C) The Skin Game
(D) The Silver Box
Ans : (D)

90. Which of the following plays does not belong to the group of four great tragedies of Shakespeare ?
(A) King Lear
(B) Hamlet
(C) Othello
(D) Twelfth Night
Ans : (D)

91. Shakespeare's play Hamlet is influenced by—
(A) Marlowe
(B) Kyd
(C) Peele
(D) Nashe
Ans : (A)

92. The name of Prospero's daughter in The Tempest is—
(A) Desdemona
(B) Cordelia
(C) Miranda
(D) Olivia
Ans : (C)

93. The dominating passion of Macbeth is—
(A) jealousy
(B) greed
(C) revenge
(D) ambition
Ans : (D)

94. In Twelfth Night Olivia is over head and ears in love with—
(A) Malvolio
(B) Duke Orsino
(C) the clown
(D) Viola disguised as Cesario
Ans : (D)

95. Shylock is a character in—
(A) As You Like It
(B) The Merchant of Venice
(C) Twelfth Night
(D) Measure for Measure
Ans : (B)

96. Milton's Paradise Lost—
(A) has no trace of personal element
(B) is notable for its autobiographical passages
(C) is quite objective
(D) has none of the above qualities
Ans : (B)

97. Who is the hero of Paradise Lost ?
(A) God
(B) Satan
(C) Adam
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)

98. The statement, “Others abide our question, thou art free” refers to—
(A) John Milton
(B) Edmund Spenser
(C) Christopher Marlowe
(D) Shakespeare
Ans : (D)

99. Everyman is—
(A) an interlude
(B) a comedy
(C) a tragicomedy
(D) a morality play
Ans : (B)

100. A Dramatic Monologue is—
(A) a short play
(B) a poem
(C) a novel
(D) a prose story
Ans : (A)

101. What do we call a piece of writing that is an imitation of an action that is serious and complete ?
(A) A comedy
(B) A tragi-comedy
(C) A tragedy
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

102. Shakespeare has mostly used in his plays—
(A) heroic couplet
(B) blank verse
(C) free verse
(D) Spenserian stanza
Ans : (B)

103. “They also serve who only stand and wait.” This line occurs in—
(A) Lycidas
(B) Comus
(C) Paradise Lost
(D) On His Blindness
Ans : (D)

104. Name the poem from which the following words have been quoted—
The gods approve The depth, and not the tumult of the soul.
(A) The World Is To Much With Us
(B) The Tables Turned
(C) Ode to Duty
(D) Laodamia
Ans : (D)

105. In which play of Galsworthy do we have William Falder ?
(A) Loyalties
(B) The Silver Box
(C) Justice
(D) Strife
Ans : (C)

106. Shakespeare is—
(A) a Renaissance playwright
(B) a Restoration playwright
(C) a Twentieth Century playwright
(D) a Classcial playwright
Ans : (A)

107. Galsworthy belonged to—
(A) the sixteenth century
(B) the seventeenth century
(C) the twentieth century
(D) the nineteenth century
Ans : (C)

108. Who said it ?
How poor are they that have not patience, What wound did ever heal but by degrees ?
(A) Othello
(B) Cassio
(C) Iago
(D) Desdemona
Ans : (B)

109. Shakespeare wrote—
(A) 154 sonnets
(B) 145 sonnets
(C) 451 sonnets
(D) 26 sonnets
Ans : (A)

110. Milton's Paradise Lost has been praised for its—
(A) lightness of touch
(B) grand style
(C) its satirical tone
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

111. Paradise Lost has been divided into …… Books.
(A) ten
(B) nine
(C) eleven
(D) twelve
Ans : (D)

112. Cordelia came to help her father because—
(A) he had given her the lion's share of his kingdom
(B) he had deprived her of her share in the kingdom
(C) out of her genuine love for him
(D) she hated her elder sisters
Ans : (C)

113. Allusion is—
(A) a synonym of reference
(B) a synonym of poetry
(C) an indirect or passing reference to some event, person, place or artistic work
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

114. A ballad—
(A) is a short epic
(B) is a song sung by ballet dancers
(C) is a folk song or orally transmitted poem dealing with a popular story
(D) is a short novel
Ans : (C)

115. Denouement is related to—
(A) an essay
(B) a play
(C) a lyric
(D) an elegy
Ans : (B)

116. An eclogue is—
(A) a long poem
(B) a short poem
(C) a pastoral poem
(D) a short dialogue
Ans : (C)

117. Galsworthy's tragedies are called—
(A) tragi-comedies
(B) heroic tragedies
(C) social tragedies
(D) classical tragedies
Ans : (C)

118. Samson Agonistes by Milton—
(A) is a play
(B) is a long poem
(C) is a masque
(D) a long treatise
Ans : (A)

119. Ben Jonson's name is associated with—
(A) Sentimental comedy
(B) Romantic comedy
(C) comedy of Manners
(D) comedy of Humours
Ans : (D)

120. Congreve tried his hand at—
(A) romantic comedies
(B) comedies of humours
(C) comedies of manners
(D) farces
Ans : (C)

121. Who has been termed as a motiveless malignity ?
(A) Macbeth
(B) Othello
(C) Iago
(D) Polonlus
Ans : (C)

122. Caliban—
(A) is the hero of the play The Tempest
(B) married prospero's daughter in The Tempest
(C) killed Prospero in The Tempest
(D) is the villain in The Tempest
Ans : (D)

123. Ophelia is the beloved of—
(A) Macbeth
(B) Hamlet
(C) Othello
(D) Romeo
Ans : (B)

124. Simile is—
(A) a part of speech
(B) a figure of speech
(C) a technical device used by old poets
(D) a sister of Emily Dickinson
Ans : (B)

125. John Galsworthy was awarded the Nobel Prize for literature in—
(A) 1912
(B) 1922
(C) 1932
(D) 1942
Ans : (C)

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