Karnataka CET 2011 (KCET) Exam Conducted on 27th April 2011 & 28th April 2011.Download KCET 2011 Question Paper with Solutions & Explanations of Maths,Chemistry,Biology,Physics from below links in .pdf format.
Karnataka KCET 2011 Maths Question Paper with Solutions & Answer Key
Karnataka KCET 2011 Biology Question Paper with Solutions & Answer Key
Karnataka KCET 2011 Physics Question Paper with Solutions & Answer Key
Karnataka KCET 2011 Chemistry Question Paper with Solutions & Answer Key
General Studies
(Held on 30-11-2010)
1. AGMARK Act came into force in India in—
(A) 1937
(B) 1952
(C) 1957
(D) 1965
Ans : (A)
2. Clonal selection can be used in—
(A) Groundnut
(B) Mustard
(C) Wheat
(D) Potato
Ans : (D)
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I(a) F.A.O. Headquarters
(b) Central Agmark Lab
(c) Central Rice Research Institute
(d) Central Potato Research Institute
List-II
1. Shimla
2. Cuttack
3. Rome
4. Nagpur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (B)
4. In which of the following crops, Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer in the country ?
1. Potato
2. Rice
3. Sugarcane
4. Tobacco
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (D)
5. Bhatkhande Sangeet Sansthan, Lucknow became a Deemed University in—
(A) 1998
(B) 2001
(C) 2003
(D) 2004
Ans : (B)
6. Dry Ice is—
(A) Liquid Nitrogen
(B) Water Ice
(C) Solid Carbon dioxide
(D) Frozen Ethanol
Ans : (C)
7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Amir Khusrau —Etah
(B) Mirza Ghalib —Agra
(C) Josh —Malihabad
(D) Ram Prasad Bismil —Allahabad
Ans : (D)
8. The Growth Centre Project was introduced in Uttar Pradesh in—
(A) October 2001
(B) September 2005
(C) December 2005
(D) February 2006
Ans : (C)
9. Rani Laxmi Bai Dam is located on the—
(A) Betwa
(B) Ken
(C) Rihand
(D) Tons
Ans : (A)
10. Kartik is a folk dance of—
(A) Bundelkhand
(B) Avadh
(C) Purvanchal
(D) Rohilkhand
Ans : (A)
11. Which trade zone of Uttar Pradesh tops in the collection of trade tax ?
(A) Ghaziabad
(B) Kanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Noida
Ans : (A)
12. Assertion (A) : Uttar Pradesh shares 9•4% of country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
Reason (R) : Uttar Pradesh shares 66% of the total exports of the country.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)
13. Which one of the following deals with the marketing of milk ?
(A) CACP
(B) GCMMF
(C) NAFED
(D) TRIFED
Ans : (B)
14. In Uttar Pradesh, the famous place of pilgrimage of both Jain and Baudh is at—
(A) Devipatan
(B) Kaushambi
(C) Kushinagar
(D) Sarnath
Ans : (B)
15. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Industrial Establishments)(a) Indian Telephone Industries
(b) Transformer Factory
(c) Artificial Limbs Manufacturing Corporation
(d) Fertilizer Factory
List-II (City)1. Kanpur
2. Rae Bareli
3. Jhansi
4. Phoolpur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (C)
16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List–I (Fair)
(a) Govind Saheb
(b) Kailash Mela
(c) Syed Salar
(d) Shakumbhari Devi
List-II (District)
1. Bahraich
2. Saharanpur
3. Azamgarh
4. Agra
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 1 4 2 3
Ans : (B)
17. Arrange the following districts of Uttar Pradesh in descending order of population (2001) and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Allahabad
2. Gorakhpur
3. Lucknow
4. Mathura
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 3, 1, 4, 2
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) 4, 1, 2, 3
Ans : (C)
18. Who among the following did not contribute to the cultural activities of Lucknow ?
(A) Binda Deen
(B) Ustad Dulhe Khan
(C) Menhdi
(D) Ilias Khan
Ans : (C)
19. Under the international agreement on agriculture the Green Box includes economic assistance for—
1. Agricultural Research
2. Fertilizer
3. Irrigation
4. Plant Protection
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (D)
20. Assertion (A) : Aluminium is the green metal.
Reason (R) : It provides replacement of wood for saving forest.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Ans : (D)
21. A ‘Letter of Credit’ is produced by—
(A) An exporter
(B) An importer
(C) Both by exporter and importer
(D) Shipping company
Ans : (C)
22. The theory of trusteeship of the business assest was pronounced by—
(A) Henry Fayol
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Karl Marx
Ans : (B)
23. Treasury bills are sold in India by—
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Governments
(C) Commercial Banks
(D) SEBI
Ans : (A)
24. In U.P. Value Added Tax (VAT) was levied with effect from—
(A) 1st April, 2007
(B) 1st January, 2008
(C) 1st January, 2009
(D) 1st April, 2008
Ans : (B)
25. Which of the following organisations is involved in providing the insurance against various risks to the exporters ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Trading Corporation of India
(C) EXIM Bank
(D) Export Credit and Guarantee Corporation
Ans : (D)
26. ‘Principle of Indemnity’ does not apply to—
(A) Life Insurance
(B) Marine Insurance
(C) Fire Insurance
(D) All the above
Ans : (A)
27. “Everything else can wait, but not agriculture.”
The above statement is attributed to—
(A) Jagjivan Ram
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (B)
28. Consider the following statements—
1. The third rail coach factory is being established at Amethi in U.P.
2. Firozabad in U.P. is famous for pottery industry.
3. U.P. DESCO is a Corporation under the Electronics Department.
4. The first polyester fibre factory in U.P. has been set up at Barabanki.
Of these statements—
(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(C) Only 3 and 4 are correct
(D) None of the above is correct
Ans : (D)
29. Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest industrial growth rate during—
(A) 5th Five Year Plan
(B) 6th Five Year Plan
(C) 10th Five Year Plan
(D) 11th Five Year Plan
Ans : (B)
30. ‘Inside trading’ is related to—
(A) Public Expenditure
(B) Taxation
(C) Share Market
(D) Hawala
Ans : (C)
31. In Uttar Pradesh, the festival ‘Sulah Kul’ a symbol of Hindu-Muslim unity is organised in—
(A) Meerut
(B) Aligarh
(C) Lucknow
(D) Agra
Ans : (D)
32. The Operation Green Project was launched in U.P. in—
(A) 1952
(B) 1995
(C) 2001
(D) 2005
Ans : (C)
33. The North-South and East-West corridors meet at—
(A) Jhansi
(B) Kanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (A)
34. Which one of the following is not correctly matched in the context of U.P. ?
(A) Food Research and Analysis Centre —Lucknow
(B) Food Park —Noida
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Agricultural University —Meerut
(D) Indian Pulses Research Institute —Agra
Ans : (D)
35. The famous painting Satyam Shivam Sundaram was prepared by—
(A) Sd. Shobha Singh
(B) Nandkishore Sharma
(C) Shivnandan Nautiyal
(D) Vishwanath Mehta
Ans : (A)
36. The Centre for CAD—‘Computer Aided Designing’ Project in Uttar Pradesh is located at—
(A) Agra
(B) Allahabad
(C) Kanpur
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)
37. Consider the following statements—
1. India’s first EPZ was set up in 1965.
2. Special Economic Zone (SEZ) policy in India was formulated in 2000.
3. Vadodara is famous for Patola Silk.
4. Panna in Madhya Pradesh is famous gold mines.
Of these statements—
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(B) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 3 and 4 are correct
(D) All are correct
Ans : (A)
38. The urban population of the world out-excelled its rural population in—
(A) 2001
(B) 2004
(C) 2009
(D) 2010
Ans : (D)
39. Navdatoli is situated in the State of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (D)
40. Which of the following classical works of literature were written during the Gupta Era ?
1. Amarkosh
2. Kamsutra
3. Meghduta
4. Mudrarakshas
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
41. In ancient India the irrigation tax was called—
(A) Bidakabhagam
(B) Hiranya
(C) Udranga
(D) Uparnika
Ans : (C)
42. The famous rock-out temples of Elephanta are ascribed to the—
(A) Chalukyas
(B) Cholas
(C) Pallavas
(D) Rashtrakutas
Ans : (D)
43. Who represented the Indian National Congress in the Partition Council headed by Lord Mountbatten ?
1. Abul Kalam Azad
2. Jawahar Lal Nehru
3. Sardar Patel
4. Rajendra Prasad
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (B)
44. Which Sultan of Delhi is said to have followed the policy of ‘blood and iron’ ?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Balban
(C) Jalaluddin Firoz Khalji
(D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Ans : (B)
45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Tarikh-i-Hind
(b) Tarikh-i-Dilli
(c) Rehla
(d) Tabqat-i-Nasiri
List-II
1. Ibn Batuta
2. Minhaj
3. Alberuni
4. Khusrau
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (C)
46. Which medieval ruler introduced the system of ‘patta’ and ‘qabuliyat’ to help the peasants ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Giyasuddin Tughlaq
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Sher Shah
Ans : (D)
47. Saint Ramdas is associated with the period of rule of—
(A) Akbar
(B) Jehangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (A)
48. Which is the correct chronological order of the following ?
I. Cripps Mission
II. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
III. Simon Commission
IV. Partition of the country
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) II, I, IV, III
(C) II, I, III, IV
(D) III, II, I, IV
Ans : (D)
49. Ash mound is associated with the Neolithic site at—
(A) Budihal
(B) Sangan Kallu
(C) Koldihwa
(D) Brahmgiri
Ans : (A)
50. Who had the longest tenure as the Viceroy of India ?
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Dufferin
(C) Lord Hardinge
(D) Lord Mayo
Ans : (A)
51. The famous book ‘The Alphabet’ was written by—
(A) Buhler
(B) David Diringer
(C) G. S. Ojha
(D) Sir William Johns
Ans : (B)
52. Which of the following inscriptions tells about the Aryan’s movement from Iran to India ?
(A) Man Sehra
(B) Shahbajgarhi
(C) Boghajkoi
(D) Junagarh
Ans : (C)
53. Satya Shodhak Movement was launched by—
(A) Chhatrapati Sahuji Maharaj
(B) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Jyotirao Phule
(D) T. N. Nair
Ans : (C)
54. Under whose Governor-Generalship was the Vernacular Act repealed ?
(A) Lord Ripon
(B) Lord Lytton
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Dufferin
Ans : (A)
55. Which of the following sources gives a detailed account of city administration of the Mauryas ?
(A) Kautilya’s Arthashastra
(B) Megasthanese’s Indica
(C) Mudrarakshasa of Vishakha Datta
(D) Inscription of Ashoka
Ans : (B)
56. Which one of the following is not true about the Mughal Mansabdari System ?
(A) There were 33 divisions
(B) They got conditional or Mashrut rank
(C) Their ‘Sawar’ rank could exceed the ‘Zat’ rank
(D) All civil and military officers were given mansabs
Ans : (D)
57. With which Army General (Commander) did Shivaji sign the ‘Treaty of Purandhara’ (1665 AD) ?
(A) Jai Singh
(B) Jaswant Singh
(C) Shaiyasta Khan
(D) Afzal Khan
Ans : (A)
58. “The British Government is not responsible for the partition of India.” The above statement is attributed to—
(A) Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Lord Attlee
(C) Lord Mountbatten
(D) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans : (B)
59. Who among the following emperors may be called ‘an enlightened despot’ ?
(A) Babur
(B) Humayun
(C) Akbar
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans : (D)
60. Which of the following Kings is credited to have issued gold coins for the first time ?
(A) Kujula Kadphisa
(B) Wim Kadphisa
(C) Kanishka I
(D) Huviska
Ans : (B)
61. Who among the following has been called as a ‘Heaven Born General’ ?
(A) Albuquerque
(B) Robert Clive
(C) Francis Dupleix
(D) Lord Cornwallis
Ans : (B)
62. Tipu Sultan defeated the British army in 1780 at—
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Pollilur
(C) Srirangapatnam
(D) Nizamabad
Ans : (B)
63. During which one of the following battles, did Babur declare ‘Jehad’ ?
(A) Battle of Panipat
(B) Battle of Khanwa
(C) Battle of Chanderi
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)
64. Mahatma Gandhi launched the first Satyagraha campaign in—
(A) Bardoli
(B) Baroda
(C) Champaran
(D) Dandi
Ans : (C)
65. Yugantar Party was led by—
(A) Jatindranath Mukherjee
(B) Sachindranath Sanyal
(C) Rashbehari Bose
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans : (A)
66. The Mughal style of painting was initiated by—
(A) Akbar
(B) Humayun
(C) Jehangir
(D) Shah Jahan
Ans : (B)
67. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Unhappy India —Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Durgesh Nandini —Bankim Chandra Chatterji
(C) India Wins Freedom —Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Poverty and Un British rule in India —Dadabhai Naoroji
Ans : (A)
68. Read the following events connected with the Indian National Movement—
1. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress – 1931
2. Execution of Rajguru
3. Gandhi Irwin Pact
Find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 3, 2, 1
(B) 1, 2, 3
(C) 2, 3, 1
(D) 1, 3, 2
Ans : (A)
69. The statement, “We shall either free India or die in the attempt.” is associated with—
(A) Non-cooperation Movement
(B) Civil Disobedience Movement
(C) Individual Satyagraha
(D) Quit India Movement
Ans : (D)
70. Queen Victoria’s Proclamation was read out by Lord Canning on 1st November, 1858 at—
(A) Allahabad
(B) Calcutta
(C) Bombay
(D) Madras
Ans : (A)
71. The book ‘Mountbatten and the Partition of India’ was written by—
(A) Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre
(B) M. N. Das
(C) Louis Fischer
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
72. Which Sultan of Delhi brought Ashoka’s Pillar to Delhi ?
(A) Firozshah Tughlaq
(B) Jalaluddin Khilji
(C) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(D) Qutub-ud-din Aibak
Ans : (A)
73. Name the tribe which does not belong to the Panchajana of Rig Vedic Aryans ?
(A) Yadu
(B) Puru
(C) Turvasa
(D) Kikat
Ans : (D)
74. The first society founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy was—
(A) Brahma Samaj
(B) Atmiya Sabha
(C) Brahma Sabha
(D) Tatvabodhini Sabha
Ans : (B)
75. The Sarnath Buddha image of Bhumisparshmudra belongs to—
(A) Mauryan period
(B) Sunga period
(C) Kushana period
(D) Gupta period
Ans : (C)
76. Who among the following medieval scholars/writers belonged to the Jain religion ?
(A) Maladhar Vasu
(B) Hemchandra Suri
(C) Parthasarthi
(D) Saayan
Ans : (B)
77. In which of the Vedas, Sabha and Samiti are called as two daughters of Prajapati ?
(A) Rigveda
(B) Samveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
Ans : (D)
78. The Poorna Swaraj Resolution adopted at the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress was moved by—
(A) B. G. Tilak
(B) J. L. Nehru
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (B)
79. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Babur —Tuzuk-i-Babari
(B) Humayun —Humayun Namah
(C) Sher Shah —Tarikh-i-Sher Shahi
(D) Akbar —Tabkat-i-Akbari
Ans : (A)
80. Which country has the largest percentage of its total area under forests ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Surinam
(D) Guyana
Ans : (C)
81. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Great Himalayan National Park —Manali
(B) Rajaji National Park —Dehradun
(C) Keoladeo National Park —Bharatpur
(D) Van Vihar National Park —Jabalpur
Ans : (C)
82. The most polluted city of India is—
(A) Ankleshwar
(B) Lucknow
(C) Ludhiana
(D) Raipur
Ans : (A)
83. The garden of five seasons is located near—
(A) Dal Lake
(B) Mehrauli
(C) Silent Valley
(D) Ooty
Ans : (B)
84. Which one of the following does not find a place in UNESCO network of biosphere reserve ?
(A) Sunderban
(B) Gulf of Mannar
(C) Rann of Kutch
(D) Nilgiri
Ans : (C)
85. The growth rate of population in U.P. out-excelled the national growth rate during—
(A) 1941–51
(B) 1951–61
(C) 1961–71
(D) 1971–81
Ans : (D)
86. Which one of the following points does not figure in the 10-year Action Plan formulated under the National Population Policy ?
(A) Greater involvement of members of self help groups
(B) Free and compulsory elementary education
(C) Compulsory registration of marriages and pregnancy
(D) Special reward for men who adopt terminal family planning methods
Ans : (A)
87. Arrange the following States of India in descending order of their population density (2001).
Use the codes given below to select the correct answer—
1. Bihar
2. Kerala
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. West Bengal
Codes :(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 4, 1, 3, 2
(C) 4, 1, 2, 3
(D) 2, 4, 1, 3
Ans : (C)
88. Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest growth rate of urban population during—
(A) 1961–71
(B) 1971–81
(C) 1981–91
(D) 1991–2001
Ans : (D)
89. The population of Uttar Pradesh out-excels that of—
1. Brazil
2. Indonesia
3. Japan
4. Russia
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
90. Arrange the following States of India in descending order of their slum population. Use the codes given below to select the correct answer—
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. West Bengal
Codes :(A) 2, 1, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 3, 2, 1, 4
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Ans : (A)
91. In India, the largest percentage of decadal growth of urbanization has been witnessed during—
(A) 1961–71
(B) 1971–81
(C) 1981–91
(D) 1991–2001
Ans : (B)
92. Urban corridors are concerned with—
(A) Expanding urban functions
(B) Urban transport hazards
(C) Rural-urban fringe
(D) Counter-urbanisation
Ans : (A)
93. The two leading producers of coffee in the world are—
(A) Brazil and Columbia
(B) Brazil and Vietnam
(C) Mexico and India
(D) Ethiopia and Mexico
Ans : (B)
94. Three leading producers of coal in descending order are—
(A) Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Orissa
(B) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Orissa
(C) Orissa, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand
(D) Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (B)
95. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists— List-I
(a) Windhoek
(b) Accra
(c) Nairobi
(d) Lusaka
List-II1. Kenya
2. Namibia
3. Ghana
4. Zambia
Codes
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (B)
96. Africa’s highest mountain peak Mt. Kilimanjaro lies—
(A) Kenya
(B) Malawi
(C) Tanzania
(D) Zambia
Ans : (C)
97. The Horn of Africa does not include—
(A) Ethiopia
(B) Eritrea
(C) Somalia
(D) Sudan
Ans : (D)
98. The Death Valley of the U.S.A. lies in the State of—
(A) Alaska
(B) California
(C) Maine
(D) Atlanta
Ans : (B)
99. The largest reserves of uranium are found in—
(A) Australia
(B) Canada
(C) Kazakhstan
(D) South Africa
Ans : (B)
100. The Inuit people are not found in—
(A) Alaska
(B) Greenland
(C) Canada
(D) Sweden
Ans : (D)
101. Hagari is a tributary of—
(A) Bhima
(B) Godavari
(C) Krishna
(D) Tungbhadra
Ans : (D)
102. The leading producer of tin in India is—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Orissa
Ans : (C)
103. The production of wheat in India during 2006-07 and 2009-10 has—
(A) Maintained an upward trend
(B) Experienced a shortfall
(C) Experienced fluctuations
(D) Remained stagnant
Ans : (A)
104. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Amguri – Petroleum
(B) Lanjgarh – Bauxite
(C) Kamptee – Copper
(D) Bellary – Iron ore
Ans : (C)
105. The leading producer of Titanium in the world is—
(A) India
(B) Japan
(C) Russia
(D) U.S.A.
Ans : (C)
106. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
Power Projects – States
(A) Jawahar Sagar – Rajasthan
(B) Nagarjun Sagar – Andhra Pradesh
(C) Sivasamudram – Kerala
(D) Gandhi Sagar – Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (C)
107. Assertion (A) : There is a shortage of pulses but not of protein in India.
Reason (R) : The demand for pulses remains a priority.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (B)
108. Which one of the following is the longest inland waterways of the country ?
(A) Kakinada – Marakkam
(B) Kollam – Kottapuram
(C) Sadia – Dhubri
(D) Allahabad – Haldia
Ans : (D)
109. Arrange the following States of India in descending order of their rice production and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Punjab
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. West Bengal
Codes :
(A) 2, 1, 4, 3
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 4, 1, 3, 2
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans : (C)
110. Andhra Pradesh was created as a linguistic State in—
(A) 1950
(B) 1953
(C) 1956
(D) 1961
Ans : (B)
111. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Amlai —Chhattisgarh
(B) Ballarpur —Maharashtra
(C) Brajrajnagar —Orissa
(D) Rajahmundry —Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (A)
112. The two largest consumers of chemical fertilizers in India are—
(A) Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra
(B) Punjab and Haryana
(C) Punjab and Uttar Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (B)
113. United Nations Organization has designated 2010 as ‘International Year for the Youth’. From which date does the international year for the youth begin ?
(A) January 1, 2010
(B) August 1, 2010
(C) August 12, 2010
(D) January 12, 2010
Ans : (C)
114. To safeguard against cyber attacks and threats of data theft the ‘Centre for Development of Advanced Computing’ has developed a new software called—
(A) AVARODH
(B) NAYAN
(C) TRIKAL
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
115. The Oscar Award 2010 for the best film was given to—
(A) Crazy Heart
(B) The Blind Side
(C) The Cove
(D) The Hurt Locker
Ans : (D)
116. Which one of NTPC plants is not gas-based ?
(A) Auraiya
(B) Aonla
(C) Dadri
(D) Tanda
Ans : (D)
117. According to a survey conducted by the ‘National Council for Applied Economic Research’ (data released recently), which State in India has the highest percentage of population below the poverty line ?
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Bihar
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (C)
118. India concluded its ‘Civil Nuclear Cooperation Agreement’ with U.K. in—
(A) February 2010
(B) January 2010
(C) March 2010
(D) April 2010
Ans : (A)
119. Who has been chosen to head the Coalition Government in U.K. as a result of Parliamentary elections of May 6, 2010 ?
(A) Nick Clegg
(B) Tony Blair
(C) David Cameron
(D) Margaret Thatcher
Ans : (C)
120. The countries between which the ‘Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty’ (START) was signed in April, 2010 are—
(A) U.S.A. and Russia
(B) Russia and China
(C) U.S.A. and China
(D) U.S.A. and North Korea
Ans : (A)
121. The air crash which occurred in April 2010 and resulted in the death of the President of Poland, took place in—
(A) Poland
(B) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) Italy
Ans : (B)
122. Russia has agreed recently to construct how many units of nuclear reactors at Kundankulam in Tamil Nadu ?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Ans : (A)
123. The President of which Central Asian country fled from his country in April 2010 and submitted his resignation ?
(A) Kazakhstan
(B) Kyrgyzstan
(C) Turkmenistan
(D) Uzbekistan
Ans : (B)
124. The official code name of the Pokhran nuclear test–1974, was—
(A) Smiling Buddha
(B) Thunder Bolt
(C) Flying Garud
(D) Agni Pareeksha
Ans : (A)
125. Garima II is the name of a—
(A) Cloned buffalo
(B) Cloned cow
(C) Cloned sheep
(D) BT tomato
Ans : (A)
126. Who, of the following, has been appointed as Chairman of Mumbai Stock Exchange in March 2010 ?
(A) Prof. Rakesh Mohan
(B) Prof. Bhagwati
(C) S. Rama Dorai
(D) Prof. Manoranjan Mishra
Ans : (C)
127. The International Youth Festival held in August 2010, was in—
(A) Mexico city
(B) Moscow
(C) Beijing
(D) Tokyo
Ans : (B)
128. Which one of the following statements about Brahmos is not correct ?
(A) It is supersonic cruise missile
(B) It has been built in India in collaboration with Russia
(C) It was successfully test-fired in Bay of Bengal on 22 March, 2010
(D) Its flight range is 400 km.
Ans : (D)
129. Who is not a recipient of International Gandhi Peace Prize ?
(A) Dasmond Tutu
(B) Nelson Mandela
(C) Aung Suu Kyi
(D) Shabana Azmi
Ans : (D)
130. The Fourth Ministerial Meet of the WTO was held at—
(A) Singapore
(B) Geneva
(C) Seattle
(D) Doha
Ans : (D)
131. Who among the following is not included in the list of artists in whose memory, the Indian Post and Telegraph Department has declared on February 24, 2010 to issue postal stamps ?
(A) Kanan Devi
(B) Meena Kumari
(C) Nutan
(D) Madhubala
Ans : (C)
132. What percentage of central tax revenue has been recommended for allocation to the States by the Thirteenth Finance Commission ?
(A) 30•5%
(B) 31•0%
(C) 32•0%
(D) 32•5%
Ans : (C)
133. As per Budget Estimates 2010-11, presented to Parliament on 26-2-10, arrange the following sectors in descending order as per their Central Plan outlay.
1. Rural Development
2. Energy
3. Transport
4. Social Services
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 4, 3, 1
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans : (D)
134. The new W.P.I. series was introduced on—
(A) 1 April, 2010
(B) 1 July, 2010
(C) 15 August, 2010
(D) 14 September, 2010
Ans : (D)
135. The man who won 3 Grand Slams during 2010 is—
(A) Andre Agassi
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Roger Federer
(D) Roy Emerson
Ans : (B)
136. The brand name of 16 digit unique identification number to be assigned to each individual in the country will be—
(A) Pehchan
(B) Maadhyam
(C) Aadhar
(D) Aabhar
Ans : (C)
137. Physicists at the National Institute of Standards and Technology (USA) have built an atomic clock; now recognised as the world’s most precise clock. It is based on—
(A) Mercury atom
(B) Titanium atom
(C) Platinum atom
(D) Aluminium atom
Ans : (D)
138. The book, ‘The Proudest Day’ was authored by—
(A) Alok Bhalla
(B) Durga Das
(C) Chandra Kumar and Mohinder Puri
(D) Anthony Read and David Fisher
Ans : (D)
139. Who, out of the following, has been included in the ‘Hall of Fame’ by I.C.C. in March 2010 ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Sunil Gavaskar
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Anil Kumble
Ans : (C)
140. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Deepak Chopra —Physician
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri —Actress
(C) Sunita Williams—Astronaut
(D) Zubin Mehta —Western Music
Ans : (B)
141. Jnanpith Award for 2008 was given to—
(A) Ali Sardar Jafri
(B) Akhlaq Khan Shaharyar
(C) Qurratul Hyder
(D) Raghupati Sahai Firaq
Ans : (B)
142. The 2010 Nobel Prize in Literature was won by—
(A) Herta Muller
(B) Andre Gein
(C) Vargas Lioss
(D) K. Novoselvo
Ans : (C)
143. The first Indian who won the Wrestling World Championship–2010 is—
(A) Anil Kumar
(B) Rajendra Kumar
(C) Ravinder Singh
(D) Sushil Kumar
Ans : (D)
144. Who of the following won the Boxing World Championship 5 time in a row ?
(A) Ravi Bala Charu
(B) Ravi Katulu
(C) M. C. Marykom
(D) Amandeep Singh
Ans : (C)
145. Assertion (A) : Organic farming reduces the emission of greenhouse gases.
Reason (R) : It releases in the absorption of CO2 in the soil.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)
146. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I(a) Priya Pravas
(b) Gaban
(c) Eternal India
(d) Shahnama
List-II
1. Indira Gandhi
2. Ayodhya Prasad
3. Prem Chand
4. Firdausi
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (B)
147. Breeding work on sugarcane is being done at—
(A) Lucknow
(B) Shahjahanpur
(C) Shravasti
(D) Coimbatore
Ans : (D)
148. Tungo Virus of rice is transmitted by—
(A) Stem borer
(B) Gundhi bug
(C) Gall midge
(D) Green leaf hopper
Ans : (D)
149. Pulse crop which does not fix atmospheric nitrogen is—
(A) Gram
(B) Pea
(C) Rajma
(D) Moong
Ans : (C)
150. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Wheat – Phalaris minor
(B) Potato – Late blight
(C) Bajra – Ergot
(D) Sugarcane – Powdery mildew
Ans : (D)
General Studies
(Exam Held on 26-12-2010)
1. The legend of Udayana and Vasavdatta is related to—
(A) Ujjain
(B) Mathura
(C) Mahishmati
(D) Kaushambi
Ans : (D)
2. Which of the following laid the foundation of image worship in the country ?
(A) Jainism
(B) Buddhism
(C) Ajivikas
(D) Vedic religion
Ans : (D)
3. Which one of the following is not associated with the Court of Kanishka ?
(A) Ashvaghosha
(B) Charaka
(C) Nagarjuna
(D) Patanjali
Ans : (D)
4. A horned deity engraved on a terracotta cake has been recovered from—
(A) Banawali
(B) Kalibangan
(C) Lothal
(D) Surkotda
Ans : (C)
5. Kalsi is famous for—
(A) Buddhist Chaityas
(B) Persian Coins
(C) Rock-edicts of Ashoka
(D) Temples of Gupta period
Ans : (C)
6. Which dynasty of rulers is associated with the construction of famous Kailasha Temple of Ellora ?
(A) Chalukyas
(B) Cholas
(C) Pallavas
(D) Rashtrakutas
Ans : (D)
7. Who of the following was associated with the collection of revenue in Mauryan Mantriparishad ?
(A) Samaharta
(B) Vyabharika
(C) Annapala
(D) Pradeshta
Ans : (A)
8. Which river was the heartland of Pandya’s Kingdom ?
(A) Godavari
(B) Krishna
(C) Tungbhadra
(D) Vengi
Ans : (D)
9. Who wrote Dashkumaracharita ?
(A) Bharavi
(B) Bilhana
(C) Dandin
(D) Somadeva
Ans : (C)
10. The Sultans of which dynasty ruled the country for the longest period ?
(A) Khalji dynasty
(B) Lodi dynasty
(C) Slave dynasty
(D) Tughlaq dynasty
Ans : (D)
11. Who of the following among the Nine Gems of Chandragupta was associated with Astrology ?
(A) Vararuchi
(B) Sanku
(C) Khapanaka
(D) Amarsingh
Ans : (B)
12. Which of the following places was the capital of Satvahanas ?
(A) Pratisthan
(B) Nagarjuna Konda
(C) Shakal or Syalkot
(D) Patliputra
Ans : (A)
13. Which of the following factories of Bengal was established by the Dutch ?
(A) Bandel
(B) Chinsura
(C) Hooghly
(D) Srirampur
Ans : (B)
14. A bomb was thrown on the occasion of his State entry into Delhi at—
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Mayo
(C) Lord Minto
(D) Lord Hardinge
Ans : (D)
15. Aurobindo Ghosh wrote—
(A) Extremist movement
(B) Moderate movement
(C) Kesari
(D) The Divine Life
Ans : (D)
16. Sarnath Stambh was built by—
(A) Harshvardhan
(B) Ashok
(C) Gautam Buddha
(D) Kanishka
Ans : (B)
17. Navda-toli was excavated by—
(A) K. D. Bajpai
(B) V. S. Wakankar
(C) H. D. Sankalia
(D) Mortimer Wheeler
Ans : (C)
18. The division of Mauryan Society into seven classes is particularly mentioned in—
(A) Kautilya’s Arthasashtra
(B) Ashokan edicts
(C) The Puranas
(D) Megasthenes’ Indica
Ans : (D)
19. Which Urdu newspaper was started by Lajpat Rai from Lahore in 1920 ?
(A) Bande Mataram
(B) People
(C) Tribune
(D) Vir Arjun
Ans : (A)
20. Who called the Indian National Congress as a ‘Begging Institute’ ?
(A) B. C. Pal
(B) Tilak
(C) Aurobindo Ghosh
(D) None of them
Ans : (C)
21. Power of Magadha was extended over the Malwa region during the reign period of—
(A) Bimbisar
(B) Ajatshatru
(C) Udayabhadra
(D) Sisunaga
Ans : (D)
22. Who had established ‘India Independence League’ ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Ras Behari Ghosh
(C) Surendranath Bannerjee
(D) Ras Behari Bose
Ans : (D)
23. Nana Saheb’s Commander-in-Chief was—
(A) Azimullah
(B) Birjis Qadir
(C) Tantia Tope
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
24. Which of the following pairs do not match ? Find your answer with the help of given code—
1. British India Society— London
2. East India Association— Kolkata
3. National India Association— London
4. Indian Association— Mumbai
Codes :(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : (D)
25. Which of the following Indian leaders did not support the Khilafat movement ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Madan Mohan Malviya
(C) Mohammad Ali
(D) Swami Shraddhanand
Ans : (B)
26. Match List-I with List-II—
List-I
(a) India League
(b) Indian Association
(c) Bhartiya Rashtriya Udar Sangh
(d) United India Patriotic Association
List-II
1. Shishirkumar Ghosh
2. Anand Mohan Bose
3. Saiyyed Ahmad Khan
4. Surendra Nath Bannerjee
Find your answer with the help of given codes—
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (D)
27. One Governor-General took part in one of the Congress Sessions. Identify the Governor General and place where the Session was held.
(A) Lord Irwin → Karachi – 1931
(B) Lord Wellington → Bombay – 1915
(C) Lord Dufferin → Bombay – 1885
(D) Lord Hardinge → Lucknow – 1916
Ans : (C)
28. Who amongst the following were responsible for the formation of the Independence for India League in 1928 ?
1. Jawahar Lal Nehru
2. Subhash Chandra Bose
3. Acharya Narendra Dev
4. Jaya Prakash Narayan
Choose your answer from given codes—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (C)
29. Who was the Convenor of All India Congress Socialist Party at Patna in 1934 ?
(A) Acharya Narendra Dev
(B) Achyuta Patvardhan
(C) Jaya Prakash Narayan
(D) Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia
Ans : (C)
30. Saddler Commission was associated with—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Revenue Administration
(C) Education
(D) Police Administration
Ans : (C)
31. Damodar is a tributary of river—
(A) Hooghly
(B) Ganga
(C) Padma
(D) Swaranrekha
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following would you generally associate with Tornadoes ?
(A) Gulf of Mexico
(B) China Sea
(C) Indian Ocean
(D) U. S. A.
Ans : (D)
33. The benefits of which one of the following river valley projects are shared by more than one State ?
(A) Chambal Valley Project
(B) Hirakud Project
(C) Mayurakshi Project
(D) Sharavati Project
Ans : (D)
34. Which of the following Latitudes (North or South) would you associate with ‘Horse Latitudes’ ?
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 23½°
Ans : (A)
35. Which of the following is an example of Residual Mountains ?
(A) Himalayas
(B) Kilimanjaro
(C) Etna
(D) Aravalli
Ans : (D)
36. Which one of the following would you associate with metamorphic rocks ?
(A) Copper
(B) Garnet
(C) Manganese
(D) Pyrite
Ans : (B)
37. Which one of the following currents is not a cold current ?
(A) California current
(B) Japanese current
(C) Labrador current
(D) Falkland current
Ans : (B)
38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Brajraj Nagar
(b) Kaimoor
(c) Haldia
(d) Phoolpur
List-II
1. Cement
2. Fertilizer
3. Petrochemical
4. Paper
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (C)
39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Mineral Oil
(b) Gypsum
(c) Gold
(d) Bauxite
List-II1. Orissa
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Rajasthan
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (D)
40. The correct sequence in descending order of leading producers of petroleum, in the Middle East is—
(A) Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia
(B) Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait
(C) Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Iraq, Iran
(D) Saudi Arabia, Iran, Kuwait, Iraq
Ans : (D)
41. Which amongst the following States/UTs in India has the largest percentage of its geographical area under forest cover ?
(A) Tripura
(B) Andaman and Nicobar
(C) Nagaland
(D) Mizoram
Ans : (D)
42. Given below are four States; find out which amongst them had least sex ratio as per 2001 Census—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Manipur
Ans : (A)
43. Which one of the following is not a correct statement ?
(A) Cocoa cultivation is popular in Ghana
(B) Coffee is an important plantation crop of Brazil
(C) Sri Lanka is famous for the production of tea
(D) Sugarcane is the major plantation crop of Malaysia
Ans : (D)
44. More than half of the country’s production of rice comes from the four States of—
(A) West Bengal, Punjab, Tamil Nadu and Orissa
(B) West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Andhra Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh and Assam
(D) Punjab, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar and Orissa
Ans : (B)
45. Cardamom hills lie along the border of the States of—
(A) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(B) Karnataka and Kerala
(C) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(D) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (C)
46. Sangam Yojna is associated with—
(A) Provision of clean drinking water
(B) Provision for cleaning of rivers
(C) Promoting communal harmony
(D) Helping the invalids
Ans : (D)
47. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyaan covers—
(A) All children in age group 3–10
(B) All children in age group 4–8
(C) All children in age group 5–15
(D) All children in age group 6–14
Ans : (D)
48. Identify the country with which India has decided to strengthen security ties (July 2010) and with which joint army exercises were held in June 2010, joint naval exercises held thereafter and joint airforce exercises were held in October 2010—
(A) USA
(B) Indonesia
(C) UK
(D) Australia
Ans : (C)
49. India’s largest shipbreaking yard is located in Gujarat at—
(A) Alang
(B) Kandla
(C) Okha
(D) Porbandar
Ans : (A)
50. Bramha Kamal is naturally found in—
(A) Kaziranga forests
(B) Nilgiri forests
(C) Silent valley
(D) Valley of flowers
Ans : (D)
51. With which of the following would you associate village Tembhli which was in the news in September 2010 ?
(A) Mass suicides of farmers
(B) Project JUGNU
(C) Project Aadhaar
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
52. ‘The Nuclear Power Corporation of India is now in a position to sell “Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors” (PHWRs) to other countries.’ The reactors in question would be of capacity—
(A) 200 MWe or 500 MWe
(B) 240 MWe or 540 MWe
(C) 220 MWe or 500 MWe
(D) 440 MWe or 700 MWe
Ans : (B)
53. Plachimada which has been in news for immense damage to its environment, lies in—
(A) Karnataka
(B) Konkan
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)
54. By the development of Krishnapatnam Port, which of the following States would be most benefitted ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)
55. As per new subsidised Central Loan Scheme finalised by HRD Ministry what limit has been fixed for parental annual income to be entitled to full interest subsidy during the period of moratorium ?
(A) Less than Rs. 5 lacs
(B) Less than Rs. 4 lacs
(C) Less than Rs. 4•5 lacs
(D) Less than Rs. 5•5 lacs
Ans : (C)
56. Recently according to a news item, mineral reserves worth $ 1 trillion have been found in Afghanistan. Identify the most important mineral which has been compared to oil-find in Iran.
(A) Gold
(B) Lithium
(C) Cobalt
(D) Iron
Ans : (B)
57. Tejaswini Sawant won gold medal of world championships with world record equaling score at Munich. Which sport did she take part ?
(A) Boxing
(B) Chess
(C) Shooting
(D) Weight lifting
Ans : (C)
58. How many members are there in the Collective Security Treaty Organisation, a defence bloc of former Soviet States ?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Ans : (D)
59. As per Family Welfare Statistics for 2009 released recently by the Union Health Ministry, life expectancy at birth in India for 2006-2010 is—
(A) Males 75•2 and Females 78•6
(B) Males 72•4 and Females 76•3
(C) Males 69•8 and Females 72•3
(D) Males 65•8 and Females 68•1
Ans : (D)
60. A 999 km oil pipeline has been completed recently (Aug-Sept. 2010) between Russia and China. It will start from Angarsk in Russia and will go to which place in China ?
(A) Beijing
(B) Shanghai
(C) Chengchow
(D) Daqing
Ans : (D)
61. A Canadian student has developed a human-powered aircraft that can fly continuously by flopping its wings. It has been named as—
(A) Eagle
(B) Snowbird
(C) Air bird
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
62. Aircraft maker Boeing of USA have manufactured a special spy plane which is solar powered and will be able to fly non-stop for more than 5 years. It has been named—
(A) Solar Aircraft
(B) Solar Bird
(C) Solar Kite
(D) Solar Eagle
Ans : (D)
63. With Jaipur’s ‘Jantar Mantar’ being granted World Heritage site status by UNESCO, how many sites in India till August 2010 have been granted this status ?
(A) 29
(B) 28
(C) 27
(D) 26
Ans : (B)
64. What is the name of the US solar powered unmanned aerial vehicle which remained airborne continuously for two weeks in July 2010, breaking several aviation records ?
(A) Zircon
(B) Sapphire
(C) Emery
(D) Zephyr
Ans : (D)
65. Rohan Bopanna of India defeated Ricardo Mello in the final singles in Davis Cup in September 2010. Ricardo Mello belongs to which country ?
(A) Spain
(B) France
(C) Brazil
(D) Argentina
Ans : (C)
66. Sushil Kumar became the first Indian to win a Gold Medal in a World Wrestling Championship in September 2010. His opponent belonged to which country in the finals ?
(A) China
(B) Poland
(C) Mexico
(D) Russia
Ans : (D)
67. According to a report released in July 2010, in which country world’s biggest solar power station has been opened ?
(A) France
(B) USA
(C) Germany
(D) Spain
Ans : (D)
68. The first fully literate district, outside the State of Kerala, is—
(A) Chingelpattu, Tamil Nadu
(B) Merkata, Karnataka
(C) Nasik, Maharashtra
(D) Vardhaman, West Bengal
Ans : (D)
69. Mary Kom of India won her fifth successive world title at 2010 Women’s World Boxing Championship by defeating Steluta Duta who belonged to which country ?
(A) Italy
(B) Poland
(C) Romania
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)
70. In the context of space technology what is ‘BHUVAN’ recently in the news ?
(A) The name of the space vehicle proposed to be sent to the moon to probe possible human habitation there
(B) A satellite launched by ISRO promoting distant education India
(C) A space telescope developed by India
(D) A geo-portal of ISRO with 3D imaging capabilities
Ans : (D)
71. Muscle fatigue in humans occurs due to the accumulation of—
(A) Lactic acid
(B) Pyruvic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Uric acid
Ans : (A)
72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists— List-I
(a) Cusec
(b) Byte
(c) Richter
(d) Bar
List-II
1. Pressure
2. Intensity of Earthquake
3. Rate of Flow
4. Computer
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (B)
73. Which one of the following is used as the coolant in the ‘Fast Breeder Test Reactor’ at Kalpakkam ?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Heavy water
(C) Sea water
(D) Molten sodium
Ans : (D)
74. Artificial light can—
(A) Destroy chlorophyll
(B) Synthesise chlorophyll
(C) Bring about photosynthesis
(D) Not bring about photosynthesis
Ans : (C)
75. An iron ball is heated. The percentage increase will be largest in its—
(A) Diameter
(B) Surface area
(C) Volume
(D) Density
Ans : (C)
76. If a magnet is cut into two pieces of equal length—
(A) Both pieces will lose their magnetism
(B) One piece will act as a North pole and the other as a South pole
(C) One of the pieces will lose its magnetism
(D) Both the pieces will behave as complete magnets
Ans : (D)
77. Which of the following alloys has maximum percentage of copper ?
(A) Brass
(B) Bronze
(C) German Silver
(D) Gun metal
Ans : (D)
78. Sound travels fastest in—
(A) Air
(B) Liquid
(C) Metal
(D) Vacuum
Ans : (C)
79. The bones are held together by elastic tissues are called—
(A) Ligaments
(B) Fibrous tissues
(C) Fibrin
(D) Muscular tissues
Ans : (A)
80. Of the two bulbs in a house, one glows brighter than the other. In this context which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The bright bulb has larger resistance
(B) The dim bulb has larger resistance
(C) Both the bulbs have same resistance
(D) The brightness does not depend on the resistance
Ans : (B)
81. As per World Development Report 2008 of the World Bank, arrange the following countries according to the size of their economy in descending order and state which one of the following is the correct order ?
(A) China > USA > UK > India
(B) UK > China > USA > India
(C) China > UK > USA > India
(D) USA > China > UK > India
Ans : (A)
82. Consider the following statements about Sugar Industry—
1. In world, India’s share in sugar production is over 15 per cent.
2. Sugar industry is the second largest agro-based industry in India.
3. India is the largest consumer of sugar.
4. India is the largest producer of sugar.
Of these statements—
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 3 and 4 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 1 and 4 are correct
Ans : (C)
83. Poverty in India has been defined in terms of—
(A) Standard of living of the people
(B) Income of the family
(C) Calorie intake
(D) Number of members in a family
Ans : (C)
84. All of the following diseases are caused by virus except—
(A) Jaundice
(B) Influenza
(C) Mumps
(D) Typhoid
Ans : (D)
85. Aam Admi Bima Yojna provides social security to—
(A) All labourers in rural areas
(B) All landless labourers living below the poverty line in rural areas
(C) All labourers in urban areas
(D) All labourers in both rural and urban areas
Ans : (B)
86. According to a policy decision taken by Central Government, the Centre will bear what percentage of expenditure effectively under the “Right of children to Free Education” ?
(A) 64%
(B) 65%
(C) 67%
(D) 68%
Ans : (B)
87. ‘National Social Assistant programme’ is aimed at—
(A) Insurance for poor
(B) Old age pension to very poor
(C) Financial support to Scheduled Castes and Tribes
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
88. According to International Energy Agency, which country has emergend as the world’s largest energy consumer in 2009?
(A) Brazil
(B) USA
(C) China with Hong Kong
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)
89. Which one of the following is not correct about the ‘National Rural Health Mission’ ?
(A) The programme was launched during the Eleventh Plan
(B) Focus of the programme is a functional health system at all levels from village to district
(C) Drinking water and sanitation are main components of the programme
(D) Departments of Health and Family Welfare in the States have been merged with the programme
Ans : (A)
90. The objectives of ‘Jawahar Rojgar Yojna’ is to—
(A) Provide employment to youth in rural areas
(B) Create employment opportunities for unemployed persons
(C) Strengthen the rural economic and social structure
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
91. If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended ?
(A) Fifth Schedule
(B) Third Schedule
(C) Second Schedule
(D) First Schedule
Ans : (D)
92. What was the exact Constitutional Status of the Indian Republic on 26.1.1950 when the Constitution came in force ?
(A) A Democratic Republic
(B) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(C) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(D) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Ans : (B)
93. Vote on account in the Parliament is necessary—
(A) When Government expenditure is more than Government revenue
(B) For financing big projects in which huge amount of money is required
(C) When regular budget is not expected to be passed in time
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)
94. In any State of India, Legislative Council can be created or can be abolished by—
(A) The President on the recommendation of the Governor of the State
(B) The Parliament
(C) The Parliament as per Resolution passed by the Legislative Assembly of the State
(D) The Governor on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers
Ans : (C)
95. Centre-State financial relations in India are governed on the recommendation of the—
(A) Constitution of India
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) National Development Council
Ans : (C)
96. ‘Marriage’, ‘Divorce’ and ‘Adoption’ are an entry in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution under the following—
(A) List I – Union List
(B) List II – State List
(C) List III – Concurrent List
(D) None of these three lists
Ans : (C)
97. Who was the founder of ‘Bahujan Samaj’ ?
(A) Shri Narayana Guru
(B) Mukundrao Patil
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(D) V. R. Shinde
Ans : (D)
98. Which one of the following constitutes the Quorum of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha ?
(A) 1/10 of the total members
(B) 1/8 of the total members
(C) 1/6 of the total members
(D) 1/5 of the total members
Ans : (A)
99. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State policy ?
The State shall seek to secure—
(A) Equal pay for equal work for men and women
(B) Equal right to an adequate means of livelihood
(C) Abolition of untouchability
(D) Just and human conditions of work
Ans : (C)
100. Protection of which one of the following is a Fundamental Duty of an Indian citizen ?
(A) Village Panchayat
(B) National Flag
(C) Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes
(D) Wild Life
Ans : (B)
1. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of
(A) paper (B) rubber (C) ceramic (D) Mylar
2. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the
(A) infrared region (B) ultraviolet region (C) visible region (D) x-ray region
3. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively
(A) high and high (B) low and high (C) high and low (D) low and low.
4. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used suppress
(A) odd harmonics (B) even harmonics (C) fundamental component (D) dc component
5. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on
(A) mutual inductance between two coils only (B) self inductances of the two coils only
(C) mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils (D) none
6. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is
(A) Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
(B) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
(C) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
(D) The poynting vector points everywhere radially in to the volume between the plates.
7. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to
(A) Polarization (B) Conductivity (C) Structural homogeneties (D) Ionization
8. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silion
(A) Boron (B) Indium (C) Germanium (D) Antimony
9. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess
(A) high thermal conductivity and high melting point (B) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point (C) High thermal conductivity and low melting point (D) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point.
10. An SCR can only be turned off via it’s
(A) cathode (B) anode (C) gates (D) none
11. Gold is often diffused into silicon PN junction devices to
(A) increase the recombination rate (B) reduce the recombination rate
(C) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor (D) make silicon semi-metal
12 With n nodes and b branches a network will have
(A) (b+n) links (B) b – n +1 links (C) b -n-1 links (D) b + n + 1 links
13. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 45
14. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is
(A) always positive (B) always negative
(C) sometime positive, sometime negative (D) numerically less then its kinetic energy.
15. A delition MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no
(A) channel (B) gate (C) P-N junctions (D) substrate
ALLAHABAD CLERICAL EXAM 2010
Wait list was prepared, 65 candidates joined from the wait list till 19/11/2010
Candidates 3 times the number of vacancies were called for interview
| State | SC | ST | OBC | GENERAL | EXSM | PC |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| ANDHRA | 165 | 146 | 173 | 172 | 167 | 139 |
| ARUNACHAL | 93 | 91 | ||||
| ASSAM | 131 | 121 | 131 | 135 | 107 | 122 |
| BIHAR | 144 | 166 | 167 | 135 | 154 | |
| CHATTISGARH | 146 | 113 | 158 | 135 | 100 | |
| CHANDIGARH (U.T) | 153 | 152 | 162 | |||
| GUJRAT | 144 | 116 | 144 | 144 | 146 | |
| GOA | 81 | |||||
| HARYANA | 153 | 158 | 169 | 156 | ||
| H.P | 140 | 150 | 162 | |||
| J&K | 106 | 152 | 153 | |||
| JHARKHAND | 150 | 145 | 171 | 171 | 136 | 111 |
| KARNATAKA | 123 | 115 | 138 | 139 | 151 | |
| KERELA | 165 | 171 | ||||
| M.P | 148 | 125 | 163 | 169 | 129 | 85 |
| MAHARASHTRA | 153 | 125 | 145 | 153 | 148 | 133 |
| MANIPUR | 146 | |||||
| MEGHALAYA | 99 | |||||
| NAGALAND | 108 | 106 | ||||
| NEW DELHI | 164 | 166 | 177 | 167 | ||
| ORISSA | 152 | 138 | 169 | 169 | 161 | 114 |
| PONDICHERRY (U.T) | 153 | |||||
| PUNJAB | 146 | 145 | 167 | 147 | ||
| UTTAR PRADESH | 151 | 138 | 166 | 170 | 148 | 194 |
| RAJASTHAN | 156 | 150 | 166 | 172 | 141 | 129 |
| TAMIL NADU | 157 | 163 | 164 | 163 | 111 | |
| TRIPURA | 88 | 129 | ||||
| UTTRAKHAND | 144 | 159 | 169 | 139 | 121 | |
| WEST BENGAL | 149 | 142 | 159 | 170 | 161 | 80 |
| SUBJECT | GEN | SC | ST | OBC | EXSM |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| WRITTEN TEST: | |||||
| OBJECTIVE PAPER: | |||||
| TEST OF REASONING | 13 | 10 | 10 | 10 | 10 |
| NUMERICAL APTITUDE | 13 | 10 | 10 | 10 | 10 |
| ENGLISH | 13 | 08 | 08 | 08 | 08 |
| CLERICAL APTITUDE | 05 | 04 | 04 | 04 | 04 |
| COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE | 10 | 08 | 08 | 08 | 08 |
| TOTAL | |||||
| INTERVIEW | 12 | 10 | 10 | 10 | 10 |
| TOTAL | |||||
| DESCRIPTIVE PAPER (QUALIFYING ONLY) | 30 | 25 | 25 | 25 | 25 |
| State | SC | ST | OBC | GEN | EXSM | PC |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| ANDHRA | 192 | 180 | 199 | 203 | 196 | 165 |
| ARUNACHAL | 123 | 175 | ||||
| ASSAM | 167 | 166 | 169 | 180 | 139 | 140 |
| BIHAR | 174 | 193 | 195 | 171 | 175 | |
| CHATTISGARH | 171 | 149 | 193 | 173 | 169 | |
| CHANDIGARH (U.T) | 177 | 184 | 196 | |||
| GUJRAT | 181 | 141 | 169 | 182 | 188 | |
| GOA | 102 | |||||
| HARYANA | 179 | 187 | 196 | 193 | ||
| H.P | 179 | 179 | 191 | |||
| J&K | 148 | 175 | 183 | |||
| JHARKHAND | 175 | 171 | 197 | 200 | 171 | |
| KARNATAKA | 148 | 143 | 154 | 168 | 182 | |
| KERELA | 196 | 197 | ||||
| M.P | 180 | 150 | 191 | 197 | 166 | 106 |
| MAHARASHTRA | 177 | 161 | 172 | 184 | 170 | 184 |
| MANIPUR | 175 | |||||
| MEGHALAYA | 124 | |||||
| NAGALAND | 164 | 148 | ||||
| NEW DELHI | 192 | 198 | 207 | 196 | ||
| ORISSA | 180 | 168 | 193 | 196 | 187 | 158 |
| PONDICHERRY (U.T) | 203 | |||||
| PUNJAB | 176 | 183 | 193 | 174 | ||
| UTTAR PRADESH | 181 | 169 | 193 | 200 | 179 | 116 |
| RAJASTHAN | 185 | 178 | 200 | 204 | 173 | |
| TAMIL NADU | 185 | 188 | 194 | 187 | 127 | |
| TRIPURA | 108 | 171 | ||||
| UTTRAKHAND | 186 | 172 | 199 | 162 | 175 | |
| WEST BENGAL | 175 | 172 | 180 | 202 | 192 | 115 |
HADOTI KSHETRIYA GRAMIN BANK P.O MARKS ARE AS UNDER
ONLY 19 OFFICERS VACANCY ARE THERE FOR GEN
EXAM HELD ON 19/DEC/2010
Sectional Cut Offs are as follows:
For GENERAL Category
Reasoning 20
Quantitative Aptitude 20
General Awareness 20
English 20
Overall Cut MARKS for GENERAL IS: 65
THEY SELECT 56 CANDIDATE FOR INTERVIEW (GEN)
CANARA Bank PO exam 2010 cut off marks details
FOR WRITTEN EXAM QUALIFY-
HIGHEST MARK OBTAINED BY ANY STUDENT IN EACH PART-
INTERVIEW 100 Marks divided into following sections :
Total candidates called for interview : 5406( 5.4 times the no of seats)
Total no of Candidates who appeared for Interview : 4093
NO Cut off marks stipulated for interview.
FINAL CUT OFF : ( 50 % of the Test Total Marks+ 50 % of the Interview marks)
OBJECTIVE TESTS
Sr. No. Name of the Test No. of Questions
1. Reasoning 75
2. Quantitative Aptitude 50
3. General Socio-Economic
& Banking Awareness 50
4. English Language 50
5. Marketing Aptitude 50
Total Marks 275
Money received by bank as fees and Postal charges: RS 85235585
Interview was conducted out of 100 and Written test out of 275. While compiling the final MERIT LIST interview weightage is out of 30 and written test weightage is out of 70.
Interview Marks(total) 100(Weightage 30%)
General Category Cut off(Interview) 40 MARKS
The number of candidates appeared for interview is 4485
Cut off Marks in General Category in Interview.
| “Interview Marks out of 30″ |
|---|
| 12 (Twelve) |
Cut off Marks in OBC Category in Interview.
| “Interview Marks out of 30″ |
|---|
| 12 (Twelve) |
Cut off Marks in SC Category in Interview.
| “Interview Marks out of 30″ |
|---|
| 10.5 (ten point five) |
Cut off Marks in ST Category in Interview.
| “Interview Marks out of 30″ |
|---|
| 10.5 (ten point five) |
Cut Off Marks in General Category in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 19 | 12 | 09 | 10 | 11 | 149 |
Cut Off Marks in SC Category in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 12 | 07 | 05 | 06 | 08 | 118 |
Cut Off Marks in ST Category in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 12 | 07 | 05 | 06 | 08 | 102 |
Cut Off Marks in OBC Category in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 19 | 12 | 09 | 10 | 11 | 139 |
Cut Off Marks in General-OH in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 19 | 12 | 09 | 10 | 11 | 149 |
Cut Off Marks in General-VH in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 19 | 12 | 09 | 10 | 11 | 149 |
Cut Off Marks in General-HI in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 19 | 12 | 09 | 10 | 11 | 149 |
Cut Off Marks in OBC-OH in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 19 | 12 | 09 | 10 | 11 | 139 |
Cut Off Marks in OBC-VH in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 19 | 12 | 09 | 10 | 11 | 139 |
Cut Off Marks in OBC-HI in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 19 | 12 | 09 | 10 | 11 | 139 |
Cut Off Marks in SC-OH in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 12 | 07 | 05 | 06 | 08 | 139 |
Cut Off Marks in SC-VH in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 12 | 07 | 05 | 06 | 08 | 118 |
Cut Off Marks in SC-HI in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 12 | 07 | 05 | 06 | 08 | 118 |
Cut Off Marks in ST-OH in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 12 | 07 | 05 | 06 | 08 | 102 |
Cut Off Marks in ST-VH in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 12 | 07 | 05 | 06 | 08 | 102 |
Cut Off Marks in ST-HI in Written Test.
| Reasoning Ability | Quantative aptitude | General Aptitude | English | Marketing | Total |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 12 | 07 | 05 | 06 | 08 | 102 |
Cut off Marks in General Category in Total(Written+Interview).
| “Total Marks out of 100″ |
|---|
| 59.62 |
Cut off Marks in OBC Category in Total(Written+Interview).
| “Total Marks out of 100″ |
|---|
| 53.96 |
Cut off Marks in SC Category in Total(Written+Interview).
| “Total Marks out of 100″ |
|---|
| 52.74 |
Cut off Marks in ST Category in Total(Written+Interview).
| “Total Marks out of 100″ |
|---|
| 47.39 |
Cut off Marks in PWD Category in Total(Written+Interview).
| “Total Marks out of 100″ |
|---|
| 47.79 |
The number of Candidate in Wait list is 2189.
The highest marks obtained by any candidate in interview is 25.50 out of 30 .
The highest marks(written+interview) by any candidate is 78.04 out of 100.
The bank has paid rs. 3,46,01,578.00 till date(02/11/2010) to IBPS for PO project 2010.
The candidate who become eligible from wait list due to non-joining of candidate from first list will be intimated by post.
RTI applications received from 19/07/2010 to 30/10/2010 for seeking marks for PO & Clerk Recruitment Projects : 1100
The interviewers do not know the written mark of candidates.
ADDRESS FOR SENDING THE APPLICATION :
Sh. R K BANSAL
Baroda Corporate Centre,
Bandra Kurla Complex,
Mumbai – 400051
