APPSC DEGREE LECTURERS 2012 EXAM MICRO BIOLOGY QUESTION PAPER

RBI GRADE B EXAM 2010 ENGLISH LANGUAGE SOLVED PAPER

Direction (Qs. 1 to 5): Which of a phrases (1), (2), (3) as well as (4) since subsequent any judgment should reinstate a word printed in confidant in a since judgment to have it grammatically correct? If a judgment is scold as it is as well as no improvement is required, afterwards symbol your answer as (5) :

Q.1. Ultimately he viewed a honour he deserve.
(1) Gained a honour he deserve
(2) Received a honour he deserves
(3) Received a honour he deserved
(4) Bags a honour he deserve
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (3)Received a honour he deserved

Q.2. we am all conflicting in a matter of a little of a Managers.
(1) Totally dispute to the
(2) Absolutely dispute by the
(3) Totally conflicting to the
(4) Completely conflicting in the
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (3)Totally conflicting to the

Q.3. Gayatri incited down a pursuit suggest to house her friend.
(1) Job offering in accommodate
(2) Job offers for accommodate
(3) Job suggest to accommodating
(4) Job suggest in accommodate
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (5)No improvement required

Q.4. She was sensitive which everybody of them have been wakeful of a fact.
(1) Were wakeful of
(2) Are wakeful of
(3) Was wakeful of
(4) Is wakeful of
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (3)Was wakeful of

Q.5. She has being venturing in to areas which she had always avoided in a past.
(1) Has been venturing into
(2) Has venturing into
(3) Would venturing into
(4) Had venturing into
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (1)Has been venturing into

Directions (Qs. 6 to 10): Read any judgment to find out either there is any grammatical blunder or vernacular blunder in it. The error, if any, will be in a single partial of a sentence. The number of which partial will be your answer. If there is no blunder (ignore errors of punctuation, if any), afterwards your answer will be (5).

Q.6. They never suspicion (1) / which Joshi is (2) / oldest than a alternative (3) / Professors in a Faculty. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans. (3)

Q.7. Taken in to care (1) / a recommendation of his (2) / colleagues he motionless (3) / to stay in a Institute. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans. (1)

Q.8. we am approaching hit (1) / we someday in (2) / subsequent week to (3) / plead with we in detail. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans. (1)

Q.9. The military has creation (1) / any bid to yield (2) / most suitable assistance as well as (3) / courtesy to any citizen. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans. (1)

Q.10. He cannot repel (1) / all his income (2) / unless he do not (3) / give allege notice. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans (3&4)

Directions (Qs. eleven to 25): Read a following thoroughfare to answer these questions since subsequent it. Certain difference / phrases have been printed in confidant to assistance we fix up them while answering a little of a questions : The self-murder attacks by belligerent Palestinian groups murdering immeasurable numbers of Israeli civilians as well as a oppressive Israeli response, have lifted a renewed hopes of assent in a region. It is Arafat?s care as well as management which have been being exceedingly tested in a idealisation proviso of a west Asian crisis.

By accusing a Palestinian Authority (PA) of ancillary terrorism by groups, Israel hopes to put vigour upon Arafat to act. Arafat, upon a alternative hand, has never looked a reduction powerful force than he does today. If he acts conflicting a militants as well as elements in his own Fatah transformation sympathetic to them, he risks a Palestinian polite conflict. But if he chooses to do nothing, he faces wearing divided of his management as well as all explain to a executive purpose in a assent process. Whatever he does, sections of a Palestinians will reason which he has left as well distant as well as Israel which he has not left for enough. This is, of course, because Arafat has constantly shrunk from tough decision. He has refrained from curbing a belligerent groups, explaining his inaction as required to say Palestinian unity.

The Palestinian leadership?s incapacity to urge mercantile conditions for a people has been a wilful means in a wearing divided of a capability to act. Palestinians in Gaza have targeted a PA as being obliged for their condition. The Militant organizations have capitalized upon a PA?s disaster to settle a functioning executive infrastructure by environment up a parallel welfare complement with a assistance of a millions of dollars. Though a Palestinian confidence forces explain to have arrested some-more than 100 militants after a self-murder explosve attacks in Israel, the other identical belligerent groups sojourn defiant, assured of their renouned await as well as of a faith which in a idealisation research a PA care will stop reduced of wilful movement against them.

That a belligerent groups suffer renouned await in Gaza is frequency surprising. The Gaza Strip currently resembles a immeasurable jail stay in which a little 1.2 million Palestinians have been crammed. Despite the Oslo Accord, 7000 Israeli settlers still sojourn in twenty percent of a Gaza?s area as well as have been stable by heavily armed Israeli forces. With a brand new besiege of as well as endless incursion into PA tranquil territories, a Israeli supervision has placed a total polite multitude in Palestine underneath siege. Over 450 NGOs, 8 universities as well as countless alternative educational, civic, social, developmental as well as illness institutions have had their work detained as well as their critical services to a race blocked. An general discussion upon Israel?s diagnosis of human rights in West Bank as well as Gaza, attended by signatories to a 1949 Geneva Conventions, which has non-stop in Switzerland vital Israeli as well as American protests, is approaching to censor Israel for a diagnosis of civilians in a Palestinian territories.

Arafat?s station in in between Palestinians rests upon a management conferred upon a PA by a general encampment to paint as well as verbalise for a Palestinians. Even a vital belligerent group has so distant never plainly challenged Arafat?s leadership. Israel?s idealisation infamous attacks destined conflicting a PA as well as Arafat benefaction a general encampment with a risk which this precarious change of energy in a Palestinian encampment might be destroyed. Continuance of a Israeli attacks can usually further radicalize as well as toughen a attitudes of typical Palestinians. On a alternative hand, Israeli moves to solidify serve enlargement of Jewish settlements in a West Bank as well as Gaza and, as shortly as security conditions assent it, palliate a mercantile besiege of Palestinian towns?however remote such measures crop up usually now?alone can revive a management of a PA as well as give it a chance to get a hold upon Palestinian militancy.

Q.11. Which of a following factors have lifted a goal for assent in West Asia?
A. Killings of Israeli civilians
B. Harsh reply of Israelites
C. Revocation of Oslo Accord
(1) Only A as well as C
(2) Only B as well as C
(3) Both A as well as B
(4) Either A or B
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)Both A as well as B

Q.12. Which of a following explains a miss of movement upon a partial of Palestinian leader?
(1) He fears a armed forces movement conflicting him
(2) This according to him will bind assent process
(3) He feels which this step will keep Palestinians united
(4) He is severely disturbed about a lapse of his energy base
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)He is severely disturbed about a degeneration of his energy base

Q.13. What is idealisation research of alternative identical belligerent groups?
(1) The PA care will usually movement if a clear forceful action is taken upon a PA
(2) The suicidal attacks will usually irritate a situation
(3) The PA care should be changed
(4) The movement upon a Palestinians was justified
(5) None of these
Ans. (5) None of these

Q.14. Which of a following difference is usually conflicting in definition to a word detained as used in a passage?
(1) Hindered
(2) Facilitated
(3) Felicitated
(4) Stopped
(5) Courage
Ans. (1)Hindered

Q.15. What does a word vital meant as used in a passage?
(1) Notwithstanding
(2) Concurring
(3) Welcoming
(4) Criticizing
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)Notwithstanding

Q.16.Which of a following most suitable describes a definition of a word challenged as used in a passage?
(1) Questioned
(2) Accepted
(3) Attacked
(4) Scared
(5) None of these
Ans:(1)Questioned

Q. 17.Which of a following is a most identical word as accusing as used in a passage?
(1) Abusing
(2) Blaming
(3) Charging
(4) Responding
(5) Praising
Ans. (2)Blaming

Q.18. Which of a following is a approaching result of International Conference which is in swell in Switzerland?
(1) To devaluate 1949 Geneva Convention
(2) Impose censorship upon promotion of PA
(3) To set up considerate family in in between Conflicting parties
(4) To put a quell upon Israel?s policies whilst treating civilians in an visitor territory
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)To set up considerate family in in between Conflicting parties

Q.19. Which of a following most suitable explains a word infamous as used in a passage?
(1) Dangerous
(2) Fatal
(3) Reoccurring as well as cyclic
(4) Cyclic though not reoccurring
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)Reoccurring as well as cyclic

Q.20. Which of a following most suitable explains a word remote as used in a passage?
(1) Far divided from reality
(2) Distant
(3) Most approaching to happen
(4) Control in someone else?s hand
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)Far divided from reality

Q.21. Who according to a thoroughfare conferred a management to PA?
(1) Arafat
(2) Israel
(3) Militant groups
(4) International community
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)International community

Q.22. Which of a following can revive a degenerating management of a PA?
A. Arresting a enlargement of Jewish settlements
B. Easening a mercantile besiege of Palestinian towns
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Either A or B
(4) Both A as well as B together
(5) Neither A or B
Ans (4)Both A as well as B together

Q.23. Which of a following is a most conflicting in definition as a word shrunk as used in a passage?
(1)Coming forward
(2)Abdicating
(3)Control
(4)Expand
(5)None of these
Ans (1)Coming forward

Q.24. What might be a start of successive Israeli attacks?
(1) It might strap a disastrous perspective amongst a polite Palestinians
(2) It might fall short militancy from a simple roots
(3) It might reanimate a weakening care of a PA
(4) It might lift belligerent activities
(5) None of these
Ans (4)It might lift belligerent activities

Q.25. What dangers have been being viewed by a International Community?
(1)Both a nations might get broken if fight erupts
(2)The PA as well as Israel will never set upon a deal
(3)The attacks conflicting a PA might fall short a change of energy in Palestinians
(4)The militancy might widespread in alternative countries also
(5)None of these
Ans. (3)The attacks conflicting a PA might fall short a change of energy in Palestinians

Directions (Qs. twenty-six to 35): In a following thoroughfare there have been blanks, any of which has been numbered. These numbers have been printed subsequent a thoroughfare as well as conflicting each, 5 difference are suggested, a single of which fits a vacant appropriately. Find out a suitable word in any case:
Whatever wealth India enjoyed in a seventeenth century left when a Mughal Empire ???(26) apart. The most evident means of this relapse was a religious intolerance, which led to a open rebellion. It was to ???(27) these revolts which a extremist woman monarch outlayed ???(28) years in a field, with measureless armies immoderate a revenues of the country. There were, however, some-more entrenched ???(29) The crime of officials as well as a hardship of a rank as well as file usually ???(30) divided a empire?s hold up blood. For sometime, there had been a conspicuous decrease in a impression of a statute class. Wars of period ???(31) wiped out a heading families, as well as brand new red red blood from executive Middle East was no ???(32) recruited for a aloft bureaucratic posts. Finally, a Mughal Empire was an visitor regime. It continues to be so ???(33) Akbar?s process of conciliation was abandoned, as well as it wore itself out perplexing to say a energy ???(34) a constant opposition, usually right divided as well as afterwards sincere though regularly present, of a ???(35) citizens.

Q.26. (1)Joined
(2)Broke
(3)Dashed
(4)Banged
(5)Became
Ans. (2)Broke

Q.27. (1)Run out
(2)Crash
(3)Crush
(4)Cajole
(5)Motivate
Ans (3)Crush

Q.28. (1)No
(2)Hardly
(3)Many
(4)Inexpensive
(5)Most
Ans. (3)Many

Q.29. (1)Variables
(2)Attributes
(3)Characteristics
(4)Causes
(5)Affect
Ans. (4)Causes

Q.30. (1)Drained
(2)Gone
(3)Sucked
(4)Released
(5)Went
Ans (1)Drained

Q.31. (1)Has
(2)Have
(3)Was
(4)Did
(5)Had
Ans. (5)Had

Q.32.(1)Longer
(2)Pumped
(3)Far
(4)Candidate
(5)Shorter
Ans. (1)Longer

Q.33. (1)At
(2)Into
(3)Over
(4)After
(5)Before
Ans. (4)After

Q.34. (1)Far
(2)At
(3)Against
(4)Favouring
(5)For
Ans (3)Against

Q.35. (1)Discontented
(2)Weeping
(3)Ruling
(4)Calm
(5)Contented
Ans: (1)Discontented

Directions (Qs. 36 to 40): icon razz RBI Exam Question,RBI Exam Question of English Language Subject,RBI Exam Question 2010 ick out a most in effect word/phrase from a since difference to fill in a blanks to have a sentences meaningfully complete:

Q.,36. Tiwari?s weill-wishers went to a impassioned to _____ his commercial operation reputation.
(1)Speak
(2)Enhance
(3)Cajole
(4)Provoke
(5)Advocate
Ans. (2)Enhance

Q.37. A organisation of youth college boys _____ a top rise of a Shivalik operation of a Himalayas.
(1)Scaled
(2)Walked
(3)Climb up
(4)Avoided
(5)Won
Ans. (1)Scaled

Q.38. A special programme to lift a customary of vital of a encampment folks has been _____ by a Government.
(1)Affixed
(2)Stalled
(3)Glued
(4)Launched
(5)Propose
Ans. (4)Launched

Q.39. A flock of elephants _____ ready to conflict a lion.
(1)Were
(2)Is
(3)Was
(4)Are
(5)Has been
Ans. (2)Is

Q.40. It is not probable this year to run this association with so most employees, but augmenting a _____ of deficit.
(1)Loss
(2)Altitude
(3)Gain
(4)Magnitude
(5)Extend
Ans. (4)Magnitude

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UPSC C.P.F. Assistant Commandants Exam., 2008 Solved Paper

UPSC C.P.F. Assistant Commandants Exam., 2008
(Held on 5-10-2008)
General Awareness

1. In which one of the following animals is respiration done by skin ?
(A) Flying fish
(B) Sea horse
(C) Frog
(D) Chameleon
Ans : (C)

2. “Foot and Mouth Disease” is found in—
(A) Cats and Dogs
(B) Cattle
(C) Poultry
(D) Humans
Ans : (B)

3. Who of the following recognized that large quantity of energy is released as a result of the fusion of hydrogen nuclei to form deuterium ?
(A) Enrico Fermi
(B) Glenn Seaborg
(C) Hans Bethe
(D) Werner Heisenberg
Ans : (C)

4. Brass is an alloy of which of the following pairs of metals ?
(A) Aluminium and Copper
(B) Chromium and Tin
(C) Copper and Tin
(D) Copper and Zinc
Ans : (D)

5. Which one of the following bacteria helps in improving the soil fertility ?
(A) Clostridium
(B) Rhizobium
(C) Salmonella
(D) Staphylococcus
Ans : (B)

6. Consider the following statements :
1. In a person suffering from myopia, the image of a distant object is formed behind the retina.
2. Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (B)

7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Theory/Law/Principle)
(a) Electromagnetism
(b) Principles of Inheritance
(c) Laws of Inertia
(d) Theory of Natural Selection
List-II (Scientist)
1. Darwin
2. Faraday
3. Mendel
4. Newton
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans : (B)

8. Which one of the following is a vitamin ?
(A) Citric acid
(B) Folic acid
(C) Glutamic acid
(D) Linoleic acid
Ans : (B)

9. Which one of the following varieties of coal is considered the best quality ?
(A) Anthracite
(B) Bituminous
(C) Lignite
(D) Peat
Ans : (A)

10. Who of the following discovered the laws of planetary orbits ?
(A) Galileo Galilei
(B) Nicholas Copernicus
(C) Johannes Kepler
(D) Isaac Newton
Ans : (C)

11. Consider the following statements—
1. The main constituent of LPG is Butane.
2. The main constituent of Biogas is Methane.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

12. Through which one among the following materials does sound travel slowest ?
(A) Air
(B) Glass
(C) Water
(D) Wood
Ans : (A)

13. Which one of the following is used in preparing match sticks ?
(A) Chile saltpetre
(B) Indian saltpetre
(C) Red phosphorus
(D) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans : (C)

14. Consider the following pairs :
1. Rewalsar lake—Himachal Pradesh
2. Nakki lake—Madhya Pradesh
3. Renuka lake—Uttarakhand
Which of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)

15. Which National Highway connects Chennai and Visakhapatnam ?
(A) NH 4
(B) NH 5
(C) NH 6
(D) NH 8
Ans : (B)

16. Among A, B, C, D and E, E is shorter than D but taller than B who is taller than C. A is taller than E. If all are standing according to their heights and we start counting from the tallest who would be fourth ?
(A) C
(B) B
(C) E
(D) Cannot be determined as the data is insufficient.
Ans : (B)

17. A man is facing south. He turns 135° in the anticlockwise direction and then 180° in the clockwise direction. The direction he is facing now is—
(A) North-east
(B) North-west
(C) South-east
(D) South-west
Ans : (D)

18. The average score of three boys in Mathematics is 30. When the score of a fourth boy is added to the total score of the three boys, the average is lowered to 25. What is the score of the fourth boy ?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Ans : (A)

19. Among five friends—
Mangla is taller than Neela but as tall as Pushpa.
Asha is taller than Sapna but not as tall as Neela.
In this group who is the shortest ?
(A) Mangla
(B) Sapna
(C) Pushpa
(D) Asha
Ans : (B)

20. The sum of income of A and B is more than that of C and D taken together. The sum of income of A and C is the same as that of B and D taken together. Moreover, A earns half as much as the sum of the income of B and D. The highest income is of—
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Ans : (B)

21. In a class of 60 students, where the girls are twice that of boys, Kamal ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, the number of boys in rank after him is—
(A) 3
(B) 7
(C) 12
(D) 13
Ans : (C)

22. A walks 10 metre in front and 10 metre to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 metre respectively. What is the distance from his initial point ?
(A) 5 metre
(B) 10 metre
(C) 15 metre
(D) 23 metre
Ans : (A)

23. The number of terms between 11 and 200 which are divisible by 7 but not by 3 are—
(A) 18
(B) 19
(C) 27
(D) 28
Ans : (A)

24. What is the 6th term in the sequence of 2, 3, 6, 11, 18 ?
(A) 25
(B) 27
(C) 29
(D) 31
Ans : (B)

25. Let a number of three digits have for its middle digit the sum of the other two digits. Then it is a multiple of—
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 18
(D) 50
Ans : (A)

26. If X and Y are brothers; Z is sister of X; P is brother of Q; and Q is daughter of Y. Then who is the uncle of P ?
(A) Z
(B) X
(C) Q
(D) Y
Ans : (B)

27. A set of figures carrying certain numbers is given. Assuming that the numbers in each figure follow a similar pattern, the missing number is—

(A) 19
(B) 23
(C) 25
(D) 31
Ans : (D)

28. Some positions of dice are shown below :
What is the number opposite to 4 ?

(A) 6
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 1
Ans : (D)

29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Scientists)
(a) Birbal Sahni
(b) Ramanujan Srinivasa
(c) Sir C.V. Raman
(d) Sir J.C. Bose
List-II (Well known as)
1. Mathematician
2. Paleobotanist
3. Physicist-Botanist
4. Physicist
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (B)

30. The phenomenon of “total internal reflection” is observed in which one of the following ?
(A) Glowing tube light
(B) Light passing through lens
(C) Sparkling diamond
(D) Twinkling star
Ans : (C)

31. From which year did Saka era begin ?
(A) 78 B.C.
(B) 78 A.D.
(C) 178 A.D.
(D) 278 A.D.
Ans : (B)

32. Among the following elements, which one is not present in a pure sugar ?
(A) Carbon
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Oxygen
Ans : (C)

33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Organisation)
(a) UNESCO
(b) IMF
(c) ILO
(d) UNIDO
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Geneva
2. Paris
3. Vienna
4. Washington , D.C.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (B)

34. By convention, who of the following is the Chairman of Press Council of India ?
(A) An eminent journalist of India
(B) A senior Civil Services Officer
(C) A retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India
(D) The Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting
Ans : (C)

35. Consider the following statements :
1. No money bill can be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation of the President of India.
2. The Prime Minister appoints Finance Commission for distribution of taxes between the Union and the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

36. Five-Year Plans in India are finally approved by the—
(A) Union Cabinet
(B) President on the advice of Prime Minister
(C) National Development Council
(D) Planning Commission
Ans : (C)

37. In India, the power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court lies with—
(A) The President of India
(B) The Chief Justice of India
(C) The Union Ministry of Law
(D) The Parliament of India
Ans : (D)

38. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in the—
(A) Preamble to the Constitution
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Ninth Schedule
Ans : (B)

39. Consider the following statements :
1. The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission.
2. The Union Finance Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the Finance Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

40. Consider the following statements :
1. When Vice-President acts as President of India, he ceases to perform the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. The President of India can promulgate Ordinances at any time except when both Houses of Parliament are in session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

41. The maximum number of members that the Legislative Assembly of a State in India can have is—
(A) 400
(B) 450
(C) 500
(D) 550
Ans : (C)

42. Bank rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India provides loans to—
(A) Public Sector Undertakings
(B) Scheduled Commercial Banks
(C) Private Corporate Sector
(D) Non-Banking Financial Institutions
Ans : (B)

43. Who is empowered by the Constitution of India to dissolve the Lok Sabha before expiry of its terms ?
(A) The Prime Minister of India on the advice of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The President of India
(C) The President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans : (C)

44. In which year was “Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana” launched ?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
Ans : (B)

45. The ‘Uruguay Round’ negotiations resulted in the establishment of—
(A) NATO
(B) OECD
(C) WHO
(D) WTO
Ans : (D)

46. With reference to Union Government, which one of the following does undertake the country-wide Economic Census ?
(A) Department of Expenditure
(B) The National Sample Survey Organization
(C) Planning Commission
(D) The Central Statistical Organization
Ans : (B)

47. Geeta Chandran is well known as a/an—
(A) Bharatnatyam dancer
(B) Classical Carnatic vocalist
(C) Film director
(D) Exponent of Violin
Ans : (A)

48. With reference to Indian Freedom Struggle, consider the following statements :
1. P.C. Ray founded the Bengal Chemical Works.
2. V.O. Chidambaram Pillai set up the Steam Navigation Company.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

49. Who of the following was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha ?
(A) G. S. Dhillon
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) Hukam Singh
(D) K. S. Hegde
Ans : (B)

50. Who of the following is associated with Tashkent agreement ?
(A) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Morarji Desai
Ans : (B)

51. Simon Commission was appointed to look into the working of the—
(A) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(B) Government of India Act, 1909
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans : (C)

52. Which one of the following is a primate ?
(A) Bear
(B) Loris
(C) Pangolin
(D) Otter
Ans : (B)

53. Consider the following :
1. Potato
2. Radish
3. Turnip
4. Yam
In which of the above are roots used as vegetables ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
Ans : (B)

54. Which one of the following metals is found in ‘Plaster of Paris’ ?
(A) Calcium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Potassium
(D) Sodium
Ans : (A)

55. Which one of the following is an enzyme ?
(A) Glucagon
(B) Insulin
(C) Somatotropin
(D) Trypsin
Ans : (D)

56. International Date Line passes through which of the following ?
(A) Atlantic ocean
(B) Black sea
(C) Mediterranean sea
(D) Pacific ocean
Ans : (D)

57. The deficiency of which one of the following causes a disease called Pellagra ?
(A) Ascorbic acid
(B) Folic acid
(C) Nicotinic acid
(D) Pantothenic acid
Ans : (D)

58. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Disease)
(a) Filaria
(b) Influenza
(c) Ringworm
(d) Typhoid
List-II (Type of causative organism)
1. Bacteria
2. Fungus
3. Nematode
4. Virus
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (D)

59. From the evolutionary point of view, which one of the following is closer to man ?
(A) Dolphin
(B) Flying fish
(C) Shark
(D) Tortoise
Ans : (A)

60. Who of the following is known as Lokahitavadi ?
(A) G. H. Deshmukh
(B) G. K. Gokhale
(C) J. G. Phule
(D) M. G. Ranade
Ans : (A)

61. With reference to Indian freedom struggle which one among the following events occurred earliest ?
(A) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(B) Lucknow Pact
(C) Cripps Mission Proposals
(D) August offer
Ans : (B)

62. During India’s freedom struggle, which one of the following led to the first ‘All India Hartal’ ?
(A) Protest against Rowlatt Act
(B) Protest against Jallianwalla Bagh massacre
(C) Trial of Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Arrival of Simon Commission
Ans : (D)

63. The Non-Cooperation movement was called off as a result of agitation at which one of the following places ?
(A) Calcutta
(B) Champaran
(C) Chauri Chaura
(D) Meerut
Ans : (C)

64. Consider the following pairs :
1. Ilbert Bill —Lord Hastings
2. August Offer —Lord Ripon
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (D)

65. Who of the following founded the ‘East India Association’ ?
(A) C.R. Das
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Devendra Nath Tagore
(D) V.D. Savarkar
Ans : (B)

66. Who of the following started the newspaper ‘Bande Mataram’ ?
(A) Barindra Kumar Ghose
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Devendra Nath Tagore
(D) Surendra Nath Banerjee
Ans : (B)

67. Consider the following famous historical persons :
1. Ashvaghosha
2. Bhavabhuti
3. Nagarjuna
4. Nagasena
Who of the above are Buddhist scholars ?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (C)

68. Which one among the following types of forests exhibits highest bio-diversity ?
(A) Dry deciduous forest
(B) Tropical rain forest
(C) Moist deciduous forest
(D) Mangrove forest
Ans : (B)

69. Among the following rivers, which one is the longest ?
(A) Godavari
(B) Krishna
(C) Mahanadi
(D) Narmada
Ans : (A)

70. Where is the headquarters of Asian Development Bank ?
(A) Jakarta
(B) Manila
(C) Singapore
(D) Bangkok
Ans : (B)

71. The National River Conservation Directorate is under—
(A) Ministry of Agriculture
(B) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(C) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(D) Ministry of Water Resources
Ans : (B)

72. Consider the following statements :
1. Mikhail Gorbachev was the first President of Russian Federation.
2. Dmitry Medvedev is the fifth President of Russian Federation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (B)

73. Who of the following is the author of the book ‘My Country, My Life’ ?
(A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) Atal Behari Vajpayee
(C) L.K. Advani
(D) Shashi Tharoor
Ans : (C)

74. Which one of the following beaches is visited by Olive Ridley turtles annually for mass nesting ?
(A) Chandipur
(B) Gahirmatha
(C) Gopalpur
(D) Paradwip
Ans : (B)

75. The administration of the English East India Company in India came to an end in—
(A) 1857
(B) 1858
(C) 1862
(D) 1892
Ans : (B)

76. Who of the following is not a sports-person ?
(A) C. B. Bhave
(B) P. T. Raghunath
(C) Samaresh Jung
(D) Suma Shirur
Ans : (A)

77. The famous name Vikram Pandit is associated with—
(A) Cairn Energy
(B) Citigroup
(C) PepsiCo
(D) Vodafone
Ans : (B)

78. What is H5N1 in the news in recent times ?
(A) A new multi-purpose helicopter of Indian Army
(B) A virus causing Bird Flu
(C) The nearest galaxy to our own Milkyway
(D) A genetically modified rice plant
Ans : (B)

79. The Jarawa tribe lives in which one of the following States/Union Territories ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(D) Lakshadweep Islands
Ans : (C)

80. A very young sportsperson of India, Virdhawal Khade is a—
(A) Boxer
(B) Chess player
(C) Golfer
(D) Swimmer
Ans : (D)

81. Which one among the following is a water soluble vitamin ?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin E
(D) Vitamin K
Ans : (B)

82. Which one of the following is a pigment ?
(A) Albumin
(B) Elastin
(C) Keratin
(D) Melanin
Ans : (D)

83. On which one of the following dates did Jawaharlal Nehru unfurl the tri-color national flag on the banks of the Ravi as the clock struck the midnight ?
(A) 31st December, 1929
(B) 26th January, 1930
(C) 31st December, 1931
(D) 26th January, 1933
Ans : (A)

84. Tipu Sultan died fighting the English forces under—
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Lord Wellesley
(C) Lord Dalhousie
(D) Lord Hastings
Ans : (B)

85. The battle of Wandiwash was fought between—
(A) Marathas and Portuguese
(B) The English and the French
(C) The English and Portuguese
(D) Marathas and the English
Ans : (B)

86. The author of ‘Nildarpan’ was—
(A) Dinabandhu Mitra
(B) Sivnath Sastri
(C) Devendra Nath Tagore
(D) Harishchandra Mukherjee
Ans : (A)

87. The firstly weekly Bengali newspaper ‘Samachar Darpan’ was published by—
(A) Harish Chandra Mukherjee
(B) Dinabandhu Mitra
(C) Marshman
(D) Vidyasagar
Ans : (C)

88. Who among the following Peshwas was popularly known as Nana-Saheb ?
(A) Balaji Vishwanath
(B) Baji Rao
(C) Balaji Baji Rao
(D) Madhav Rao I
Ans : (C)

89. Who was responsible for the introduction of the Vernacular Press Act of 1878 ?
(A) Lord Mayo
(B) Lord Lytton
(C) Lord Ripon
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans : (B)

90. Alauddin Khalji captured the Delhi throne after securing fabulous wealth from—
(A) Chanderi
(B) Gujarat
(C) Devagiri
(D) Madurai
Ans : (C)

91. Who of the following was a contemporary of Gautama Buddha ?
(A) Bhadrabahu
(B) Chandragupta Maurya
(C) Parsvanatha
(D) Vardhamana Mahavira
Ans : (D)

92. When Babur invaded India who was the ruler of Vijayanagara empire in south India ?
(A) Saluva Narasimha
(B) Devaraya II
(C) Krishna Deva Raya
(D) Sadasiva Raya
Ans : (C)

93. Who of the following was a contemporary of Chingiz Khan ?
(A) Mahmud of Ghazni
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Alauddin Khalji
(D) Mohammad bin-Tughlaq
Ans : (B)

94. Dara Shikoh finally lost the war of succession to Aurangzeb in the battle of—
(A) Dharmat
(B) Samugarh
(C) Deorai
(D) Khanua
Ans : (B)

95. Who is the author of the book ‘Glimpses of World History’ ?
(A) Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) S. Gopalan
(D) S. Radhakrishnan
Ans : (B)

96. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Reservoir)
(a) Stanley Reservoir
(b) Koyna Reservoir
(c) Jalaput Reservoir
(d) Bhadra Reservoir
List-II (State)
1. Karnataka
2. Maharashtra
3. Orissa
4. Tamil Nadu
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (D)

97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Irrigation/Power Projects)
(a) Malprabha
(b) Kakrapara
(c) Srisailam
(d) Bhima
List-II (Location)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Maharashtra
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans : (D)

98. Which one among the following countries is the largest producer of Bauxite ?
(A) Australia
(B) Brazil
(C) West Indies
(D) India
Ans : (A)

99. The busy port of Rotterdam is situated in—
(A) The Netherlands
(B) Belgium
(C) Denmark
(D) Germany
Ans : (A)

100. Which one of the following descriptions denotes the phenomenon of E1 Nino ?
(A) A violent rotating column of air extending from a thunderstorm to the ground
(B) The deflection of the ocean currents in the northern and southern hemispheres due to the rotation of Earth
(C) The Anomalous widespread warming of the sea surface of the tropical east and central Pacific Ocean
(D) The revolving tropical storms of the Caribbean and Gulf of Mexico
Ans : (C)

101. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Country)
(a) Argentina
(b) Brazil
(c) Peru
(d) Venezuela
List-II (Capital City)
1. Buenos Aires
2. Caracas
3. Lima
4. Sao Paulo
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans : (B)

102. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Sea)
(a) Adriatic Sea
(b) Baltic Sea
(c) North Sea
(d) Black Sea
List-II (Country)
1. Bulgaria
2. Italy
3. Poland
4. United Kingdom
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 1 4 2 3
Ans : (B)

103. Among the following States, which one has the highest amount of Nickel Ore resources ?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Karnataka
(D) Orissa
Ans : (D)

104. What is the name of the highest summit of Nilgiri Hills ?
(A) Coonoor-betta
(B) Anaimudi
(C) Doda-betta
(D) Vellangiri
Ans : (C)

105. Recently, which one of the following lost the status of a planet ?
(A) Mercury
(B) Neptune
(C) Pluto
(D) Uranus
Ans : (C)

106. Which one of the following countries was hit by the cyclone Nargis recently causing a great destruction and loss of life ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Myanmar
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Pakistan
Ans : (B)

107. Which one among the following is nearest to Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research ?
(A) Chidambaram
(B) Mahabalipuram
(C) Madurai
(D) Tanjavur
Ans : (B)

108. Which of the following are connected by over 1700 km-long BTC oil pipe-line ?
(A) Arabian sea and Mediterranean sea
(B) Aral sea and Caspian sea
(C) Black sea and Mediterranean sea
(D) Caspian sea and Mediterranean sea
Ans : (D)

109. Where is the old and over 2 km-long ‘Pamban Railway Bridge’ which attracts tourists from all over the country ?
(A) Nilgiris
(B) Krishna delta
(C) Palk straits
(D) Malabar coast
Ans : (C)

110. Consider the following statements :
1. The monsoon climate is found in Northern Australia.
2. The China type climate is found in Argentina.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

111. At which one of the following places is the monkey called Liontailed macaque naturally found ?
(A) Shivaliks
(B) Pachmarhi
(C) Annamalai Sanctuary
(D) Nilgiris
Ans : (C)

112. Among the following places, which one receives comparatively lowest average monsoon rainfall from June to September ?
(A) Eastern Uttar Pradesh
(B) Southern West Bengal
(C) Punjab
(D) Western Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (C)

113. Consider the following statements :
1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
2. Quick lime is used in the manufacture of glass.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

114. Consider the following statements :
1. Ian Wilmut produced the first portable computer.
2. Adam Osborne created the first cloned sheep.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (D)

115. Which one of the following is the first multipurpose river valley project of independent India ?
(A) Bhakra-Nangal Project
(B) Damodar Valley Corporation
(C) Hirakud Multipurpose Project
(D) Tungabhadra Multipurpose Project
Ans : (B)

116. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Fertilizer Industry)
(a) Aluva
(b) Namrup
(c) Nangal
(d) Sindri
List-II (State)
1. Assam
2. Jharkhand
3. Kerala
4. Punjab
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (C)

117. The famous Petronas Twin Towers are located in—
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) Malaysia
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (C)

118. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Famous place)
(a) Bhimbhetka
(b) Bhiterkanika
(c) Pattadakal
(d) Srikalahasti
List-II (State)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Karnataka
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Orissa
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (D)

119. Bokaro Steel Limited was established with the assistance of—
(A) Germany
(B) Soviet Union
(C) UK
(D) USA
Ans : (B)

120. Which one of the following is not a member of Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) ?
(A) Algeria
(B) Brazil
(C) Ecuador
(D) Nigeria
Ans : (B)

121. Consider the following cities :
1. Bhatinda
2. Jamnagar
3. Mangalore
Which of the above has/have oil refineries ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

122. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Person)
(a) K. V. Kamath
(b) G. M. Rao
(c) Rajendra Pachauri
List-II (Well known as)
1. Banker
2. Environmentalist
3. Industrialist
Code
(a) (b) (c)
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 1 3 2
(C) 2 3 1
(D) 3 1 2
Ans : (B)

123. Consider the following statements :
1. The Shivaliks have tropical moist deciduous flora.
2. The Bundelkhand plateau has thorn and scrub forest type of vegetation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (B)

124. Which one among the following rivers is the longest ?
(A) Amazon
(B) Amur
(C) Congo
(D) Volga
Ans : (A)

125. Consider the following statements :
1. Rainfall in the doldrums is of convectional nature.
2. Convectional rainfall is highly localized and is associated with minimum cloudiness.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2006 Solved Paper

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2006
Law
(Held on 9-3-2008)

1. “Jurisprudence is the Philosophy of positive law.” It is said by—
(A) Austin
(B) Paton
(C) Keeton
(D) Dias
Ans : (A)

2. “Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of the essential principles of law.” Who said it ?
(A) Allen
(B) Bentham
(C) Holland
(D) Dias
Ans : (A)

3. The subject of Hart-Fuller debate in ‘Harvard Law Review’ is—
(A) Law and Society
(B) Law and Morality
(C) Law and Liability
(D) Law and Justice
Ans : (B)

4. ‘An eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth’ was the purpose of punishment according to the—
(A) Deterrent theory
(B) Preventive theory
(C) Retributive theory
(D) Reformative theory
Ans : (C)

5. An interest protected against the world at large is called—
(A) Right in strict sense
(B) Right in repropria
(C) Right in rem
(D) Right in personam
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following jurist distinguished between Lex Aeterma, Lex Naturalis, Lex Divina and Lex Humana ?
(A) Cicero
(B) Justinian
(C) St. Thomas Acquinas
(D) Plato
Ans : (C)

7. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Jurisprudence is Lawyers extra version.
(b) Source of Law is Volkgeist.
(c) Law is a union of primary and secondary rules.
(d) Legal system is a pyramidal structure of norms.
List-II
1. Hart
2. Kelsen
3. Julius stone
4. Savigny
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (C)

8. “Ownership is a plenary control over an object.” This definition is given by—
(A) Paton
(B) Pollock
(C) Holland
(D) Kelson
Ans : (C)

9. Which of the following Jurists has explained legal rights and duties in terms of Jural correlations and jural opposites ?
(A) Hohfeld
(B) Mansfield
(C) Holland
(D) Holmes
Ans : (A)

10. According to Sir Henry Maine, the movement of progressive societies has been a movement from—
(A) Status to social contract
(B) Natural law to positive law
(C) Custom to legislation
(D) Status to contract
Ans : (D)

11. “The purpose of law is to bring pleasure and avoid pain.” Who said it ?
(A) Bentham
(B) Salmond
(C) Kelsen
(D) Hobbes
Ans : (A)

12. The exponent of theory of ‘Social Engineering’ is—
(A) Roscoe Pound
(B) Comte
(C) Duguit
(D) Ihering
Ans : (A)

13. Who is the author of the book ‘Concept of Law’ ?
(A) H.L.A. Hart
(B) Austin
(C) Bentham
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

14. Who among the following said that legislation is ‘formal utterance (statement) of legislative organs of the society’ ?
(A) Dias
(B) Allen
(C) Gray
(D) Black stone
Ans : (C)

15. THe celebrated essay ‘Determining Ratio Decendi of case’ was written by—
(A) Goodhart
(B) Winfield
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Julius stone
Ans : (A)

16. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Historical School
(b) Vienna School
(c) Natural Law School
(d) Sociological School
List-II
1. Duguit 2. Stammler
3. Kelsen 4. Puchta
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : (B)

17. “The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty”, said by—
(A) Roscoe Pound
(B) Ihering
(C) Ehrlich
(D) Duguit
Ans : (D)

18. “Law grows with a nation, increases with it and dies at its dissolution and is a characteristic of it.” This is the view of—
(A) Natural Law School
(B) Historical School
(C) Analytical School
(D) Sociological School
Ans : (B)

19. The main purpose of the ‘Corporate Sole’ is to—
(A) Make the property easily inheritable
(B) Make the property easily transferable
(C) Maintain countinuity of an office
(D) Protect the property of State
Ans : (C)

20. Dealing with sources of law who from amongst the following says that “The courts put life into the dead words of statutes” ?
(A) Holland
(B) Gray
(C) Salmond
(D) Austin
Ans : (B)

21. Analytical, Historical and Ethical Jurisprudence are three different parts of the Jurisprudence, according to—
(A) Salmond
(B) Ihering
(C) Hart
(D) Immanuel Kant
Ans : (A)

22. Even though Emergency is proclaimed, the enforcement of following rights through courts cannot be suspended—
(A) Art. 14, 19 and 21
(B) Art. 20, 21 and 22
(C) Art. 19 and 21
(D) Art. 20 and 21
Ans : (D)

23. Powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and its members are provided under—
(A) Article–105
(B) Article–106
(C) Article–107
(D) Article–194
Ans : (A)

24. In which of the following cases Supreme Court has condemned cruelty or torture during Police custody as being violative of Art 21 ?
(A) Francis Coralie Vs. Union of Territory of Delhi
(B) Menaka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
(C) P. Rethiram Vs. Union of India
(D) Olga Tellis Vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation
Ans : (A)

25. Which Article of the Constitution provides that an advice tendered by Ministers to the President Shall not be inquired into in any court ?
(A) Article–74(1)
(B) Article–74(2)
(C) Article–75
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

26. In order to prevent defection of Members of Parliament, Clause (2) in Article 102 and Schedule X were added—
(A) By Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976
(B) By Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978
(C) By Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

27. Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India can be enlarged—
(A) By Chief Justice of India
(B) By President of India
(C) By Parliament by Law
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

28. “The State shall endeavour to promote international peace and security.” is provided in—
(A) Article-48A
(B) Article-49
(C) Article-50
(D) Article-51
Ans : (D)

29. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation is applied where—
(A) Legislature acts within its Jurisdiction
(B) Legislature acts beyond its Jurisdiction
(C) Legislature acts apparently within its jurisdiction but actually acts beyond its Jurisdiction
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

30. The case of S. R. Bommai Vs. Union of India (1994) is related to—
(A) Parliamentary Privileges
(B) Freedom of Press
(C) Imposition of President’s Rule
(D) Right to Equality
Ans : (C)

31. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) The Constitution (52th Amendment)
(b) The Constitution (86th Amendment)
(c) The Constitution (1st Amendment)
(d) The Constitution (93rd Amendment)
List-II
1. Reservation in election
2. Ninth Schedule
3. Tenth Schedule
4. Right to Education
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (B)

32. “The Indian Constitution provides a Unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than Federal State with subsidiary Unitary features.” This statement is of—
(A) Sir Ivor Jennings
(B) K. C. Wheare
(C) A. V. Dicey
(D) S.A. de Smith
Ans : (B)

33. The case of A. R. Antulay Vs. R. S. Nayak (1988) is related to—
(A) Article-12
(B) Preamble of the Constitution
(C) Article-311
(D) Article-368
Ans : (A)

34. Which Provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on the centre to ensure that the Government of the State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution ?
(A) Article-352
(B) Article-355
(C) Article-356
(D) Article-360
Ans : (B)

35. Doctrine of Pleasure applies to—
(A) Article-15(4)
(B) Article-16(4)
(C) Article-356
(D) Article-310
Ans : (D)

36. Preamble of the Constitution declares India to be a—
(A) Secular Socialist Sovereign Democratic Republic
(B) Socialist Secular Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
(D) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Ans : (D)

37. The appointment of Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is provided under—
(A) Article-48
(B) Article-147
(C) Article-149
(D) Article-148
Ans : (D)

38. To whom the Speaker of Lok Sabha should address his letter of resignation ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans : (C)

39. Which one of the following writs can be issued only against judicial and quasi judicial authorities ?
(A) Mandamus
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo Warranto
Ans : (C)

40. Who elects the Vice President of India ?
(A) Members of Rajya Sabha only
(B) Members of Lok Sabha only
(C) Members of both the Houses of Parliament
(D) Members of all State Legislatures
Ans : (C)

41. Appellate Jurisdiction of Supreme Court in regard to criminal matters is stated in Article.
(A) 131
(B) 132
(C) 136
(D) 134
Ans : (D)

42. The President of India has power to grant pardon under which Article ?
(A) 172
(B) 74
(C) 72
(D) 92
Ans : (C)

43. According to which decision of the Supreme Court, the state cannot impose its reservation policy upon any unaided private professional educational institution ?
(A) M. Nagaraj Vs. Union of India
(B) P. A. Inamdar Vs. State of Maharashtra
(C) TMA Pai foundation Vs.State of Karnataka
(D) Indira Sawhney Vs. Union of India
Ans : (B)

44. Establishment of Public Service Commission for the Union and for the States is provided under—
(A) Article–316
(B) Article–319
(C) Article–315
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

45. Who among the following is Sovereign in India ?
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) We the people of India
Ans : (D)

46. How many States signed the charter of United Nations at San Francisco in 1945 ?
(A) 41
(B) 15
(C) 51
(D) 52
Ans : (C)

47. The first Woman judge of International Court of Justice is—
(A) Rosalyn Higgins
(B) Rosa E. Otumbiyeva
(C) Gertrude Mongella
(D) Sadako Ogata
Ans : (A)

48. Who formulated the theory of ‘Pacta Sunt Sirvanda’ to explain the basis of international law ?
(A) By Kelsen
(B) By Oppenheim
(C) By Starke
(D) By Anzilotti
Ans : (D)

49. Under which Article of the U.N. Charter, the Security Council may use armed force against a State ?
(A) 42
(B) 45
(C) 41
(D) 51
Ans : (A)

50. Who said “A State is and becomes an international person through recognition only exclusively” ?
(A) Holland
(B) Hall
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Starke
Ans : (C)

51. On which date United Nations Day is celebrated ?
(A) June 26
(B) December 10
(C) July 11
(D) October 24
Ans : (D)

52. A Judge of the International Court of Justice can be removed by—
(A) A resolution of the Security Council
(B) A resolution of the General Assembly
(C) The Secretary General
(D) The unanimous opinion of remaining judges
Ans : (D)

53. Who said that usage represents the initial stage of custom; custom begins when usage ends ?
(A) Starke
(B) Brierly
(C) Hall
(D) Grotius
Ans : (A)

54. The Second World Conference on Human Rights, 1993 was held in—
(A) Vienna
(B) Paris
(C) Geneva
(D) New Delhi
Ans : (A)

55. The Selection blockade of Cuba by the United states of America was done in—
(A) October, 1962
(B) December, 1960
(C) September, 1962
(D) October, 1963
Ans : (D)

56. The Estrada doctrine is concerned with—
(A) Intervention
(B) State Succession
(C) Custom
(D) Recognition
Ans : (D)

57. Though there is no specific provision reagrading withdrawal from membership of the U.N. Charter, yet one of the following withdrew from it—
(A) India
(B) Iran
(C) Iraq
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

58. Assertion (A) : The United Nations is based on the sovereign equality of States.
Reason (R) : Permanent members of the Security Council have veto power.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (B)

59. Which from amongst the following is primary source of International Law ?
(A) Judicial Decisions
(B) Writings of International Jurists
(C) International Usages
(D) International Customs
Ans : (D)

60. Which one of the following organs of the U.N. has the power to suspend or expel a member of United Nations ?
(A) Economic and Social Council
(B) Security Council
(C) International Court of Justice
(D) General Assembly on the recommendation of Security Council
Ans : (D)

61. How many principles of the U.N. are laid down for organic observance by the United Nations ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Two
(D) Seven
Ans : (D)

62. The International Court of Justice may decide a case ex aequo et bono if—
(A) The court deems it necessary
(B) The President of the court desires so
(C) The General Assembly requests the court
(D) The parties concerned agree for it
Ans : (D)

63. The view that international law is not law but international positive morality was held by—
(A) Oppenheim
(B) Starke
(C) Holland
(D) Austin
Ans : (D)

64. Which judge is considered pioneer in the growth of the ‘principle of absolute liability in tort’ ?
(A) Blackburn J.
(B) Lord Denning M.R.
(C) Lord Halsbury
(D) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
Ans : (D)

65. There is no distinction between ‘Sovereign functions’ and ‘Non- Sovereign functions’ of State in regard to liability of State in tort is said in the case of—
(A) Kasturi Lal Vs. State of U.P.
(B) Nagraj Rao & Co. Vs. State of A.P.
(C) State of Rajasthan Vs. Vidhyawati
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

66. Who among the following has propounded the ‘Pigeon Hole Theory’ related to law of torts ?
(A) Winfield
(B) Underhill
(C) Salmond
(D) Flemming
Ans : (C)

67. In which of the following case relating to contributory negligence, the principle first applied by the Court came to be known as the ‘Last opportunity rule’ ?
(A) Butterfield Vs. Forrester
(B) Davies Vs. Mann
(C) Admiralty Commissioner V.S.S. Volute
(D) British Colombia Electric Railway Vs. Loach
Ans : (B)

68. A master is liable for the tort committed by his servant the servant acts—
(A) For the benefit of his master
(B) During his duty hours
(C) In the course of his employment
(D) To the detriment of the plaintiff
Ans : (C)

69. Tort is infringement of a—
(A) Right in personam
(B) Right in rem
(C) Both right in personam and right in rem
(D) Neither right in personam nor right in rem
Ans : (B)

70. “If it was a lawful act, however ill the motive might be, the defendant had a right to do it.” This observation was made by the court in one of the following cases—
(A) Mayor of Bradford Corporation Vs. Pickles
(B) Ashby Vs. White
(C) Christei Vs. Davey
(D) Hollywood Silver Fox Farm Ltd. Vs. Emmet
Ans : (A)

71. As a legislative sequal to the Oleum Gas leak case, the Indian Parliament enacted a law. Which of the following was that legislation ?
(A) National Environment Tribunal Act
(B) Hazardous Waste (Management and Handling) Act
(C) Public Liability Insurance Act
(D) Bhopal Gas Leak Disaster (Processing of Claims) Act
Ans : (C)

72. Torts ‘Actionable perse’ are those torts—
(A) In which the plaintiff will have to prove special damage
(B) In which liability arises without intention or negligence
(C) In which some public right is infringed coupled with particular damage
(D) In which the plaintiff can sue even though he has suffered no actual loss
Ans : (D)

73. The exception of ‘Act of God’ was attached to—
(A) The Rule of strict liability
(B) The Rule of absolute liability
(C) The Rule of contribution
(D) Joint tort feasors
Ans : (A)

74. Which of the following requirements from an essential element of the defence of fair comment in the tort of defamation ?
1. The matter commented on must be of public interest.
2. It must be an assertion of fact.
3. It must be an expression of opinion.
4. The comment must be fair
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

75. An appropriate remedy for tort is an action for—
(A) Injunction
(B) Prosecution
(C) Unliquidated damages
(D) All are correct
Ans : (C)

76. There is a children’s school by the side of a highway. While classes are going on, two children of the school stray on the highway. A truck is moving on the highway at narmal speed. While trying to avoid hitting the children, the truck collides with a bullock-cart. One person is injured, the bullocks die and the truck is also damaged. Which one of the following propositions correctly describes the liability ?
(A) The school administration would be liable because they were negligent
(B) The truck driver shall be liable because he did not take care
(C) The bullock-cart puller would be liable because he has not taken due care
(D) The children would be liable as they have contributed to the accident
Ans : (A)

77. Strict liability under law of torts means—
(A) Liability that is very severe
(B) Liability for any dangerous activity
(C) Liability without the need to establish fault
(D) Liability for mass torts
Ans : (C)

78. Youssonpoff Vs. M.G.M. Pictures Ltd., is a leading case on which of the following ?
(A) Defamation
(B) Negligence
(C) Contributory Negligence
(D) Strict liability
Ans : (A)

79. Assertion (A) : Tort liability and criminal liability are similar in some respects only.
Reason (R) : Because both are based on a duty primarily fixed by law and the duty is towards persons generally.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

80. Which one of the following limitations to the rule of ‘Volenti non fit injuria’ is not correct?
(A) The consent should be free
(B) Consent to illegal act is no consent
(C) Consent in rescue cases is no consent
(D) More knowledge of the rist is not assumption to the risk
Ans : (D)

81. ‘A’ sings obscene songs near the gate of Girls Degree College, what offence he has committed ?
(A) Assault
(B) Outraging the modesty of a women
(C) Criminal intimidation
(D) Obscenity
Ans : (D)

82. The principal of criminal liability—
Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea—was developed by—
(A) Equity courts
(B) Comon law courts
(C) Courts of star chamber
(D) Curia Regis
Ans : (B)

83. Gorachand Gopee Vs. R is a leading case on—
(A) Insanity
(B) Common intention
(C) Common object
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

84. For a sexual intercourse by the husband against the will of his wife, to be a rape the age of the wife should be—
(A) Below 17 years
(B) Below 15 years
(C) Below 16 years
(D) Below 18 years
Ans : (B)

85. Assertion (A) : To constitute the offence of abetment it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed.
Reason (R) : Because an abetment of an offence itself is an offence.
Codes :
(A) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Ans : (C)

86. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ agree to commit theft in ‘Z’s house but no theft is actually committed, they are guilty of—
(A) No offence
(B) Abetment by conspiracy
(C) Abetment by instigation
(D) Criminal conspiracy
Ans : (D)

87. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Insanity as a defence
(b) Common intention
(c) Necessity
(d) Mistake as a defence
List-II
1. Emperor Vs. Barendra Kumar Ghosh
2. R. Vs. Mcnaughten
3. Bhavojivaji Vs. Mulji Dayal
4. R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (B)

88. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to burn Z’s house. ‘B’ sets fire to the house and at the same time commits theft of property there. In this case—
(A) ‘A’ is guilty of theft by setting fire to the house
(B) ‘A’, though guilty of abetting the burning of the house, is not guilty of abetting the theft
(C) ‘A’ is guilty of abetting the burning of the house as well as abetting the offence of theft
(D) ‘A’ is neither guilty of abetting the burning of the house nor of theft
Ans : (B)

89. Some militants are hiding in a house occupied by an individual. Militants are engaged in an attack on the police party by firing from the house. The police persons, to defend themselves, fire towards the house and an innocent person in the house is hit by the bullet and dies as a result thereof. The police persons are guilty of—
(A) No offence as they can claim the right of private defence
(B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(C) Murder
(D) Death by rash or negligent act
Ans : (A)

90. A amd B were going on a boat. Suddenly the boat began to sink. A pushed B in the river and saved himself. B was drowned—
(A) A is justified in pushing B as it was an act of necessity
(B) No necessity except private defence is justifiable in killing a man
(C) It was done under compulsion
(D) All of the above are incorrect
Ans : (D)

91. The general exception based on the maxim ‘de minimum non curat lex’ is—
(A) Triviality
(B) Accident
(C) Consent
(D) Self-defence
Ans : (A)

92. The Supreme Court decision State Vs. Mayor Hans George AIR 1965 SC 722 is famous for—
(A) Strict interpretation of the socio-economic offence statutes
(B) Condition of implied exclusion of a mens rea.
(C) Non-exclusion of mens rea unless the statute expressly requires so
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

93. In which of the following case, The Supreme Court held that “Persistent demand of dowry is cruelty against wife” ?
(A) Hafizunissan Vs. Mohamad Yasin Khan
(B) Mohammed Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano
(C) Anuradha Vs. Dr. Srikant
(D) Nijhawan Vs. Nijhawan
Ans : (C)

94. “In every statute mens rea is to be implied unless contrary is shown.” This view was expressed in—
(A) Harding Vs. Price
(B) R. Vs. Dudley
(C) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen
(D) R. Vs. Lipman
Ans : (C)

95. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C’. ‘B’ refuses to do so. In this case ‘A’ is liable to—
(A) Guilty of no offence
(B) Guilty of obetting ‘B’ to commit murder
(C) Guilty of murder
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

96. What is the minimum of persons required to further the common object ?
(A) 2 or more than 2 persons
(B) 4 persons
(C) 5 or more than 5 persons
(D) Number of persons is not certain
Ans : (C)

97. ‘A’ occasionally has sexual intercourse with the wife of ‘C’ without his consent. Under which Section of IPC ‘C’ can seek remedy ?
(A) 494
(B) 495
(C) 496
(D) 497
Ans : (D)

98. The father and mother-in-law of a woman subject her to cruelty for dowry. Which of the following Section of IPC provides punishment ?
(A) Sec. 323
(B) Sec. 350
(C) Sec. 349
(D) Sec. 498 A
Ans : (D)

99. Against which of the following offences right of private defence of body does not extend to the causing of death ?
(A) Rape
(B) Gratifying unnatural offence
(C) Causing miscarriage
(D) Kidnapping
Ans : (C)

100. The provision of India Penal Code have come into operation from the date ?
(A) November 30, 1861
(B) January 1, 1862
(C) July 1, 1862
(D) December 31, 1862
Ans : (B)

101. Which of the following is not an essential element of fraud ?
(A) It must be committed with an intention to deceive another party
(B) The person making false statement knows that it is false
(C) It must be committed by a party to the contract
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

102. Which one of the following cases is related to frustration of contract ?
(A) Carlill Vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.
(B) Hadley Vs. Baxendale
(C) Derry Vs. Peek
(D) Raja Dhruvdeo Chand Vs. Harmohinder Singh & others
Ans : (D)

103. A promises to paint a picture for B. B afterwards forbids him to do so. A is no longer bound to perform to promise under which of the following Section ?
(A) Section–63
(B) Section–62
(C) Section–64
(D) Section–65
Ans : (A)

104. Assertion (A) : A party to the contract excuses himself from performing his part of contract, on the ground that he is left with no money or property to pay.
Reason (R) : An agreement to do an impossible act in itself is void and both parties are discharged from future performance.
Make the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (D)

105. A knows that his horse had a damaged hoof which he filled up in such a way as to defy detection and sold it to ‘B’. This defect was subsequently discovered by ‘B’. The act of ‘A’ will amount to—
(A) A false suggestion
(B) Active concealment of fact
(C) Misrepresentation
(D) Mistake
Ans : (B)

106. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct by using the codes given below the list—
List–I
(a) Ramsgate Victoria Hotel Co.
Vs. Montefiore
(b) Tinn Vs. Hoffmann
(c) Household Fire Insurance Co. Vs. Grant
(d) Fitch Vs. Snedaker
List-II
1. Acceptance complete when letter of acceptance posted.
2. Cross offers do not create contract.
3. Communication of offer cannot be waived.
4. Unreasonable delay in accepting offer causes it to lapse.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans : (B)

107. A promises B to pay C Rs. 10,000 A does not pay the amount to C. A can be forced to make payment by—
(A) ‘B’ only
(B) ‘C’ only
(C) ‘B’ and ‘C’ together
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

108. An agreement in restraint of trade is void, if it imposes—
(A) An absoulte restraint
(B) A partial restraint
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

109. ‘A’ promises to pay a sum of Rs. 50,000 to ‘B’, a judge to decide the case in his favour. It is—
(A) A valid contract
(B) A voidable contract
(C) A void contract
(D) An illegal agreement
Ans : (C)

110. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(A) Illegal agreements affect-colateral transactions
(B) An agreement without consideration is void
(C) Consideration must be given by the promisee alone
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

111. “No one will be allowed to enrich himself at the cost of another.”
This principle is known as—
(A) Nudum pactum
(B) Quasi-contract
(C) Quantum-Merit
(D) Quantum-Valebat
Ans : (B)

112. A, B and C enter into an agreement for the division among them of gains to be acquired by them by fraud—
(A) The agreement is void
(B) The agreement is valid
(C) The agreement is voidable
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

113. ‘A’ is indebted to ‘B’, but the debt is barred by Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to pay Rs. 10,000 to ‘B’ on account of the debt. This agreement is—
(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

114. Which of the following is not a person of unsound mind ?
(A) Insane
(B) Idiot
(C) A person under the influence of liquor
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

115. Goods kept in show-case of a shop indicating price is—
(A) Offer
(B) Acceptance for offer
(C) Invitation to offer
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

116. Which of the following is required for an effective mistake of fact ?
(A) It must be a mistake of both the parties
(B) Fact must be essential to the agreement
(C) Mistake must be about existing fact
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

117. A minor mortgaged his house in favour of a money lender to secure a loan of Rs. 20,000 taken for his education. Money lender secures payment but minor refuses to pay for. Point out the correct legal position—
(A) Minor is not liable to pay loan as the contract is void
(B) Money lender can recover the rent from the estate of the minor
(C) Minor is personally liable to pay the loan.
(D) Minor will be bound by the mortgage, but not by the loan
Ans : (B)

118. “When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused” under which one of the following section ?
(A) Section 19
(B) Section 19 A
(C) Section 19 and 19 A
(D) None of the above section
Ans : (C)

119. “Public policy is a unruly horse, and when once you get astride it, you never know where it will carry you.” This quotation is related to—
(A) Gherulal Vs. Mahadeodas
(B) Richardson Vs. Mellish
(C) Fender Vs. John Mildmay
(D) Egerton Vs. Brownlaw
Ans : (B)

120. ‘A’ is trading with several types of oils. ‘A’ agrees to sell to ‘B’ “a hundred tons of oil” the agreement is void, because—
(A) It is uncertain
(B) There is no consideration
(C) There is no free consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2006 Solved Paper

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2006
Commerce

(Held on 9-3-2008)

1. The share of new partner in the profits is 1/5 and his capital is Rs. 20,000. The new profit sharing ratio is 3 : 1 : 1. The share of partners in total capital will be—
(A) 60,000 : 20,000 : 20,000
(B) 80,000 : 20,000 : 20,000
(C) 50,000 : 20,000 : 25,000
(D) None of the above

2. At the time of dissolution the loss of the business, will be compensated first of all from—
(A) Capital
(B) Profits
(C) Personal resources of the partners
(D) Donations

3. The meaning of written down value is—
(A) Original cost – Scrap value
(B) Book value + Depreciation
(C) Book value – Depreciation
(D) None of these

4. Given :
Depreciation on the basis of Fixed Instalment Method Rs. 2,000 p.a.
Establishment expenses Rs. 5,000
Scrap value Rs. 1,000
Span of life 10 years
The cost of assets will be—
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 16,000
(C) Rs. 12,000
(D) None of these

5. Given :
Cost Rs. 1,00,000
Scrap Value Rs. 10,000
Span of Life 10 years
Rate of depreciation 20% p.a.
The amount of depreciation for the first year on the basis of diminishing balance method will be—
(A) Rs. 20,000
(B) Rs. 18,000
(C) Rs. 9,000
(D) Rs. 10,000

6. Match the following List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the answer codes given below—
List-I
(a) AS-6
(b) AS-10
(c) AS-26
(d) AS-20
List-II
1. Accounting for Earning per share
2. Accounting for intangible and fictitious assets
3. Accounting for fixed assets
4. Depreciation Accounting
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 2 1

7. Establishment expenses of a new machine will be debited to—
(A) Expenses Account
(B) Profit and Loss Account
(C) Machinery Account
(D) None of the above

8. Goodwill is—
(A) Floating Asset
(B) Wasting Asset
(C) Fictitious Asset
(D) Intangible Asset

9. A Balance Sheet shows only—
(A) Personal Accounts and Nominal Accounts
(B) Real Accounts and Nominal Accounts
(C) Personal Accounts and Real Accounts
(D) Personal, Real and Nominal Accounts

10. Discount on Issue of Shares A/c is shown at the—
(A) Debit side of P & L A/c
(B) Assets side of B/S
(C) Liabilities side of B/S
(D) None of the above

11. Pre-incorporation Profit is transferred to—
(A) General Reserve
(B) Capital Reserve
(C) Profit and Loss A/c
(D) Trading A/c

12. Which of the following is shown in Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c ?
(A) Provision for Income Tax
(B) Provision for Depreciation
(C) Provision for Doubtful Debts
(D) Contribution to General Reserve

13. On liquidation of a Company first payment is made in respect of—
(A) Liquidator’s remuneration
(B) Legal expenses
(C) Preferential creditors
(D) None of the above

14. Workmen’s Compensation Fund is a—
(A) Provision
(B) Surplus
(C) Current liability
(D) Loan

15. Debentures of Rs. 4,25,000 are issued against the purchase of assets of Rs. 4,50,000. In this case the amount of Rs. 25,000 is—
(A) Capital Reserve
(B) Securities Premium
(C) Revenue Profit
(D) Goodwill

16. A Company can reissue its forfeited shares—
(A) At a premium
(B) At a face value
(C) At a discount
(D) All of the above

17. Which of the following is an example of capital expenditure ?
(A) Insurance Premium
(B) Taxes and Legal expenses
(C) Depreciation
(D) Custom duty on import of machinery

18. Given :
Average profit of a firm Rs. 21,000
Normal Profit Rs. 18,000
Value of goodwill on the basis of 3 years purchases of super profit shall be—
(A) Rs. 39,000
(B) Rs. 9,000
(C) Rs. 3,000
(D) Rs. 12,000

19. A co-operative auditor starts his work of audit from—
(A) Account Books
(B) Payment Books
(C) Cash Book
(D) None of the above

20. Accounting for research and development relates to—
(A) AS-7
(B) AS-8
(C) AS-9
(D) AS-10

21. Goods worth Rs. 2,000 were distributed to employees free of charge. The account to be debited is—
(A) Profit and Loss A/c
(B) Advertisement A/c
(C) Labour Welfare A/c
(D) Goods A/c

22. The maximum rate of underwriting commission on debentures is—
(A) 10%
(B) 2•5%
(C) 12•5%
(D) 5%

23. X Ltd. forfeited 20 shares of Rs. 10 each on which Rs. 6 per share were paid. If out of these shares, 8 shares were reissued to Ram as fully paid up on payment of Rs. 5•50 per share, the amount that will remain standing to the credit of Share Forfeited A/c will be—
(A) Rs. 48
(B) Rs. 72
(C) Rs. 84
(D) Rs. 120

24. Bonus Shares are issued to—
(A) Equity Shareholders
(B) Preference Shareholders
(C) Debenture Holders
(D) Secured Creditors

25. On an equity share of Rs. 100, the minimum amount payable on application under the law should be—
(A) Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 15
(C) Rs. 10
(D) Rs. 5

26. Share Premium received by a Company may be used for—
(A) Payment of dividend
(B) Payment of remuneration to management
(C) Issue of Bonus shares
(D) None of these

27. Garner Vs. Murray rule applies in case of—
(A) Admission of a partner
(B) Dissolution of a firm
(C) Retirement of a partner
(D) Death of a partner

28. When sale is Rs. 4,80,000, gross loss is 25% on cost, purchase is Rs. 3,50,000 and closing stock is Rs. 60,000, the stock in the beginning would be—
(A) Rs. 70,000
(B) Rs. 94,000
(C) Rs. 1,34,000
(D) Rs. 3,50,000

29. Balance of Debenture Redemption Fund Account is transferred to—
(A) Capital Reserve A/c
(B) Profit and Loss A/c
(C) General Reserve A/c
(D) None of these

30. Planning includes—
(A) Objectives
(B) Policy
(C) Strategy
(D) All of the above

31. Hawthorne Experiments were conducted by—
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) F. W. Taylor
(D) Peter F. Drucker

32. Who is called ‘The Father of Scientific Management’ ?
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) E. F. L. Breach
(D) F. W. Taylor

33. A plan when expressed in quantitative terms is called—
(A) Policy
(B) Procedure
(C) Objective
(D) Budget

34. Theory ‘X’ and Theory ‘Y’ of Motivation was propounded by—
(A) Herzberg
(B) Maslow
(C) Elton Mayo
(D) McGregor

35. Direction involves—
(B) Physical factors
(B) Financial factors
(C) Human factors
(D) None of the above

36. Which is the oldest form of organisation ?
(A) Line
(B) Line and staff
(C) Functional
(D) Matrix

37. Decentralisation—
(A) Reduces burden of chief executives
(B) Increases burden of chief executives
(C) Does not effect burden
(D) None of the above

38. Planning is a—
(A) Primary function
(B) Secondary function
(C) Supplementary function
(D) None of the above

39. Planning function of management is performed by—
(A) Top management
(B) Middle management
(C) Lower management
(D) All of the above

40. MBO approach in management was introduced by—
(A) M. P. Follet
(B) Keith Davis
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Oliver Sheldon

41. Which of the following is not an element of marketing mix ?
(A) Product
(B) Price
(C) Promotion
(D) Product life cycle

42. Market segmentation means—
(A) Grouping of buyers
(B) Grouping of sellers
(C) Grouping of middle men
(D) Grouping of producers

43. Standard costing is a technique of—
(A) Planning
(B) Organising
(C) Coordination
(D) Control

44. The principle of ‘Unity of Command’ was introduced by—
(A) Elton Mayo
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) F. W. Taylor
(D) Urwick

45. The last step of communication process is—
(A) Controlling
(B) Implementation
(C) Correction
(D) Reaction

46. Strategy is used in—
(A) Military
(B) Business
(C) Industry
(D) All of the above

47. ‘3-D’ Model of leadership is propounded by—
(A) Likert Reinsis
(B) Kurt Levis
(C) William Ridin
(D) Henry Fayol

48. Personal selling includes—
(A) Selling
(B) Services to the customers
(C) Developing goodwill of the firm
(D) All of the above

49. The process of evaluating employees is called—
(A) Performance appraisal
(B) Recruitment
(C) Induction
(D) Job evaluation

50. Franking machine is used for—
(A) Specimen signature
(B) Postage stamps
(C) Arrival and departure timings
(D) None of the above

51. Grapevine communication is a type of—
(A) Formal communication
(B) Informal communication
(C) Horizontal communication
(D) Vertical communication

52. The ‘Principle of Exception’ states that management should—
(A) Check everything without exception
(B) Invariably take corrective action without exception
(C) Accept exceptions in emergencies
(D) Concentrate their attention on exceptions

53. Which of the following is not a component of ‘SWOT Analysis’ ?
(A) Threats
(B) Strengths
(C) Weaknesses
(D) Options

54. Organisational change is necessitated by—
(A) External environmental pressure
(B) Internal strengths and weaknesses
(C) Sequential changes
(D) All the above

55. Which management functions are closely related to ?
(A) Planning and Organising
(B) Organising and Staffing
(C) Staffing and Control
(D) Planning and Control

56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Planning
(b) Staffing
(c) Directing
(d) Controlling
List-II
1. Training
2. Forecasting
3. Evaluating
4. Motivating
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 4 2 1

57. Memorandum of Association contains—
(A) Objective clause
(B) Name clause
(C) Capital clause
(D) All of the above

58. ‘Table A’ is an alternative to—
(A) Prospectus
(B) Articles of Association
(C) Memorandum of Association
(D) None of the above

59. The ‘Doctrine of Indoor Management’ provides protection to the—
(A) Board of Directors
(B) Shareholders
(C) Managing Director
(D) Outsiders

60. By which of the following methods a Company Secretary can be removed from his post ?
(A) By passing a resolution in Board Meeting
(B) By order of Registrar of Companies
(C) By passing a resolution in Annual General Meeting
(D) None of the above

61. Dividend paid between two Annual General Meetings is known as—
(A) Final dividend
(B) Interim dividend
(C) Special dividend
(D) None of the above

62. In a Private Company there are restrictions regarding—
(A) Transfer of shares
(B) Issue of prospectus
(C) Number of members
(D) All of the above

63. The gap between two General Meetings of the Company should not be more than—
(A) 12 months
(B) 18 months
(C) 15 months
(D) 20 months

64. Statement containing details of items to be considered in a meeting is called—
(A) Agenda
(B) Minutes
(C) Resolution
(D) Notice

65. The minimum and maximum number of members in a Private Company is—
(A) 2 and 50
(B) 2 and 20
(C) 2 and 10
(D) None of the above

66. What is the maximum limit of remuneration for a whole time manager in a company ?
(A) 3% of net annual profit
(B) 5% of net annual profit
(C) 7% of net annual profit
(D) None of the above

67. Which among the following documents defines the relationship between a company and outsiders ?
(A) Memorandum of Association
(B) Articles of Association
(C) Prospectus
(D) None of the above

68. Registration is not essential in case of a—
(A) Company
(B) Co-operative organisation
(C) Co-operative Societies
(D) Business of Joint Hindu Family

69. The Meeting of Board of Directors must be called at least once—
(A) In four months
(B) In three months
(C) In two months
(D) In one month

70. The Secretary of a Company should file copies of Special Resolution passed at Extraordinary General Meeting to the Registrar of Companies within—
(A) 7 days
(B) 14 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 30 days

71. What is the quorum of General Meetings in the case of a Private Company ?
(A) 2 members
(B) 3 members
(C) 4 members
(D) 5 members

72. Which of these must hold a Statutory Meeting ?
(A) Public Limited Company
(B) Private Company
(C) Unlimited Company
(D) All of these

73. When three sugar mills combine, it is an example of—
(A) Vertical combination
(B) Horizontal combination
(C) Diagonal combination
(D) None of the above

74. The first electronic computer system was developed in—
(A) 1920
(B) 1940
(C) 1930
(D) 1950

75. An Index is—
(A) A filing system
(B) A photostat procedure
(C) The procedure to collect data
(D) An important help in filing

76. Indian Partnership Act was passed in the year—
(A) 1956
(B) 1936
(C) 1932
(D) 1930

77. According to the Partnership Act, the maximum number of partners in a banking firm may be—
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 4
(D) 20

78. Dissolution of Partnership takes place when—
(A) A partner misbehaves
(B) A partner becomes of unsound mind
(C) Business is running at a loss
(D) A partner dies

79. The existence of a Partnership Firm is—
(A) Separate from partners
(B) Not separate from partners
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

80. In which State the Mitakshara form of H.U.F. business does not apply ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) West Bengal
(D) Kerala

81. Letter of Credit is presented by—
(A) Exporter
(B) Importer
(C) Custom Officer
(D) Shipping Company

82. The Agreement of Partnership—
(A) Must be oral
(B) Must be in writing
(C) Can be either oral or in writing
(D) Must be in writing on a stamp paper

83. Export procedure begins with—
(A) Indent
(B) Shipping order
(C) Marine insurance
(D) None of these

84. ‘Self-help by mutual help’ is a feature of—
(A) Public enterprise
(B) Public corporation
(C) Co-operative society
(D) All of the above

85. In India private sector entered into the Life Insurance business in the year—
(A) 1995
(B) 1998
(C) 2000
(D) 2001

86. General Insurance Corporation of India was set up in—
(A) 1956
(B) 1972
(C) 1980
(D) 2000

87. ‘Salvage Charges’ is related to—
(A) Life Insurance
(B) Marine Insurance
(C) Fire Insurance
(D) None of the above

88. In ‘Life Insurance Contract’ the insurable interest is examined at the time of—
(A) Entering the contract
(B) Filing the claim
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Never

89. In connection with marine insurance the ‘Doctrine of Utmost Good Faith’ is based on the concept of—
(A) Disclosure
(B) Concealment
(C) Misrepresentation
(D) None of the above

90. Which statement is not true in respect of a Balance Sheet ?
(A) It is an account
(B) It is prepared every month
(C) It is prepared to check the mathematical accuracy
(D) All the above

91. A machinery is purchased for Rs. 3,00,000 and Rs. 50,000 is spent on its installation. Rs. 5,000 is spent on fuel. What will be the amount of capital expenditure ?
(A) Rs. 3,00,000
(B) Rs. 3,50,000
(C) Rs. 3,55,000
(D) None of these

92. Which of the following errors are not disclosed by Trial Balance ?
(A) Compensatory Errors
(B) Errors of Principle
(C) Errors of Omission
(D) All the three

93. A large amount spent on special advertisement is—
(A) Capital Expenditure
(B) Revenue Expenditure
(C) Revenue Loss
(D) Deferred Revenue Expenditure

94. Double Entry System was introduced in—
(A) America
(B) Japan
(C) India
(D) Italy

95. According to going concern concept a business entity is assumed to have—
(A) A long life
(B) A small life
(C) A very short life
(D) A definite life

96. The policy of ‘anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses’ is followed due to—
(A) Convention of consistency
(B) Convention of conservation
(C) Convention of disclosure
(D) None of the above

97. Receipts and Payments Account is prepared by—
(A) Companies
(B) Banks
(C) Partnership firms
(D) Non-trading organizations

98. Examination of documents and vouchers is called—
(A) Physical verification
(B) Test checking
(C) Vouching
(D) None of the above

99. Internal Audit is done by—
(A) External Auditors
(B) Employees of the organisation
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

100. Audit Programme is prepared by—
(A) The Auditor
(B) The Company
(C) Internal Auditor
(D) Financial Controller

101. First Auditor of a Company is appointed by the—
(A) Shareholders
(B) Central Government
(C) Company Law Board
(D) Board of Directors

102. Which of the following is not qualified to be a Company Auditor ?
(A) A body corporate
(B) An employee of the company
(C) A person who is indebted to the company for an amount exceeding Rs. 1,000
(D) All of the above

103. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Valuation is a part of verification
(B) Verification is a part of valuation
(C) Valuation has nothing to do with verification
(D) None of the above

104. Test checking refers to—
(A) Testing of accounting records
(B) Testing of honesty of employees
(C) Intensive checking of a select number of transactions
(D) Checking of all transactions recorded

105. Continuous audit is suitable for—
(A) Big institutions
(B) Small institutions
(C) General institutions
(D) None of the above

106. The function of an Auditor is—
(A) To examine arithmetical accuracy of accounts
(B) To detect and prevent errors
(C) To detect and prevent frauds
(D) All of the above

107. Audit is compulsory for—
(A) Sole Trader
(B) Partnership Firms
(C) Joint Stock Companies
(D) All of the above

108. Match List-I with List-II of the following and select the correct answer from answer codes given below—
List-I
(a) At cost price
(b) At market price
(c) Intrinsic value method
(d) Average profit method
List-II
1. Valuation of shares
2. Perishable goods
3. Raw material
4. Valuation of Goodwill
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 4 3 2

109. In the absence of Articles of Association, an Auditor should keep in mind—
(A) Prospectus
(B) Table ‘A’
(C) Memorandum of Association
(D) Legal Declaration

110. Who may recommend Special Audit of a Company ?
(A) Directors of the Company
(B) Shareholders of the Company
(C) Debentureholders of the Company
(D) Central Government

111. Internal check is a part of—
(A) Internal Audit
(B) Internal Control
(C) Annual Audit
(D) Standard Audit

112. Cost Audit Report is to be submitted to—
(A) The Company
(B) The Central Government with a copy to the Company
(C) The Central Government
(D) The Company Secretary

113. A company auditor addresses his report to—
(A) Board of Directors
(B) Members
(C) Managing Director
(D) Company Secretary

114. Which of the following Sections of the Companies’ Act 1956 relates to the maintenance of proper books of accounts ?
(A) Section-211
(B) Section-217
(C) Section-209
(D) Section-205

115. X and Y are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 3. They admit a new partner Z and new profit sharing ratio is 7 : 4 : 3. The sacrificing ratio between X and Y will be—
(A) Equal
(B) 4 : 3
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 2

116. Given :
Realised value of assets Rs. 60,000
Profit on Realisation Rs. 3,000
Book value of assets will be—
(A) Rs. 63,000
(B) Rs. 57,000
(C) Rs. 60,000
(D) Rs. 61,500

117. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. D is admitted for 1/10 share. The new ratio will be—
(A) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2
(B) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2
(C) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1
(D) None of the above

118. If actual average profit is Rs. 30,000 and normal rate of return is 12%, then capitalization value of the profits will be—
(A) Rs. 3,60,000
(B) Rs. 2,50,000
(C) Rs. 3,05,000
(D) None of the above

119. Under which Section of Companies’ Act an auditor has a right to participate and to speak in the General Meeting ?
(A) 231
(B) 229
(C) 226
(D) 224

120. New profit sharing ratio is calculated at the time of—
(A) Admission of a new partner
(B) Retirement of a partner
(C) Death of a partner
(D) All of the above

Answers
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (C)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (A)
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (A) 66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (D) 69. (B) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (B) 75. (D) 76. (C) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (C)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (A) 84. (C) 85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (D)
91. (B) 92. (D) 93. (D) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (B) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (B) 100. (A)
101. (D) 102. (D)103. (A) 104. (C) 105. (A) 106. (D) 107. (C) 108. (A) 109. (B) 110. (D)
111. (B) 112. (B) 113. (B) 114. (C) 115. (D) 116. (C) 117. (C) 118. (B) 119. (A) 120. (D)