COMMON WRITTEN EXAMINATION [CWE] FOR RECRUITMENT IN CLERICAL CADRE IN 19 PUBLIC SECTOR BANKS

A Common Written Examination (CWE) will be conducted by the Institute of  Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) as a pre-requisite for selection of personnel for  Clerical cadre posts in the Public Sector Banks mentioned below. 

This system of Common Examination for recruitment of Clerks has been approved by  each of the 19 participating Public Sector Banks and the Managing Committee of the  Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) with the consent of the Government of India.
 
IBPS, an autonomous body, has been authorised by IBA and has received a mandate  from the 19 Public Sector Banks listed below to conduct the Common Written  Examination. The CWE for Clerical Cadre posts will  be conducted twice a year by IBPS.

PARTICIPATING BANKS

Allahabad Bank
Indian Overseas Bank
Andhra Bank
Oriental Bank of Commerce
Bank of Baroda
Punjab National Bank
Bank of India
Punjab & Sind Bank
Bank of Maharashtra
Syndicate Bank
Canara Bank
UCO Bank 
Central Bank of India
Union Bank of India
Corporation Bank
United Bank of India
Dena Bank
Vijaya Bank
Indian Bank

Any individual who aspires to join any of the above Public Sector Banks as a Clerk or in  a post in that cadre, will necessarily be required to take the CWE. Prospective candidates  who wish to appear for the CWE will have to apply to IBPS and should carefully read  the advertisement regarding eligibility criteria, online registration process, pattern of  examination, issuance of call letters and score cards. 

Candidates who appear for the CWE will be able to check their status after the  examination. Scorecards will be issued to candidates who secure minimum qualifying  marks and above in each test of the examination.

It should, however, be noted that successful candidates in the CWE who have been  issued scorecards and who meet the stipulated eligibility criteria are then required to  apply to any of the participating banks they wish to as and when individual banks call  for applications, quoting their personal details and their CWE scores. Each bank will  then individually shortlist candidates and carry out their own selection processes such as Interviews etc. for final selection.

Each participating Public Sector Bank will independently issue a separate recruitment  notification, specifying their vacancies and stipulating the eligibility criteria in terms of  age, educational qualification, proficiency in Official Language of the State/UT for  which vacancies he wishes to apply, experience (if  any), minimum required level of  IBPS score in each test and on Total Score (if any) etc.

Since clerical cadre recruitment would be on State-wise basis, candidates can apply  for vacancies in one State/ UT only. It will therefore be necessary that candidates appear  for examination in one of the centres of a particular State/UT where they would like to  apply for emaployment i.e. they have to appear for  the examination from a centre for  that particular State/UT as mentioned in Annexure I. The candidate may also be required  to possess proficiency in the Official Language of  the State/UT for which vacancies he
wishes to apply to be eligible as per the notifications of the Participating Banks.

EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS (as on 01.08.2011)
A pass with 60% marks in the aggregate in Matriculation/SSC (old pattern)/SSLC/10th std. Examination of 10+2+3 pattern or equivalent.   For SC/ST/OBC/PWD/EXSM candidates a pass in the aggregate in Matriculation/SSC (old  pattern)/SSLC/10th std. Examination of 10+2+3 pattern or equivalent
OR
A pass with 50% marks in HSC examination of 10+2 (10+2+3 pattern) /11th Std. of
(11+1+3) pattern or Intermediate/Pre-University or any equivalent examination/Diploma  in Banking recognized by Central/State Government or U.T. administration.  For SC/ST/OBC/PWD/EXSM candidates a pass in HSC examination of 10+2 (10+2+3  pattern) /11th Std. of (11+1+3) pattern or Intermediate/Pre-University or any equivalent  examination/Diploma in Banking recognized by Central/State Government or U.T. administration
OR
Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification  recognized as such by the Central Government. 

 Age (As on 01.08.2011):  
Minimum: 18 Years   Maximum: 28 Years
The maximum age limit specified is applicable to General Category candidates.

This advertisement is also available on IBPS’s website address www.ibps.in  Candidates are advised to remain in touch with IBPS’s website for any information  which may be put for further guidance.
Decision of the IBPS in respect of all matters pertaining to this examination would be  final and binding on all candidates.

Start date for Online Registration 25.08.2011 
Payment of Application Fees/ Intimation Charges 24.08.2011 to 23.09.2011  (both dates inclusive)
Last date for Online Registration 24.09.2011
Last date for Editing Application Details 26.09.2011
Download of Call letter for Written Examination After 11.11.2011
Written Examination 27.11.2011


Website:www.ibps.in

IBPS PO/MT Common Written Examination

GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Which period is called the 'banking swadeshi' period when many Indians established many banks?
1)1870-1940
2)1910-1947
3)1906-1911
4)1947-1991
5)1942-1947

2. The banks established in Swadeshi period are ............?
1) Bank of India
2) Corporation bank
3) Indian Bank
4) Bank of Baroda
5) All of the above

3. In which part of India, many banks are established, which is called the 'Cradle of Indian Banking System'?
1) Northern Assam
2) Southern Tamilnadu
3) Eastern Rajasthan
4) Southern Karnataka
5) Western Maharastra

4. The most banks in India failed between ............ Not less than 100 banks failed due to various reasons?
1) 1923-1928
2) 1953-1958
3) 1923-1948
4) 1903-1928
5) 1913-1918

5. Which party issued a paper by name 'Stray thoughts on Bank Nationalization' signaling the nationalization of banks in India?
1) Communist Party of India
2) Janatha Party
3) Congress Party
4) Republican Party
5) National Conference

6. Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertaking) Bill passed in ...............paving way to the nationalization of banks in India?
1) 1974
2) 1969
3) 1975
4) 1981
5) 1961

7. Who said the nationalization of banks is the 'masterstroke of political sagacity'?
1) Indira Gandhi
2) Raj Narayan
3) Jayaprakash Narayan
4) Jawahar Lal Nehru
5) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

8. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
1) 18
2) 6
3) 14
4) 20
5) 5

9. Which bank was not nationalized in 1969?
1) Allahabad Bank
2) Bank of Baroda
3) State Bank of India
4) Bank of India
5) Bank of Maharastra

10. How many banks were nationalized as a  second dose in 1980?
1) 4
2) 9
3) 6
4) 18
5) 12

11. Bad debts mean ............?
1) amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid
2) amounts owed to a company that are not going to be paid
3) amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid within 2 years
4) amounts owed to a company that are not going to be paid within 8 years
5) None

12. GST council (Goods and Services Taxes Council) in the Constitution 115th Amendment Bill headed by ............ to make recommendations the taxes to be levied, goods to be exempted, GST rate etc?
1) Prime Minister
2) Finance Minister
3) Commerce Minister
4) Revenue Minister
5) Finance Secretary

13. The current limit of External borrowings is $ 20 billion. This Current limit is now raised to $ ............ billion?
1) 21
2) 40
3) 70
4) 60
5) 30

14. ............is not the provision of the National Land Acquisition and Rehabilitation & Resettlement Bill?
1) In the given area, least 80% of the population must agree to acquisition of land by the government.
2) Land owners to be compensated with twice the registered or stamp value of the land in urban areas and six times in rural areas.
3) Single law has the provisions of Acquisition of land and rehabilitation
4) The government can appoint middle man to have talks with the local population to decrease the compensation
5) Compensation reflects the market rates

15. Food Security Bill proposed by National Advisory Council (NAC) proposes 90% ration in Rural Areas and ............% ration in Urban Areas. (National Advisory Council headed by Sonia Gandhi)
1) 50
2) 70
3) 100
4) 90
5) 25

16. The Union government decisions are given. Pick the correct one?
1) National Legal Aid and Reforms commiscommission coming soon
2) Supreme Court ordered the return of 156 hectares of land to farmers in Uttar Pradesh, allocated to construct posh buildings.
3) The postal department issues postal stamps on President of India's house Rastrapathi Bhavan
4) Five PIO ( Person of India Origin) universities will be set up in the future.
5) All of above

17. Project 'Surakhya' an Infant and Young Child Feeding (IYCF) introduced by ............?
1) Odisha
2) Chattisgarh
3) Arunachal Pradesh
4) Madhya Pradesh
5) Goa

18. 'Nanhe Haath Kalam Ke Saath' ( tiny hands with pen) phase II announced against the social evil of Child Labour by ............?
1) Karnataka
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Rajasthan
5) Goa

19. SAARC Interior Ministers conference was recently held in ............?
1) Sri Lanka
2) India
3) Afganistan
4) Bhutan
5) Nepal

20. Mahatma Gandhi led .............listed in the top ten of the most influential protests in the world as mentioned by 'Time magazine'?
1) Non-cooperation Movement
2) Swadeshi Movement
3) Salt Satyagraha
4) Quit India Movement
5) Champaran Satyagraha

21. A person who expects share prices in general to decline and who is likely to indulge in SHORT SALES is called ............?
1) Bear
2) Bull
3) Dog
4) Duck
5) Lame Duck

22. ............ was re elected as the UN Secretary General?
1) Irina Bocova
2) Robert Zollick
3) Ban Ki-moon
4) Hillay Clinton
5) Christine Legarde

23. Meghdoot awards conferred by ............?
1) Air India
2) Department of Water Resources
3) Postal Department
4) Department of Communications
5) Supreme Court

24. 'Areva' a French company belongs to following sector?
1) Nuclear
2) Toy
3) Auto makers
4) Mobiles
5) Book

25. In the list of nationalized banks, which bank was merged with Punjab National Bank in 1993?
1) Bank of India
2) Bank of Baroda
3) Andhra Bank
4) New Bank of India
5) Central Bank of India

26. ............was the prime minister of India during the nationalization of banks in 1969 and in 1980?
1) Jawahar Lal Nehru
2) Lal Bahadur Sastri
3) Indira Gandhi
4) Morarji Desaii
5) P.V.Narasimha Rao

27. Who among the following is not the present Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India?
1) K.C.Chakravarthy
2) Subhir Gokarn
3) Y.Malegam
4) Anand Sinha
5) H. R.khan

28. On 3 August 2011, ........... panel submitted its report to Reserve Bank of India on 'customer service in banks'
1) Rangarajan
2) Malegam
3) Subba Rao
4) H.R.Khan
5) Damodaran

29. ............firmly tell many rules and regulations relating to Non-Performing Assets?
1) Banking Regulation Act 1949
2) Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999
3) SEBI Act 1992
4) Indian Contract Act 1872
5) Negotiable instrument act 1881

30. On 30 June 2011 ............liberalized FDI norms by allowing the Indian companies to pay in the form of Equity in to the foreign suppliers instead of payment in the form of foreign exchange?
1) SEBI
2) Ministry of Finance
3) Ministry of Commerce
4) FDA
5) RBI

31. ............tied up with Met Life to enter in to insurance business recently?
1) Andhra Bank
2) Union Bank of India
3) Corporation bank
4) Allahabad Bank
5) Punjab National Bank

32. ............started, the saga of Liberlization of banks as a prime minister?
1) Indira Gandhi
2) Nehru
3) Lal Bahadur Sastri
4) P.V.Narasimha Rao
5) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

33. Which committee suggested the banking reforms?
1) Kalia
2) Deepak Mohanty
3) Narasimham
4) Syamala Gopinath
5) Goparia

34. The decade 1990-2000 is the era of Techsavvy private banks. Which are established during this period?
1) Global Trust Bank
2) UTI bank
3) ICICI
4) HDFC
5) All of above

35. Global Trust Bank was merged with ........?
1) HDFC
2) Oriental Bank of Commerce
3) State Bank of India
4) Syndicate Bank
5) IDBI

36. ............was merged with HDFC bank?
1) Bank of Rajasthan
2) Global Trust Bank
3) Centurion Bank
4) Bank of Bombay
5) Imperial Bank of India

37. ............has offered to India a loan of Rs.6,800 crore for building 24,000 km of all weather roads in the rural seven economically poor and hilly areas States
1) IMF
2) IFC
3) World Bank
4) IDA
5) ADB

38. India's first indigenous payment gateway is ............?
1) India Expenditure
2) India Payment
3) India Challan
4) India Pay
5) India Rupee

39. ............opened a Lockless branch at Shani Shingnapur (Maharastra) respecting the local customs?
1) State Bank of India
2) Bank of Maharastra
3) Union Bank of India 4) ICICI
5) UCO bank

40. ............and Life Insurance Corporation of India( LIC) tie up to launch Credit-Card services to the customers and employees of LIC?
1) Axis Bank
2) ICICI
3) State Bank of India
4) HDFC
5) Kotak Mahendra Bank

41. Tehri Hydro Development Corporation got $ 648 million from ............?
1) IMF
2) IDA
3) ADB
4) AFD
5) IBRD

42. On 10 August 2011, in which state National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) proposed to give huge loans in the endosulfan-hit areas?
1) Odisha
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) West Bengal
5) Kerala

43. The best alternative banking service to branch banking to be the part of Financial Inclusion?
1) Establishment of small branches
2) Setup ATMs
3) Issuing of ATM cards
4) Giving Credit Cards
5) Mobile banking

44. Giving focused attention to integrated development of infrastructure in selected cities is the main theme of ............scheme?
1) PURA
2) JNNURM
3) MGNREGA
4) IAY
5) RAY

45. ...........became first state to sign an agreement on Emission Reduction Purchase with the World Bank to curb the carbon emissions?
1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Himachal Pradesh
3) Haryana
4) Goa
5) Maharashtra

46. MENA (Middle East and North Africa) region is the familiar for ............ industry?
1) Toy
2) Leather
3) Petroleum
4) Cotton
5) Fruits

47. The Award list given. Pick the correct one?
1) 12th IIFA (International Indian Film Academy) top awards announced in Toranto
2) Life Achievement Award got by Asha Bhonsle
3) Best film award got by Dabangg
4) Best Actor Award got by Shahrukh Khan
5) All of above

48. Guido Mantega used the word 'Currency War' referring ............?
1) India
2) China
3) New Zeland
4) Russia
5) USA

ANSWERS
1)3 2)5 3)4 4)5 5)3 6)2 7)3 8)3 9)3 10)3
11)2 12)2 13)5 14)4 15)1 16)5 17)1 18)4
19)4 20)3 21)1 22)3 23)3 24)1 25)4 26)3
27)3 28)5 29)1 30)5 31)5 32)4 33)3 34)5
35)2 36)3 37)3 38)4 39)5 40)1 41)5 42)5
43)5 44)2 45)2 46)3 47)5 48)2.

SBI Associate Bank PO Exam 2011 Solved Paper

 

GENERAL AWARENESS

 

(EXAM HELD ON:  07-08-2011)

1. The International World Wide Web Conference 2011 was held at
a) Italy
b) Manila
c) Geneva
d) Newyork
e) Hyderabad

2.Which of the following countries is NOT associated with the proposed TAPI gas pipeline?
a) India
b) Pakistan
c) Portugal
d) Afghanistan
e) Turkmenistan

3. Bhagyam oilfields are located in which of following states?
a) Rajasthan
b) Gujarat
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Maharashtra
e) Karanatka

4. The Central Government has approved Rs 7000 crore Project to clean which of the following rivers?
a) Narmada
b) Ganga
c) Mahanadi
d) Kaveri
e) Godavari

5. Recently a controversy rages over new land acquisition policy in which of following states?
a) Maharashtra
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Gujarat
d) Madhya Pradesh
e) West Begal

6.BP Plc, a well known company is engaged in which one of the following as its major operations?
a) Nuclear Power Generation
b) Oil and Gas Exploration
c) Wind power generation
d) Steel production
e) Coal production

7. As per statement given by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee in medias, the main cause of
increased inflation rate is the recent hike in prices of ______.
a) daily commodities
b) petroleum products--ans
c) infrastructure materials
d) imported goods
e) None of the above

8. The System Software is used to
a) diagonose and troubleshooting the attached device
b) create graphics images
c) draw the picture on paper
d) manage the available internal resources
e) None of these

9. One billionth of a second is
a) gigabyte
b) nanosecond
c) terabyte
d) megabyte
e) None of these

10. A technology used to create, store, exchange and utilize information in its various forms including business data, conversations, still images, motion pictures and multimedia presentations is called
a) website
b) information technology
c) internet chat
d) networking
e) None of these

11. A program which is used find spam data in the computer and capable to distroy is called
a) firewall
b) anti-spam program
c) adware remover
d) pop-up blocker
e) None of these

12. A chip placed on the electronic circuit board inside a system unit that hold temporarliy piece of information/data is called (containing the data being displayed on output device)
a) modem
b) scanner
c) memory
d) hard disk
e) None of these

13. A graphic or piece of text that links to another piece of information in a web page is
a) meta-tag
b) page connection
c) domain name
d) hyperlink
e) None of these

14. Which of the following computer programming languages is used to write applet programs which
can be integrate into a webpage?
a) Which of the following computer programming languages is used to write applet programs which
can be integrate into a webpage?
a) Java
b) PERL
c) C++
d) Pascal
e) FORTRAN
b) PERL
c) C++
d) Pascal
e) FORTRAN

15. Embedded operating systems are used in
a) desktop computers
b) mainframe computers
c) PDAs
d) network server computer
e) None of these

16. . A Web or part of a Web site, or part of an online service that provides a venue for communities of
users with a common interest to communicate in real time is called
a) user forum
b) blog
c) discussion forum
d) chat-group
e) None of these

17. The main electronic circuit board in the system unit is called
a) Circuit plate
b) Chassis
c) Motherboard
d) Processor
e) None of these

18. The System Unit consists of
a) all electronic components of the computer used to process data
b) all hardware and software
c) application programs
d) Mouse and keyboard
e) None of these

19. A portable computer called Laptop, having a weight about 1.4 to 4.5 kg is also known as
a) Desktop PC
b) Mainframe Computer
c) Personal Computer
d) Micro Computer
e) Notebook computer

20. if Reserve Bank of India hikes interest rates by 25 basis points in its monetary policy, then a commercial bank would like to increase it’s interest rates on loans by 25 basis points of
a) Prime Lending Rate
b) Repo rate
c) Base rate
d) Saving account interest rate
e) None of these

21. Which one of the following pairs of countries is associated with nuclear arms control treaty START?
a) US-China
b) China-Iran
c) US-Russia

d) US – Japan
e) None of these

22. The International World Wide Web Conference 2011 was held at …..
a) Italy
b) Manila
c) Geneva
d) Newyork
e) Hyderabad

23. Which of the following schemes is NOT launched by Ministry of Rural Development?
a) National Family Benefit Scheme
b) National Old Age Pension Scheme
c) Nationall Maternity Benefit Scheme
d) Mid Day Meal scheme
e) All the above are launched by Ministry of Rural Development

24. Who among the followings has been appointed as coach of Indian cricket team for next two years?
a) Gary Kirsten
b) John Buchanan
c) Andy Flower
d) Duncan Fletcher
e) None of the above

25. What does the letter ‘L’ stands for in the term LAF commonly used in financial/economic news?
a) Liquidity

b) Least
c) Liabilities
d) Longitudinal
e) Linear

26. FINO, a term used by media in financial newspapers and tv news channels is stands for
a) Financial Information Network & Operations
b) Financial Inclusion News & Operations
c) Financial Inclusion Network & Operations
d) Fast Information Network & Operations
e) None of the above

27. Why Kanishtha Dhankar recently was in news?
a) She is new Femina Miss India World 2011
b) She is new coach of Women’s Hockey team
c) She has won gold medal in Asian Games 2010
d) She has won Miss World 2011 crown
e) None of these

28. Goodluck Jonathan has been re-elected as President of _________.
a) Sudan
b) South Korea
c) Lebanon
d) Nigeria
e) Ghana

29. The Planning Commission has set GDP growth target for 12th Plan (2012-17) at _______.
a) 7.5 – 8.0 per cent
b) 8.0 – 8.5 per cent
c) 9 – 9.5 per cent
d) 9.5 – 10.0 per cent
e) None of the above

30. The International Convention for the Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearance, has been adopted by which of the following international agencies/organisation?
a) World Health Organisation (WHO)
b) International Maritime Organization
c) International Labour Organization
d) United Nations (UN)
e) International Atomic Energy Agency

31. The amount of liquid assets, such as cash, precious metals or other short-term securities, that a
financial institution or bank must maintain in its reserves is called
a) CRR
b) Bank Deposits
c) Fixed Assets
d) SLR
e) None of these

32. Before launching the new indices to measure food inflation, earlier it is measured on the basis of
a) Wholesale Price Index
b) Consumer Price Index
c) Nifty Index
c) BSE & NSE index
e) None of these

33. Which of the following space agencies has recently placed three satellites Resourcesat,
Youthsat, and X-SAT successfully in the Earth orbit?
a) NASA
b) ROSCOSMOS
c) CNSA
d) ISRO
e) None of these

34. K Balachander who recently won Dada Saheb Phalke Award for the year 2010 is a famous
a) Cinematographer
b) Director
c) Musician
d) Dancer
e) Writer

35. Which of the following countries has joined the BRIC group of nations to change it’s name as
BRICS?
a) Sudan
b) Singapore
b) South Korea
d) Srilanka
e) South Africa

MPPSC Forest Ranger and Assistant Conservator Exam - 2008

1. Green colour of leaves is due to the presence of—
(A) Iron
(B) Chlorophyll
(C) Etiolin
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. Purity of Milk is measured by—
(A) Hydrometer
(B) Manometer
(C) Lactometer
(D) Thermometer
Ans : (C)

3. Who invented Dynamite ?
(A) Neil Bohr
(B) Alfred Nobel
(C) Homi Bhabha
(D) Lord Chelmsford
Ans : (B)

4. In which state is Khajuraho situated ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (B)

5. World’s largest bird, which can run very fast, is—
(A) Ostrich
(B) Emu
(C) Kiwi
(D) Penguin
Ans : (A)

6. How many Judges are there in International Court of Justice ?
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 9
Ans : (C)

7. In which year the man first landed on Moon ?
(A) 1968
(B) 1969
(C) 1970
(D) 1971
Ans : (B)

8. Radar was invented by—
(A) J. L. Baird
(B) Graham Bell
(C) George Eastman
(D) R. W. Watt
Ans : (D)

9. Which country’s currency is ‘Kyat’ ?
(A) Thailand
(B) Malaysia
(C) Myanmar
(D) Israel
Ans : (C)

10. Pituitary gland is present—
(A) Below the brain
(B) Above the brain
(C) Inside the brain
(D) Not near the brain
Ans : (A)


11. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Assam
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (C)

12. Rajghat Dam is situated on which river ?
(A) Chambal
(B) Sutlej
(C) Betwa
(D) Narmada
Ans : (C)

13. Which is the largest continent of the world ?
(A) Australia
(B) Asia
(C) North America
(D) Africa
Ans : (B)

14. Salim Ali was associated with ?
(A) Horology
(B) Entomology
(C) Ornithology
(D) Parasitology
Ans : (C)

15. Trachoma is the disease of which organ ?
(A) Throat
(B) Eyes
(C) Liver
(D) Lungs
Ans : (B)

16. Which gas is used in preparation of Soda Water ?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Chlorine
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Carbon
Ans : (C)

17. ‘Universal Donor’ belongs to blood group—
(A) O
(B) A
(C) B
(D) AB
Ans : (A)

18. Viruses lack—
(A) Proteins
(B) Enzymes
(C) Nucleic Acids
(D) Tentacles
Ans : (B)

19. Mammal which can fly—
(A) Whale
(B) Bat
(C) Snake
(D) Hen
Ans : (B)

20. Which king constructed the ‘Sanchi Stupa’ ?
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Ashoka
(C) Pushyamitra Shung
(D) Kanishka
Ans : (B)

21. In which state is the Kudremukh Iron Ore Scheme situated ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (B)

22. In which country is Angle Waterfall situated ?
(A) America
(B) Venezuela
(C) Canada
(D) Australia
Ans : (B)

23. Which country is called the ‘Land of Setting Sun’ ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Britain
(D) New Zealand
Ans : (C)

24. How much % of Nitrogen is present in Atmosphere ?
(A) 10%
(B) 33%
(C) 50%
(D) 78%
Ans : (D)

25. The iron ore mined from Belaidila is exported to which country ?
(A) Japan
(B) Russia
(C) England
(D) Iran
Ans : (A)

26. Which River flows between the Vindhya and Satpura mountain ranges ?
(A) Godavari
(B) Narmada
(C) Tapti
(D) Chambal
Ans : (B)

27. In which state cashew production is the highest ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Goa
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (C)

28. Which of the following is not a fresh water fish ?
(A) Cod
(B) Eel
(C) Salmon
(D) Trout
Ans : (A)

29. Scientific study of fishes is called—
(A) Herpetology
(B) Lepidopteriology
(C) Ichthyology
(D) Ornithology
Ans : (C)

30. In which state the Dafla and Sinhpo tribes are found ?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans : (D)

31. The most important reason for population explosion in India is—
(A) Urbanisation
(B) Increase in birth-rate
(C) Decrease in death-rate
(D) Improvement in health facilities
Ans : (D)

32. How much percentage of Protein is present in Soyabean ?
(A) 30%
(B) 40%
(C) 50%
(D) 60%
Ans : (B)

33. What is Kharpatwar ?
(A) Harmful and unwanted (Weeds) plants grown in cultivated crops
(B) Unwanted plants on Soil
(C) Harmful grass in Rice Harvest
(D) Useless grass on agricultural land
Ans : (A)

34. Central Rice Research Institute is located at—
(A) Chennai
(B) Cuttak
(C) Kolkata
(D) Rajendranagar
Ans : (B)

35. In India which harvest in highest average product per Hectare ?
(A) Maize
(B) Wheat
(C) Bajra
(D) Rice
Ans : (D)

36. At present how many states and centrally administered territories are there in Indian Union ?
(A) 25, 8
(B) 24, 8
(C) 28, 7
(D) 26, 8
Ans : (C)

37. In Rajya Sabha elected members of which state are in greatest number ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

38. So far who has won the Lok Sabha seat with highest number of votes ?
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Ram Vilas Paswan
(D) P. V. Narsimha Rao
Ans : (D)

39. Which state in India first started Employment Guarantee Programme ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Gujarat
(C) Kerala
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (D)

40. Breeder Seed is which stage of Seed Production Cycle ?
(A) Second
(B) First
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Ans : (B)

41. Which is the biggest Trade Union of India ?
(A) BMS
(B) CITU
(C) INTUC
(D) AITUC
Ans : (A)

42. Steel Ball floats on mercury, because—
(A) Nothing can sink in mercury
(B) Density of mercury is higher than steel
(C) Density of steel is higher than mercury
(D) Ball can not float
Ans : (B)

43. Sun Light takes……time to reach the earth.
(A) 8 seconds
(B) 8 years
(C) 8 minutes
(D) 4 minutes
Ans : (C)

44. pH value of pure water is—
(A) 14
(B) 2
(C) 7
(D) 9
Ans : (C)

45. It burns with blue flame—
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Carbon monoxide
Ans : (A)

46. Deficiency of which vitamin causes Night Blindness ?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B1
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin D
Ans : (A)

47. Which organ of body is affected first by Nuclear Radiation ?
(A) Liver
(B) Lungs
(C) Bone Marrow
(D) Brain
Ans : (C)

48. How many chromosomes are there in a Bacteria ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Many
(D) Not even one
Ans : (A)

49. Whose milk contains highest protein content ?
(A) Cow
(B) Goat
(C) Sheep
(D) Buffalo
Ans : (C)

50. With which area Dr. V. J. Curian is connected ?
(A) Animal Husbandry
(B) Milk Development Industry
(C) Plant Protection
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

51. Find out that smallest number which is fully divisible by 6, 10, 15 and 18—
(A) 800
(B) 900
(C) 1,000
(D) 1020
Ans : (B)

52. When is ‘World Health Day’ celebrated ?
(A) 12 December
(B) 7 April
(C) 10 October
(D) 23 May
Ans : (B)

53. Which world renowned Mountain peak is called ‘Sagar Matha’ ?
(A) Everest
(B) Nanda Devi
(C) K2
(D) Kanchenjunga
Ans : (A)

54. In India, which city is called ‘Sun City’ ?
(A) Puri
(B) Kohima
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Kanyakumari
Ans : (C)

55. In which area is Bhatnagar Prize given ?
(A) Sports
(B) Film
(C) Science and Technology
(D) Literature
Ans : (C)

56. How many spokes (Tilian) are there in the wheel in India’s National Flag ?
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 24
(D) 25
Ans : (C)

57. Which of the following separates Daman from Diu ?
(A) Mahi River
(B) Rann of Kachha
(C) Narmada River
(D) Gulf of Khambhat
Ans : (D)

58. Of the following countries which is situated in the ‘Horn of Africa’ ?
(A) Tunisia
(B) Somalia
(C) Kenya
(D) Sudan
Ans : (B)

59. World’s Wild Ass is found only in—
(A) Rann of Kachchh
(B) Chhota Nagpur
(C) Ladakh
(D) Sunderbans
Ans : (A)

60. Indian Space Research Institute’s Satellite Tracking and Ranging Station is located at—
(A) Kawalur
(B) Hassan
(C) Sriharikota
(D) Ahmedabad
Ans : (B)

61. What is the name of India’s first fast breeder Neutron Reactor located at Kalpakkam ?
(A) Apsara
(B) Dhruv
(C) Poornima
(D) Kamini
Ans : (D)

62. Of which famous woman’s ‘autobiography’ is ‘Golden Girl’ ?
(A) Amrita Shergil
(B) P. T. Usha
(C) Lata Mangeshkar
(D) Nargis Dutt
Ans : (B)

63. What is Tejas ?
(A) Ultramodern Radar
(B) Ultramodern Fighter Battleship
(C) Light Combat Aeroplane
(D) Remote Sensing System
Ans : (C)

64. Sharda Act is related to—
(A) Child Marriage
(B) Sati Pratha
(C) Widow Remarriage
(D) Child Killings
Ans : (A)

65. Out of the following which is concerned with ‘Al Nino’ ?
(A) Labrador Current
(B) Benguela Current
(C) Humboldt Current
(D) Kuro Shiwo Current
Ans : (C)

66. Which separates the main land of India from Rameshwaram Island ?
(A) Pamban Channel
(B) 9Channel
(C) 10Channel
(D) Palk Strait
Ans : (A)

67. What are the main constituents of Biogas ?
(A) Methane + Carbon dioxide
(B) Nitrogen + Butane
(C) Ethane + Butane
(D) Carbon dioxide
Ans : (A)

68. Who gave the name, ‘Indian National Congress’ ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) A. O. Hume
(C) W. O. Bannerji
(D) Dufrin
Ans : (A)

69. Which of the following gas produces ‘Green House Effect’ ?
(A) CO
(B) CO2
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Nitric oxide
Ans : (B)

70. Which of the following is not a Free Trade Zone ?
(A) Kandla
(B) Falta
(C) Santacruz
(D) Pondicherry
Ans : (D)

71. Which of the following connects the Sikyang Province of China and Pakistan Occupied Kashmir (POK) ?
(A) Siachin road
(B) Silk road
(C) Goodwill road
(D) Karakoram road
Ans : (D)

72. Starting from evening 8 O’clock to 2 O’clock at night how many times the hands of the clock shall make right angle ?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 11
(D) 7
Ans : (C)

73. Who constructed the Jagannath Temple at Puri ?
(A) Narsingh Burman
(B) Parmeshwar Burman
(C) Antburman Chodgang
(D) Aadityaburman Chodgang
Ans : (C)

74. In which of the following the ‘Gayatri Mantra’ is included ?
(A) Samveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yagyavalkya
(D) Aitareya Upanishad
Ans : (B)

75. Enzymes are made mostly of the following—
(A) Fats
(B) Protein
(C) Carbonic acids
(D) Carbohydrate
Ans : (B)

76. Out of the following Shiv Samudram water-fall is situated on which River ?
(A) Tungabhadra River
(B) Narmada River
(C) Kaveri River
(D) Chambal River
Ans : (C)

77. In India which of the following has the longest Railway Division ?
(A) Eastern Railway
(B) Western Railway
(C) Northern Railway
(D) Central Railway
Ans : (D)

78. When was life originated on Earth ?
(A) 300 mllion years ago
(B) 3500 million years ago
(C) 1000 million years ago
(D) 4500 million years ago
Ans : (B)

79. What is an Atomic Reactor ?
(A) A Reservoir of Heavy Water
(B) Atomic furnace in which nuclear fission produces heat
(C) A Chemical Reservoir
(D) An Atom Bomb
Ans : (B)

80. In Datia (M.P.) ‘Kudau Singh Music School’ was started in his memory. Kudau Singh was associated with which area of music ?
(A) Bansuri
(B) Tabla
(C) Sitar
(D) Mridang and Pakhawaj
Ans : (D)

81. What is Param 10,000 ?
(A) Radar
(B) Surface to Surface missile
(C) Surface to Air missile
(D) Computer
Ans : (D)

82. In Madhya Pradesh Panna is associated with—
(A) Copper
(B) Gold
(C) Diamond
(D) Mica
Ans : (C)

83. Who was the first Caliph ?
(A) Imam Husain
(B) Abu Bakr
(C) Sulaiman
(D) Constantine
Ans : (B)

84. India is the Chief Exporter of—
(A) Coffee
(B) Mica
(C) Silk
(D) Jute
Ans : (B)

85. Who wrote ‘Arthashashtra’ ?
(A) Bana Bhatta
(B) Kalidas
(C) Kautilya
(D) R. K. Narayan
Ans : (C)

86. Who wrote the book ‘Wings of Fire’ ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Kuldeep Nayar
(C) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(D) J. B. Kriplani
Ans : (C)

87. Which is the National Anthem of India ?
(A) Vande Mataram
(B) Jana Gana Mana
(C) Sare Jahan Se Achchha Hindostan Hamara
(D) Jhanda Uncha Rahe Hamara
Ans : (B)

88. ‘Kiwi’ is the inhabitant of ?
(A) South Africa
(B) Indonesia
(C) Hungary
(D) New Zealand
Ans : (D)

89. Shambhu Maharaj was connected with—
(A) Painting
(B) Kathak dancing
(C) Film Music
(D) Photography
Ans : (B)

90. Who discovered Bacteria ?
(A) Jenner
(B) Leeuwenhock
(C) Linnaeus
(D) Ronald Ross
Ans : (B)

91. After India became independent who suggested that ‘Indian National Congress’ should be dissolved ?
(A) C. Rajgopalachari
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Acharya Kriplani
(D) Jai Prakash Narayan
Ans : (B)

92. Of the following dances which one is performed by single person ?
(A) Kuchipudi
(B) Bharat Natyam
(C) Odissi
(D) Mohiniattam
Ans : (D)

93. Who called ‘Britain is a nation of shop-keepers’ ?
(A) Mussolini
(B) Hitler
(C) Napoleon
(D) Garibaldi
Ans : (C)

94. Who founded, ‘Servants of India Society’ ?
(A) Pandit Hridaya Nath Kunjru
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Shriniwas Shastri
Ans : (B)

95. In which country were the 2008 Olympic Games held ?
(A) China
(B) Australia
(C) Spain
(D) England
Ans : (A)

96. Who was the first Indian Woman to swim across the English Channel ?
(A) Kamaljit Sandhu
(B) Rita Faria
(C) Arti Saha
(D) Shanta Rangaswami
Ans : (C)

97. When was the India’s Communication Satellite INSAT-C3 was launched from Kourou in French Guiana ?
(A) February 28, 2000
(B) May 26, 1999
(C) March 22, 2000
(D) January 24, 2002
Ans : (D)

98. Which country is called the ‘Playground of Europe’ ?
(A) France
(B) Scotland
(C) Netherland
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (D)

99. When was the United Nations Organisation founded ?
(A) October 20, 1945
(B) June 16, 1945
(C) November 11, 1944
(D) October 24, 1945
Ans : (D)

100. Keil Canal links the following—
(A) North Sea and Baltic Sea
(B) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean
(C) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
(D) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
Ans : (A)

101. Name the Indian State having the least population—
(A) Sikkim
(B) Nagaland
(C) Goa
(D) Tripura
Ans : (A)

102. The Hijri Era (Calendar) started in—
(A) 570 A.D.
(B) 1129 A.D.
(C) 622 A.D.
(D) 712 A.D.
Ans : (C)

103. Which of the following is the indicator of Air Pollution ?
(A) Cycas
(B) Algae
(C) Bryophytes
(D) Lichens
Ans : (D)

104. During Dehydration from human body the substance which is usually lost is—
(A) Sugar
(B) Sodium Chloride
(C) Calcium Phosphate
(D) Potassium Chloride
Ans : (B)

105. Where is the Test Tube Baby (Egg) fertilised ?
(A) Outside the body of mother
(B) In the Test Tube
(C) In the Testis of man
(D) It does not take place
Ans : (B)

106. The well known discussion between Nachiketa and Yama is narrated in—
(A) Kathopanishad
(B) Kenopanishad
(C) Mundakopanishad
(D) Chhandogyopanishad
Ans : (A)

107. Haemophilia is a genetic diseases which is caused by—
(A) Fall in Haemoglobin level
(B) Rheumatic Heart
(C) Absence of clotting of blood
(D) White blood cells become less in number
Ans : (C)

108. In Indian Constitution in which ‘Schedule’ there is mention of antidefection laws ?
(A) 10th Schedule
(B) 8th Schedule
(C) 2nd Schedule
(D) 5th Schedule
Ans : (A)

109. In British period in India fast development of Industries did not take place, because—
(A) Absence of Natural Resources
(B) Absence of Foreign Capital
(C) Absence of Heavy Industries
(D) Wealthy people were disinterested in Industries
Ans : (B)

110. When ants bite they inject in human body, this substance which causes pain—
(A) Glacial acetic acid
(B) Formic acid
(C) Methanol
(D) Stearic acid
Ans : (B)

111. Out of the following pairs of States and Tribes which pair is not correct ?
(A) Assam—Miri
(B) Arunachal Pradesh—Apatani
(C) Madhya Pradesh—Lebada
(D) Nagaland—Konyak
Ans : (C)

112. Out of the following which acts as Biofertilizer for better Rice Harvest ?
(A) Rhizobium sp.
(B) Azotobacter sp.
(C) Blue Green Algae
(D) Kawak Mul Kawak
Ans : (C)

113. Song (Rag) which is sung in the morning, is—
(A) Bhoopali
(B) Todi (Bhairavi)
(C) Darbari
(D) Bhimpalasi
Ans : (B)

114. Which is the correct sequence in order of ascending atomic weights of Hydrocarbons ?
(A) Propane, Butane, Ethane, Methane
(B) Methane, Ethane, Propane, Butane
(C) Butane, Propane, Ethane, Methane
(D) Butane, Propane, Methane, Ethane
Ans : (B)

115. Antigen is important for human body because it—
(A) Destroys harmful germs
(B) Is useful in treatment of poisons
(C) Reduces the body temperature
(D) Produces the antibodies
Ans : (D)

116. Night on Venus shall be of how many days ?
(A) 180 Earth days
(B) 135 Earth days
(C) 118 Earth days
(D) 50 Earth days
Ans : (C)

117. Who is associated with Discovery of Cristal Dynamics ?
(A) J. C. Bose
(B) C. V. Raman
(C) C. Ramanujam
(D) H. J. Bhabha
Ans : (B)

118. When an air bubble rises from the bottom of the lake and rises to the surface, its shape shall—
(A) Grow bigger
(B) Become smaller
(C) No change
(D) Become saucer shaped
Ans : (A)

119. Total internal reflection takes place when the ray of light passes through—
(A) Air to glass
(B) Water to glass
(C) Air to water
(D) Diamond to glass
Ans : (D)

120. In liquor poisoning which results in blindness the dangerous substance is—
(A) Methyl alcohol
(B) Ethyl alcohol
(C) Emyl alcohol
(D) Benzyl alcohol
Ans : (A)

BSF GENERAL DUTY CONSTABLES SOLVED PAPER 2009

Mathematics:

1. 46853 - 39746 = ? - 4456
(1) 7.107 (2) 8427 (3) 10243, (4) 11563 (5) None of these

2. (0.75 x 4.4 x 2.4) + 0.6 = ?
(1) 13.2 (2) 4.752 (3) 15.84 (4) 12 (5) None of these

3. 55.06 + 19.73 + 85.024 = ?
(1) 160.03 (2) 158.914 (3) 160.534 (4) 159.99 (5) None of these

4. 884697 - 773697 - 102479 = ?
(1) 8531 (2) 8521 (3) 8512 (4) 8251 (5) None of these

5. (9)power 3 + (3)power 2 + (6)power3 + (15)power 2 =?
(1) 756.96 ' (2) 90.16 (3) 738.96 (4) 756.064 (5) None ofthese

6. ((?]power 2 + (18)power 2 ÷ 125 = 3.56
(1) 15 (2) 12 (3) 11 (4) 14 (5) None of these

7. 15.4x25+40/3.5x6.4 +27.6 =?
(1) 6.5 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 8.5 (5) None of these

8. 75 x 28 - 126 = ?
(1) 1894 (2) 1956 (3) 1994 (4) 1974
(5) None of these

9. 465 + 2.5 = ?% of 1500
(1) 14.2 (2) 16.6 (3) 15.4 (4) 12.4 (5) None of these

10. 124 x 39 +? ÷ 45 = 108
(1) 28 (2) 22 (3) 32 (4) 14 (5) None of these

11. 786 ÷ 24 x? = 6.55
(1) 0.2 (2) 4 (3) 0.4 (4) 5 (5) None of these

12. (308 + 144 + 254) + (756 - 665-71) =?
(1) 34.8 (2) 36.4 (3) 35.3 (4) 36.2 (5) None of these

13. 8024 ÷ 59 x ? + 48 = 4944
1. 42 (2) 28 (3) 36 (4) 46 (5) None of these

14. (425 x 4000) + 16000 x 12 = ?
(1) 925 (2) 1275 (3) 1700 (4) 8.85 (5) None of these

15. 6731 + 53 x 8 = ?
(1) 1024 (2) 1016 (3) 1022 (4) 762 (5) None of these


GK/general awareness :


16. The term nitshka which meant ornament in the Vedic period was used later times to denote
1. coin (2) weapon 3) script (4) husband

17. Lord Buddha was born in
(1) Lumbanii (2) Vaishali (3)Bodh Caya (4) Pavapuri

18. The number of Puranas are
1) 25 (2) 18 (3) 52 (4) 108

19. The national bird of India is
(1) Eagle (2) Lily (3) Lion (4) Peacock

20. The currency Japan is:
(1) Waht (2) Dinar (3) Dirham (4) Yen

21. Who was the first man to reach North pole?
(1) Robert Peary (2) Amundsen (3) Yuri Gagrin (4) None of these


22. The book 'Raghuvamsa' was written,by:
(1) Tulsidas (2) Valmiki (3) Kalidas (4) Minoo Masani

23. The height of Mt. Everest is :
(1) 8880 m (2) 8848 m. (3) 8511 m (4) 8484 m

24. In northern hemisphere the longest day falls on
(1) June 25 (2) Ju'ne 21 (3) December 21
(4) June 27

25. Marble is what kind of rock.
(1) Igneous (2) Sedimentary (3) MetamorphiC (4) None of these

26. The Headquarters of Universal Postal Union is:
(1) Berne (2) Rome' (3) Geneva (4) New York

27. First world war started in :
(1) 1914 (2) 1916 (3) 1918 (4) 1920

28 Who invented aeroplane?
(1) W. Roentgen (2) Wright brothers (3) Z. Jansen (4) Pitman

29. Who was the first preseident of India?
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 2. B.K Hari 3. Bhimrap Ambedkar 4. P. Nehru

30. what is the Capital of USA?
1. New York. 2. Washington DC 3. Houston 4. Boston

Answers: 

1. 4 2. 1 3. 5 4. 2 5. 3 6. 3 7. 4 8. 4 9. 4 10. 5 11. 1 12. 3 13. 3 14. 2 15. 2
  16.3 17. 1 18. 4 19. 4 20. 21. 1 22. 3 23. 2 24. 2 25. 3 26. 1 27. 1 28. 2 29. 1 30. 2

BANK EXAMS GENERAL AWARENESS MCQs

1) In the Union Budget 2011-12, Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee proposed to increase the Income Tax Exemption Limit   for individual tax payers from Rs 1 lakh 60 thousand to _?
a.1 lakh 80 thousand
b.1 lakh 90 thousand
c. 2 lakh
d.2 lakh 20 thousand

2) A team from Dalhousie University in Halifax, Canada, discovered that a green alga invades tiny developing salamander embryos.  What is this phenomenon called?
a)Symbiosis
b)Photosynthesis
c) Ecdysis
d) Aestivation
3) Which of the following Bollywood Actress won the Best Actress trophy at the 13th London Asian Film Festival for her performance in Onir’s I AM?
a.Nandita Das
b.Juhi Chawla
c.Tabu
d.Konkona Sen Sharma

4) Noted Social worker Anna Hazare on 5 April 2011 started his hunger strike  at Jantar Mantar in New Delhi to protest against the reported delay in bringing in which of the following bills to effectively deal with corruption?
a. Lokpal Bill
b. The Competition (Amendment) Bill
c. The Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Bill
d. The Appropriation (No.3 ) Bill

5) Who won the National Jute Board-Kolkata international squash at Calcutta Racket Club on 3 April 2011 after defeating Omar Mosaad?
a.Karim Darwish
b.Khawaja Adil Maqbool
c. Ritwik Bhattacharya
d. Peter Nicol

6) Read the following statements:
1.He won the ATP Miami Masters crown by defeating Nadal and thus remained unbeaten in 2011.
2.He captured all four titles- the Australian Open, Dubai, elite Masters titles at Indian Wells and Miami in 2011.
3.He had won his first Miami Masters title in 2007.
4.He joined Roger Federer, Andre Agassi and Pete Sampras as the only players to win the Australian Open, Indian Wells and Miami in the same year.Identify the tennis player being referred to.
a.Novak Djokovic
b.Roger Federer
c. Andy Murray
d.Rafael Nadal

7) At the National Conference on Kharif Strategies, Agriculture Minister Sharad Pawar on 6 April 2011 mentioned that India has achieved an all-time high production of foodgrains. What was the estimation regarding foodgain production in 2010-11?
a.235.88 million tonnes
b.215 million tonnes
c. 261.34 million tonnes
d. 222.66 million tonnes

8) Which of the following steel plants in India achieved record production of 5.71 million tonnes (mt) of hot metal (a 6.3 per cent growth over 2009-10), 5.33 mt of crude steel (4.3 per cent) and 4.57 mt of saleable steel (4.3 per cent)?
a.Bhillai Steel Plant
b.Rourkela Steel Plant
c. Bokaro Steel Plant
d.Salem Steel Plant
9) The Department of Information Technology (DIT) on 5 April 2011 published a draft policy on which of the following to enable the government departments to provide services, including payment of utility bills and filing of tax with the use of a medium?
a.Mobile governance
b.E-governance
c. Service Delivery Gateway
d.Applications Inter-operability

10) Which of the following was not proposed in the Union Budget 2011-12 presented by pranab Mukherjee?
1.Special vehicles were proposed to be created in the form of Infrastructure Debt Funds to attract foreign funds.
2.Rs. 300 crore expenditure was proposed to promote horticulture centres in rain fed areas for increasing crop productivity.
3.For the manufacturing sector, the budget proposed reduction of basic customs duty on raw silk from 30 to 5 per cent.
4.Concessional 10 per cent Excise Duty was also proposed for fuel cell or Hydrogen cell-technology-based vehicles.

a.1 & 3
b.Only 2
c.Only 4
d.3 & 4

11) Sectors                                                                   Budgetary Allocations
1.Agriculture & Allied Activities                         A. Rs 14362 crore
2.Rural Development                                     B. Rs  38852 crore
3.Defence Sector                                           C. Rs 55438 crore
4.Industries & Minerals                                   D. Rs 164415 crore
   A  B  C  D
a.1  4  2  3
b.2  1  3  4
c. 3  1  4  2
d.4  2  3  1

12) In the Budget it was proposed to provide sum of money for implementation of vegetable initiative to set in motion a virtuous cycle of higher production and incomes for the farmers. What was the proposed amount?
a.Rs 500 crore
b.Rs 300 crore
c. Rs 10000 crore
d. Rs 650 crore

13) According to an extensive genetic study on modern humans, two conclusions were drawn out.
i) There is an enormous amount of diversity in the African hunter-gatherer populations.
ii) The genetic diversity among 27 present-day African populations originated in southern Africa and progressed to northern Africa.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Both i and ii
b) Neither I and ii
c)  Only i
d) Only ii   

14) A massive Tsunami caused by a devastating earthquake of the 8.9 magnitude hit about 400 km north-east of Tokyo, capital of Japan. Consider the following statements regarding Tsunami.
i) A Tsunami is a series of ocean waves that sends surges of water, reaching heights of over 100 feet onto land.
ii) Most tsunamis, about 80 percent, happen within the Pacific Ocean’s Ring of Fire, a geologically active area where tectonic shifts make earthquakes and volcanoes common.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Both i and ii
b) Only i
c) Only ii
d) Neither i nor ii

15) Which one of the following Indian states recently released a Braille version of the RTI (Right to Information) Act and its rules for the benefit of visually challenged?
a) Gujarat
b) Bihar
c) Haryana
d) Madhya Pradesh

16)Engineering and construction major L&T announced that it has achieved financial closure for which of the following with the help of 10-bank consortium led by SBI pitching in with Rs 11478 crore debt?
a.Kolkata Metro Rail Project
b.Pune Metro Project
c.Delhi Metro project
d.Hyderabad Metro Rail project

17) Indian cricket captain Mahendra Singh Dhoni was offered and accepted the honour of being chosen to get an honorary commission in which of the following?
a.Indian Navy
b.Territorial Army
c. Indian Air Force
d. Indian Para-military Force

18) Which of the following real estate firms on 5 April 2011 announced a gift in the shape of villas worth Rs. 9 crore to skipper M.S. Dhoni and his teammates following their victory in the World Cup 2011?
a.DLF
b.Amrapali
c. Unitech
d.Tata Construction & Projects Ltd

19) Roger Federer won his fourth Australian Open Tennis Championship and 16th Grand Slam on 31 Jan 2010. Who did he defeat in the final of the Australian Open 2010?
a. Rafael Nadal
b. Andy Murray
c. Fred Perry
d. Rod Laver
20) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana was proposed to be being extended to the beneficiaries of which of the following Union Government schemes?
a.Mahatma Gandhi NREGA beneficiaries
b.Beneficiaries of Swavlamban pension scheme
c.Indira Gandhi National old Age Pension scheme beneficiaries
d.Beneficiaries of Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana

21) Which of the following companies announced their alliance with Chennai Super Kings as the official team partner for the upcoming IPL Season 4?
a. ONGC
b. Indian Oil Corporation
c. Hindusthan Petroleum
d. Gulf Oil Corporation

22) Scientists have identified five genes which raise the risk of Alzheimer's disease. Consider the following statements regarding Alzheimer’s disease.
i) Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of Dementia.
ii) Problems that happen due to the Alzheimer’s are personality-disorder, decision making, abstract thinking and loss of initiative.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only i
b) Only ii
c)  Both i and ii
d) Neither i nor ii

23) A giant predatory theropod dinosaur, similar in stature and size to Tyrannosaurus rex, has been identified by palaeontologists. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
i) The new dinosaur, named Zhuchengtyrannus magnus, probably stood four metres tall, was 11 metres long and weighed around six tonnes.
ii) Like T. rex, it was a carnivore with huge powerful jaws.
iii) It ran on back legs, with small front limbs.
a) Only i and ii
b) Only i and iii
c)  Only ii and iii
d)  All i, ii and iii are correct

24) Solvay, the Belgian soda ash maker which sold a drugs unit a year ago, agreed to buy which of the following French companies to add specialty chemicals spanning ingredients for moisturisers and car-part polymers?
a.Rhodia
b.Danisco
c.Cognis
d.Le Zèbre

25) Gilead Sciences, a California based bio-pharmaceutical research firm, and its patent partner, Roche Holding AG, have sued which of the following Indian generic drug makers in March 2011 for allegedly infringing a US patent for Tamiflu, a drug used in treatment of bird and swine-flu infections?
a.Dr Reddy’s
b.Natco Pharma
c. Ranbaxy Laboratories
d. GlaxoSmithKline
26) AT&T on Sunday announced that it had agreed to buy T-Mobile USA from which of the following telecom companies for $39 billion?
a.Deutsche Telekom
b.Sprint Nextel
c.Verizon Wireless
d.Comcast

27) What is the prize-money of the golf tournament ‘Avantha Masters’ that began on 11 Feb 2010?
a. €1.5 million
b. €1 million
c. €2.5 million
d. €2 million
28) An international team of scientists, led by the Australian National University recently discovered evidence that the body’s immune cells often share information about foreign substances with each other to ward of invaders. The study can help increase the immunity level in human body against pathogens and cancer. Which of the followings are the symptoms of Cancer?
i) Weight Loss
ii) Excessive Sweating
iii) Lumps and Swelling (tumour)
iv) Enlargement of Spleen
Please choose the correct option:
a) i, ii, iii and iv
b) i and ii only
c)  i, ii and iii
d) only i

29) Which of the following companies in April 2011 filed a petition in the Supreme Court to block penal action initiated by the Income Tax authorities on its contested $2.5-billion tax bill?
a. Vodafone International
b. Bharti Airtel
c. Uninor
d. Tata Teleservices

30) Vivendi agreed to buy Vodafone Group's 44% stake in which of the French mobile-phone operator’s for euro 7.95 billion ($11.3 billion) to win full control of its largest unit and secure more stable earnings?
a.T-Mobile
b.Orange
c. Virgin Mobile
d. SFR

31) A consortium comprising two companies acquired the IPL’s global Internet, mobile and audio rights, along with television rights in specific territories outside India, for the next four years. The consortium bagged the rights with a winning bid of Rs 261.6 crore in Chennai on 20 March 2011. Which are the two companies included in the consortium?
a. TIL & Nimbus Communication
b. Reliance Big Pictures & Zoom
c. TIL & Colors
d. Zoom and UTV Motion Pictures

32) Which chess player won his maiden Grand Master norm in the Chennai Open 2010 International Grand Master chess tournament on 1 Feb 2010?
a. R. Siddharth of Chennai
b. Kravtsiv of Ukraine
c. P. Shyam Nikhil of Tamil Nadu
d. Maxim Turov of Russia

33) Who was appointed member of ICC Cricket Committee as a representative of national coaches on 11 Feb 2010?
a. Gary Kirsten
b. Mark Taylor
c. Kumar Sangakkara
d. Tim May
34) At the European Geosciences Union meeting in Vienna, the scientists calculated that the Earth sees about __ thunderstorms every hour.
a) 670
b) 580
c) 760
d) 960

35) HCL Technologies on Thursday announced the expansion of its Smart Grid partner ecosystem by entering into strategic alliances with two data management software firms focused on the smart grid market. Which are the two firms with which HCL has entered into an alliance?
1. Infosys
2. eMeter
3. Cape Gemini
4. Tridium
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3
c.  2 & 4
d. 1 & 4

36) The Gujarat Government banned controversial book, entitled Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and his struggle with India. Who is the author of the book?
a) Joseph Lelyveld
b) Joseph Ponting
c) Hugh Grant
d) Vikram Seth

37) Which one of the following states imposed a blanket ban on plastic bags?
a) Delhi
b) Haryana
c) Himachal Pradesh
d)Tamil Nadu

38) Who is the Chairperson of the Central Board Film Certification?
a) Sharmila Tagore
b) Karan Johar
c)  Nafisa Ali
d) Om Puri
e) None of these

39) Ali Akbar Salehi is the foreign minister of
a) Israel
b) Iran
c) Afghanistan
d) Indonesia

40) Who is the new chief of Research and Analysis Wing (RAW)?
a) AP Singh
b) Arun Shourie
c) Sanjeev Tripathi
d) BK Gupta

41) When is the National Youth Day observed?
a) January 14
b) February 14
c)  August 31
d) January 12

42) What is Tejas?
A) Spacecraft
B) Missile
C) Submarine
D) Light combat aircraft

43) Who became the world number one badminton player?
a) Saina Nehwal
b) Wang Xin
c) Sania Mirza
d) Wang Shixian

44) Name the cricketer who beat Michael Clarke by a comfortable 15-vote margin to bag the Allan Border Medal besides being named Australia’s ODI Player of the Year in Feb 2010?
a. Shane Watson
b. Simon Katich
c. Mitchell Johnson
d. Sachin Tendulkar

45) In India’s first sale of rupee perpetual bonds by a non-finance company Rs 1500 crore ($332 million) was raised. Name the non-finance company.
a.Tata Steel
b.Pantallons Retail
c. RIL
d.Maruti Suzuki

46) With his victory in the men’s large hill ski jump on 20 Feb 2010 at the Vancouver Olympics, he became the first person to win four individual gold ski jumping medals. Name this sportsperson.
a. Simon Ammann (Switzerland)
b. Ahonen Janne (Finland)
c. Alexander Nicholas (USA)
d. Bardal Anders (Norway)

47) The Indian Government in April 2011 issued a notice to which of the following companies to terminate licences for Kerala, West Bengal and Assam for delay in roll- out of services in these three circles?
a.Sistema Shyam Teleservices
b.Tata Teleservices
c. Reliance
d. BSNL

48) Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy means —
(A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Issuance of different types of bonds
(C) Auction of gold
(D) To make available direct finance to borrowers
(E) None of these

49) Capital Market Regulator is—
(A) RBI
(B) IRDA
(C) NSE
(D) BSE
(E) SEBI

50) As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt.?
(i)  Tax on Income
(ii)  Tax on Expenditure
(iii) Tax on Property or Capital Asset
(iv) Tax on Goods and Services

(A) Both (i) and (iii) only
(B) Both (ii) and (iv) only
(C) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(E) None of these

ANSWERS:
1) A 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) B 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) A 21) D 22) C 23) D 24) A 25) B 26) A 27) A 28) A 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) A34) C 35) C 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) D 43) B 44) A 45) A 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) E 50) C

CTET 2011 Paper - I Solved Question Paper

 Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) conducted CTET Examination 2011 on 26 June 2011.

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.

2. The test is of one and half hours duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking.

3. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page / marking responses in the Answer Sheet.

4. The CODE for this Booklet is B. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. Also ensure that your Test Booklet No. and Answer Sheet No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

5. This Test Booklet has five Parts, I, II, III, IV and V, consisting of 150 Objective Type Questions, each carrying 1 mark:

Part I: Child Development and Pedagogy (Q. 1 to Q. 30)

Part II: Mathematics (Q. 31 to Q. 60)

Part III: Environmental Studies (Q. 61 to Q. 90)

Part IV: Language I - (English/Hindi) (Q. 91 to Q. 120)

Part V: Language II-(English/Hindi) (Q.121toQ.150)

6. Part IV contains 30 questions for Language I and Part V contains 30 questions for Language II. In this test booklet, only questions pertaining to English and Hindi language have been given. In case the language/s you have opted for as Language I and/or Language II is a language other than English or Hindi, please ask for a Test Booklet that contains questions on that language. The languages being answered must tally with the languages opted for in your Application Form.

7. Candidates are required to attempt questions in Part V (Language II) in a language other than the one chosen as Language I (in Part IV) from the list of languages.

8. Rough work should be done only in the space provided in the Test Booklet for the same.

9. The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. No whitener is allowed for changing answers.

PART I 

CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. The term 'curriculum' in the field of education refers to
(1) methods of teaching and the content to be taught
(2) overall programme of the school which students experience on a day-to-day basis
(3) evaluation process
(4) text-material to be used in the class
Ans: (2)

2. At lower classes, play-way method of teaching is based on
(1) theory of physcial education programmes
(2) principles of methods of teaching
(3) psychological principles of development and growth
(4) sociological principles of teaching
Ans: (3)

3. "A young child responds to a new situation on the basis of the response made by him/her in a similar situation as in the past." This is related to
(1) 'Law of Analogy' of learning
(2) 'Law of Effect' of learning
(3) 'Law of Attitude' of learning process
(4) 'Law of Readiness' of learning
Ans: (2)

4. 'Dyslexia' is associated with
(1) Mental disorder
(2) Mathematical disorder
(3) Reading disorder
(4) Behavioural disorder
Ans: (3)

5. Education of children with special needs should be provided
(1) along with other normal children
(2) by methods developed for special children in special Schools
(3) in special school
(4) by special teachers in special schools
Ans: (1)

6. To make assessment a 'useful and interesting' process, one should be careful about
(1) making comparisons between different students
(2) labelling students as intelligent or average learners
(3) using a variety of ways' to collect information about the student's learning across the scholastic and co-scholastic boundaries
(4) using technical language to give feedback
Ans: (3)

7. ____ is not considered a sign of 'being gifted'.
(1) Creative ideas
(2) Fighting with others
(3) Novelty in expression
(4) Curiosity
Ans: (2)

8."Children actively construct their understanding of the world" is a statement attributed to
(1) Piaget
(2) Pavlov
(3) Kohlberg
(4) Skinner
Ans: (1)

9. Kritika who does not talk much at home, talks a lot at school. It shows that
(1) the school provides opportunities to children to talk a lot
(2) teachers demand that children should talk a lot at school
(3) she does not like her home at all
(4) her thoughts get acknowledged at school
Ans: (4)

10. A teacher should make an attempt to understand the potentialities of herlhis students. Which of the following fields is related to this objective?
(1) Educational Sociology
(2) Social Philosophy
(3) Media - Psychology
(4) Educational Psychology
Ans: (4)


11. Motivation, in the process of learning,
(1) sharpens the memory of learners
(2) differentiates new. learning from old learning
(3) makes learners think unidirectionally
(4) creates interest for learning among young learners
Ans: (4)

12. Learning can be enriched if
(1) situations from the real world are brought into the class in which students interact with each other and the teacher facilitates
(2) more and more teaching aids are used in the class
(3) teachers use different types of lectures and explanation
(4) due attention is paid to periodic tests in the class
Ans: (1)

13. Which of the following statements cannot be considered as a feature of the process of learning?
(1) Educational institutions are the only place where learning takes place
(2) Learning is a comprehensive process
(3) Learning is goal-oriented
(4) Unlearning is also a learning process
Ans: (1)

14. A student of V-grade with 'visual deficiency' should be
(1) excused to do a lower level of work
(2) helped with hislher routine-work by parents and friends
(3) treated normally in the classroom and provided support through Audio CDs
(4) given special treatment III the classroom
Ans: (3)

15. Which of the following should be considered the most important quality of a teacher at primary level ?
(1) Eagerness to teach
(2) Patience and perseverance
(3) Competence in methods of teaching and knowledge of subjects
(4) Competence to teach in highly standardised language
Ans: (2)

16. The stage in which a child begins to think logically about objects and events is known as
(1) Sensori-motor stage
(2) Formal operational stage
(3) Pre-operational stage
(4) Concrete operational stage
Ans: (4)

17. A teacher, because of his/her democratic nature, allows students to sit all over the class. Some sit together and discuss or do group reading. Some sit quietly, and read themselves. A parent does not like it. Which of the following may be the best way to handle the situation ?
(1) Parents should complain against the teacher to the principal
(2) Parents should request the principal to change the section of their ward
(3) Parents should show trust in the teacher and discuss the problem with the teacher
(4) Parents should take away the child from that school
Ans: (3)

18. The 'insight theory of learning' is promoted by
(1) 'Gestalt' theorists
(2) Pavlov
(3) Jean Piaget
(4) Vygotsky
Ans: (1)

19. Four distinct stages of children's intellectual development are identified by
(1) Kohlberg
(2) Erikson
(3) Skinner
(4) Piaget
Ans: (4)

20. In which of the following stages do children become active members of their peer group?
(1) Adolescence
(2) Adulthood
(3) Early childhood
(4) Childhood
Ans: (1)

21. Parents should play a _ role in the learning process of young children.
(1) negative
(2) proactive
(3) sympathetic
(4) neutral
Ans: (2)

22. "Development is a never ending process." This idea is associated with
(1) Principle of interrelation
(2) Principle of continuity
(3) Principle of integration
(4) Principle of interaction
Ans: (2)

23. Which is the place where the child's 'cognitive' development is defined in the best way?
(1) Playground
(2) School and classroom environment
(3) Auditorium
(4) Home
Ans: (2)

24. Which of the following is not a sign of an intelligent young child?
(1) One who has the ability to cram long essays very quickly
(2) One who has the ability to communicate fluently and appropriately
(3) One who carries on thinking in an abstract manner
(4) One who can adjust oneself in a new environment
Ans: (1)

25. ____ is considered a sign of motivated teaching.
(1) Maximum attendance in the class
(2) Remedial work given by the teacher
(3) Questioning by students
(4) Pin drop silence in the class
Ans: (3)

26. Which of the following is not related to the socio-psychological needs of the child?
(1) Need for appreciation or social approval
(2) Need for emotional security
(3) Regular elimination of waste products from the body
(4) Need for company
Ans: (3)

27. 'Mind mapping' refers to
(1) a technique to enhance comprehension

(2) a plan of action for an adventure
(3) drawing the picture of a mind
(4) researching the functioning of the mind
Ans: (4)

28. The best way, specially at primary level, to address the learning difficulties of students is to use
(1) a variety of teaching methods suited to the disability
(2) expensive and, glossy support material
(3) easy and interesting textbooks
(4) story-telling method
Ans: (1)

29. According to Piaget, at which of the following stages does a child begin, to think logically about abstract propositions?
(1) Concrete operational stage (07 - 11 years)
(2) Formal operational stage (11 years and up)
(3) Sensori-motor stage (Birth - 02 years)
(4) Pre-operational stage (02 - 07 years)
Ans:


30. Which of the following will foster creativity among learners ?
(1) Teaching the students the practical value of good education
(2) Providing opportunities to question and to nurture the innate talents of every learner
(3) Emphasizing achievement goals from the beginning of school life
(4) Coaching students for good marks in examination
Ans: (2)

PART II
MATHEMATICS

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
31. While teaching comparison of fractions which the numerators are same e.g. 3/5 and 3/7 Rohit’s response was "since the numerators are same and since 7 is larger than 5,
therefore 3/7 is bigger than  3/5 .”
This suggests that

(1) Rohit does not know the concept of equivalent fractions

(2) Rohit has not practised well

(3) Rohit does not understand the magnitude of fractions

(4) Rohit does not know the concept of numerator and denominator
Ans: (1)


32. Examine the following matchstick patterns:

If the pattern continues, how many matchsticks are needed in the 15th stage?

(1) 61

(2) 62

(3) 105

(4) 65
Ans: (2)


33. To introduce the concept of fractions, a teacher can begin with 

(1) writing fractions in the form of a/b where b ≠ 0 

(2) identifying fractional parts of things around them                

(3) identifying numerators and denominators of different fractions        

(4) finding fractions on a number line
Ans: (2)

34.   is 3/4 of a ‘unit’. What will be  1½ ?
1.

2.

3.

4.
Ans: (4)

35. The number 49532 rounded off to the nearest thousand is

(1) 41000

(2) 50000

(3) 49000

(4) 49500
Ans: (2)

36. In the following, which is the greatest number?
(1) [(2+2)²]²
(2) (2+2+2)²
(3) (4)²
(4) (2×2×2)²
Ans: (1)


37. "Start a discussion in the class on things in the child's environment which roll and slide. Help children to look at their shapes and see how some things roll and others slide."

Source: Math Magic II, NCERT

Suggestions like this have been given in the NCERT textbook of Class-II to help a teacher understand that

(1) discussions supplemented with demonstration help students to understand concepts better

(2) discussions bring multiple perspectives into the classroom

(3) discussion is the best strategy for the mathematics classroom

(4) it is imperative for the teachers to draw the children's attention to the things around them

Ans: (1)

38. The chapters in the NCERT textbook of mathematics of Class-IV have titles like 38. "The Junk Seller", "Trip to Bhopal", "The Way the World Looks".

This shift has been done to

(1) make it interesting by relating it to everyday life

(2) know about selling junk and travelling

(3) challenge the students to guess the mathematical content in the chapters

(4) make them understand differently

Ans: (1)

39. The weight of some mangoes is 2 kg 600 g and that of some apples is 1 kg 450 g. The weight of the mangoes is greater than that of the apples by

(1) 1 kg 200 g

(2) 150 g

(3) 4 kg 50 g

(4) 1 kg 150 g

Ans: (4)

40."Problem solving" as a strategy of doing mathematics involves

(1) activity based approach

(2) estimation

(3) extensive practice

(4) using clues to arrive at a solution

Ans: (1)

41. Sequence the following tasks as they would be taken up while. developing the understanding of shapes and space across primary classes :

a. Matches the properties of 2-D shapes by observing their sides and corners

b. Describes intuitively the properties of 2-D shapes

c. Sorts 2-D shapes

d. Describes the various 2-D shapes by counting their sides, corners and diagonals

(1) a, d, b, c

(2) c, a, d, b

(3) d, b, a, c

(4) c, b, d, a

Ans: (2)

42. If an operator is defined as

4 3=4+5+6

5 4=5+6+7+8

6 4=6+7+8+9

what will n 8 be equal to ?

(1) 8n + 36

(2) n + 36

(3) n + 28

(4) 8n + 28

Ans: (2)

43. A teacher asked in a class to represent 1/8 of .Which amongst the following is an incorrect representation?

(1) 

(2)

(3) 

(4) 

Ans:

44. The purpose of a diagnostic test in mathematics is

(1) to fill the progress report

(2) to plan the question paper for the end-term examination

(3) to know the gaps in children's understanding

(4) to give feedback to the parents

Ans: (3)

45. 407928 is read as

(1) Forty thousand nine hundred twenty eight

(2) Four lakh seven thousand nine hundred twenty eight

(3) Four lakh seventy nine thousand twenty eight

(4) Forty seven thousand nine hundred twenty eight

Ans: (2)

46. The length of a rectangle is 'l' and its width is half of its length. What will be the perimeter of the rectangle if the length is doubled keeping the width same?

(1) 6l

(2) 3l

(3) 4l

(4) 5l

Ans: (4)

47. Which is true for a hexagonal pyramid?

(1) It has two hexagonal faces and six rectangular faces

(2) It has six hexagonal faces joined by six rectangular faces

(3) It has six faces and each face is a hexagon

(4) It has a hexagonal base with six triangular faces meeting at a point

Ans: (4)

48. How many 4-digit numbers are there in the Hindu-Arabic Numeration System?

(1) 9999

(2) 9000

(3) 99

(4) 8999

Ans: (2)

49. Vikas teaches mathematics to a class of 56 students. He believes that conducting a test is effective if the feedback is given immediately. He conducted a short class test of 10

marks. What is the best possible way of giving the feedback effectively?

(1) He can have a whole class discussion on ways in which they have got their solutions and which is the effective strategy to arrive at the correct answer

(2) Pick out any copy at random and discuss the method followed in the copy on the board

(3) He can let the students check each other's answer

(4) He can explain the solution of each problem on the board and ask the students to check their answer on their own

Ans:

50. When teaching 'shapes', a teacher can plan a trip of historical places as

(1) field trips have been recommended by CBSE, so they are a must

(2) shapes are an integral part of any architecture and such trips encourage connections across disciplines

(3) she has completed most of the syllabus well in time and needs to provide leisure

(4) it would be a good break from the routine mathematics class and an opportunity to improve communicative kills

Ans: (2)

51. In a dice, the numbers on the opposite faces add up to 7. Which amongst the following will fold into a dice?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Ans: (3)

52. To introduce the concept of area, a teacher can start with

(1) calculating area of figures with the help of counting unit square

(2) explaining of formulae for finding area of figures of different shapes

(3) comparing area of any figure with the help of different objects like palm, leaf, pencil, notebook, etc.

(4) calculating area of a rectangle by finding length and breadth of a rectangle and using the formula for area of a rectangle (i.e. length x breadth)

Ans: (3)

53. When faced with word problems, Rajan usually asks "Should I add or subtract?" "Should I multiply or divide?". Such questions suggest

(1) Rajan lacks understanding of number operations

(2) Rajan cannot add and multiply

(3) Rajan seeks opportunities to disturb the class

(4) Rajan has problems in comprehending language

Ans:

54. A rhombus has diagonals of length 8 cm and 6 cm. Find its perimeter.

(1) 24 cm

(2) 28 cm

(3) 18 cm

(4) 20 cm

Ans: (4)

55. Look at the following table:

 

Station		Bus 1	Bus 2	Bus 3
New Delhi	Departure	19:15	12:30	16:45
Faridabad	Arrival Departure	20:22 20:37	13:25 13:35	19:10 19:22
Mathura	Arrival	00:40	18:10	21:55

Which bus takes the least time to reach Mathura from New Delhi?

(1) Bus 3

(2) Both Bus 2 and Bus 3 take equal time

(3) Bus 1

(4) Bus 2

Ans: (3)

56. When teaching addition of fractions, a teacher came across the following error: 1/2 + 1/3 = 2/5 What remedial action can the teacher take in such a situation?

(1) Help the child to understand the magnitude of each fraction

(2) Help the child to understand the concept of LCM

(3) Ask the child to practise as much as she can

(4) No intervention is needed because she will understand as she grows

Ans: (2)

57. Sequence the following tasks as they are taken up while developing the concept of measurement :

a. Learners use standard units to measure length.

b. Learners use non-standard units to measure length.

c. Learners verify objects using simple observation

d. Learners understand the relationship between metric units.

(1) c, b, a, d

(2) d, a, c, b

(3) a, b, d, c

(4) b, a, c, d

Ans: (1)

58. The NCF (2005) considers that Mathematics involves 'a certain way of thinking and reasoning'. From the statements given below, pick out one which does not reflect the above principle:

(1) The method by which it is taught

(2) Giving students set formulae to solve the numerical questions

(3) The way the material presented in the textbooks is written

(4) The activities and exercises chosen for the class

Ans: (2)

59."These days prices have started rising." Which amongst the following graphs represents this situation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Ans: (1)

60. To be a "good" mathematician one must be able to

(1) understand, apply and make connections across the concepts

(2) master the techniques of answering questions

(3) memorise most of the formulae

(4) solve the problem in no time

Ans: (1)

PART III

ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

61. As an EVS teacher, you plan to take the students to the zoo. Which of the following activities would you not allow the students to undertake?

(1) Take along lots of eatables for the animals at the zoo

(2) Try to find out the food taken up by different animals at the zoo

(3) Collect photographs of the animals they expect to see at the zoo

(4) Take their drawing books along with them to draw what they see at the zoo

Ans: (1)

62. The concept of 'seed germination' can be taught best by

(1) asking the students to perform an activity to sow seeds, observe different stages and draw them

(2) showing photographs of seed germination

(3) showing germinated seeds to the class and explaining the process of germination

(4) presenting the germination stages through drawings on the board

Ans: (1)

63. Mira and Divya are young girls. Mira likes to eat samosas, cutlets and bread. Divya, on the other hand, takes an iron deficient diet. Which of the

following disorders are Mira and Divya likely to suffer from, respectively?

(1)Obesity and scurvy

(2)Scurvy and anaemia

(3)Anaemia and night blindness

(4)Obesity and anaemia

Ans: (4)

64. To make children aware of different kinds of fuel, a teacher can

(1) show some samples of fuels in the class

(2) discuss with children about possible kinds of fuel that can be used for cooking, along with a short film

(3) show pictures of fuels on a chart

(4) ask children to list different fuels

Ans: (2)

65. The skills required to read a map include

(1) excellent communication skills to draw out the expressive ability

(2) ability to understand relative position of places, distances and directions

(3) excellent drawing and painting skills

(4) ability to use calculations and sketch positions on a globe

Ans: (2)

66. Giving importance to individual experiences of children in an EVS class will benefit the teacher

(1) to connect the subject to the learners' experiential world and promote reflection and learning

(2) to save her energy as children enjoy talking

(3) to know the unique experiences of children

(4) to help and improve the language and communication skills of the children

Ans: (1)

67. It has been observed that the process of digestion is faster inside the stomach than outside because    

(1) the digestive juices when kept outside the stomach become inactive

(2) the food is churned in the stomach thereby increasing the surface area for quicker enzyme action

(3) the digestive juices inside the stomach are acidic, while 'outside they are alkaline

(4) the amount of digestive juices produced in the stomach in the presence of food is much more

Ans: (2)

68. Which of the following statements is not an objective of teaching EVS at the primary level?

(1) To load learners with terms and definitions for assessment

(2) To internalise the values of concern for life and environment

(3) Arouse curiosity about the natural and social environment

(4) Engage in exploratory and hands-on activities that lead to the development of cognitive and psychomotor skills

Ans: (1)

69. An egret bird is often seen on a buffalo's back. This is because the egret

(1) feeds on parasites on the buffalo's back

(2) feeds on insects present in the grass

(3) loves to sing while sitting on the buffalo's back '

(4) rests after flying for a while

Ans: (1)

70. The idea of showing a sample of a railway ticket in the EVS textbook is to

(1) enhance the skills of students to arrive at conclusions

(2) give them an opportunity to interact with real information and develop the skill of observation

(3) give the students an idea 'of the rail fare

(4) provide them the knowledge of various abbreviations used in the ticket

Ans: (2)

71. Which of the following represents one of the objectives of teaching EVS at Primary School?

(1) To inform the learners about the books they should read to expand their knowledge

(2) To connect the experiences of the learners in school with the outside world

(3) To make learners aware of technical terms and definitions

(4) To assess technical terms related to EVS

Ans: (2)

72. Which of the following statements about assignments is correct?

(1) Assignments provide learners an opportunity to search for information, construct their own ideas and articulate them

(2) Assignments can be done by parents, brothers or sisters depending on the talent that they possess

(3) Assignments need to be given as classwork followed by homework every day to provide variety and practice

(4) Assignments should be the only method of assessment

Ans: (1)

73. Simple experiments and demonstrations can be performed in the EVS class

(1) to discuss ideas, record and analyse observations on the basis of questions raised by students

(2) to control the students to ensure discipline in the class'

(3) to enable children to learn on their own and sharpen their observation skills

(4) to follow what is being done in the senior classes

Ans: (1)

74. Durga lives in a village and cooks food on a chulha (earthen stove) using wood or cow dung cakes as fuel. She has been suffering from severe cough
for the last three months. This may be due to the

(1) smoke produced by burning fuels which may have caused her allergy

(2) old age and pollution inside and outside her hut

(3) carbon monoxide produced by burning fuel which may have been deposited in her respiratory tract

(4) soot produced by burning the fuels which may have been deposited in her respiratory tract

Ans: (4)

75. After the lunch break, while teaching EVS, you find that students are not. taking interest in the lesson. What would you do?

(1) Take the children out to play in the ground

(2) Ask them to put their heads down on the desk and relax

(3) Use audio-visual aids based on multiple intelligences to make the lesson interesting

(4) Change the topic immediately

Ans: (3)

76. A school planned an educational trip for Class-V students to Rajasthan. What would be your expectation from the children during the visit?

(1) They should note down their questions, if any, and ask the parents after reaching home

(2) They should observe everything without asking questions about it

(3) They should enjoy themselves

(4) They should observe keenly, make notes and share their observations with other students and the teacher

Ans: (4)

77. Rina separated the garbage from the house into two piles as shown below:

                                                            

Rina has separated the garbage waste into two piles depending on the criteria

(1) are household / industrial waste

(2) have odour / are odourless

(3) can     be decomposed / cannot be decomposed

(4) can be recycled / cannot be recycled

Ans: (3)

78. Chipko Movement was strengthened under the leadership of

(1) A.K. Banerjee

(2) Sunder Lal Bahuguna

(3) Amrita Devi Bishnoi

(4) Medha Patkar

Ans: (2)

79. Vitamins are substances

(1) required in small quantities to prevent deficiency diseases

(2) that increase our metabolic rate leading to loss of weight

(3) required as medicines to make us healthy

(4) that build muscles to keep us strong

Ans: (1)

80. In rural areas, cow dung is used to coat the floor and walls of huts to

(1) give a natural colour to the floor

(2) keep the insects away

(3) make them smooth and clean

(4) make them rough to increase friction

Ans: (3)

81. A farmer wanted to separate the grains from the chaff. This can be achieved by the process called

(1) Harvesting

(2) Handpicking

(3) Threshing

(4) Winnowing

Ans:

82. Which one of the following is not an objective of including riddles and puzzles in the EVS textbook?

(1) To confuse the mind of the students and let them enjoy the confusion

(2) To develop curiosity and ability to think creatively

(3) To develop critical thinking ability in students

(4) To develop reasoning ability in students

Ans: (1)

83. A man with blood group '0' marries a woman with blood group 'A'. The chance of their first child having blood group '0' is

(1) 25%

(2) 75%

(3) 50%

(4) 100%

Ans: (3)

84. A Shooting Star is a

(1) meteoroid which catches fire as it enters the Earth's atmosphere 

(2) star which moves with a constant speed

(3) shining object which moves with a constant speed in the atmosphere

(4) star with a tail at the end

Ans: (1)

85. The difference between boiling and evaporation is that

(1) boiling causes reduction in volume of liquid while evaporation does not

(2) changing of boiling liquid into vapour can be seen but evaporation cannot be seen

(3) boiling causes a change of state of water while evaporation does not

(4) evaporation can take place at any temperature while boiling cannot

Ans: (4)

86. At the primary stage, assessments should consist of

(1) half-yearly and annual examinations at the end of the year

(2) home assignments and class assignments every week to rate young learners under the categories of pass or fail

(3) continuous and unstructured teacher observations to be shared with learners and parents

(4) formal tests and games done every week and recorded in the Report Card

Ans: (3)

87. A lemon sinks in normal water but floats in salty water because the density of

(1) lemon increases in salt water

(2) lemon decreases in salt water

(3) salt water is more than normal water

(4) normal water is more than salt water

Ans: (3)

88. Cooked rice can be preserved for a longer time in a refrigerator because

(1) moisture content in the food is reduced at low temperature

(2) refrigerators contain certain chemicals which kill the microbes

(3) microbes become inactive at low temperature

(4) microbes are destroyed and killed at low temperature

Ans: (3)

89. Malaria can be detected by testing the blood for the presence of

(1) eggs of mosquito in red blood cells

(2) Plasmodium in red blood cells

(3) ruptured liver cells in blood

(4) larvae of mosquito in blood

Ans: (2)

90. The use of poems and story telling to explain concepts in an EVS class helps to

(1) take care of the language and cultural diversity among learners

(2) channelize the energies of the students in the right direction

(3) make the lesson enjoyable and interesting

(4) promote the ability to imagine and explore the nature of the world at the local and global level

Ans: (4)

PART IV

LANGUAGE I

ENGLISH

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

91. The spoken skills in a language teaching classroom can be developed through

(1) enabling activities with a focus on conversation skills leading to communicative competence

(2) group activities where learners can talk in whichever language they would like to

(3) engaging in small talk as confident agressive learners

(4) emotionally connecting with learners

Ans: (1)

92. Lalita, a teacher of young learners, provides them with opportunities to play with clay, water and sand so as to

(1) please them and make them happy

(2) dirty their hands so that they may learn to wash them

(3) build fine motor skills, especially of the fingers and thumb

(4) encourage play with no other objective

Ans: (3)

93. How will a teacher best teach 'writing' skills to a class?

(1) Through dictation

(2) By asking students to learn articles and rewrite them

(3) By brainstorming ides and asking students to write in their own words

(4) By asking students to write neatly

Ans: (3)

94. Mary, a young teacher, believes in personalised learning because she thinks that

(1) all learners must learn on their own

(2) children must enjoy their learning

(3) every person must be exposed to learning

(4) every learner is unique and needs to be given a chance to develop to the best of their ability

Ans: (4)

95. In a diverse classroom, learners find it difficult to speak and write good English and often lapse into their mother-tongue because

(1) they do not have the ability to learn English

(2) they are slow learners

(3) they are not motivated to learn

(4) they lack enough competence and the structures of the two languages are different

Ans: (4)

96. A child studying in Class-III says: “I dranked the water.” It indicates that the child

(1) has overgeneralized the rule for marking past tense verbs, showing that learning is taking place

(2) is careless and needs to be told that she should be conscious of such errors

(3) has not learnt grammar rules properly

(4) should memories the correct sentence

Ans: (1)

97. Leena uses Big Reading Books in her language classes to

(1) use these illustrated colourful books for reading together

(2) use them for big students of different ages

(3) allow students to read at home

(4) ensure books carry a lot of information

Ans: (1)

98. Grammar should be taught by

(1) giving clear explanations

(2) enabling practice in context

(3) asking students to learn rules

(4) making learners do written assignments

Ans: (2)

99. Children who are differently abled join a new school. Teachers give different reactions. Which one reflects the concept of inclusive education?

(1) "Good, it will provide a good opportunity for the children to learn to help each other and be supportive."

(2) "Such children should go to special schools where they will learn better."

(3) "Oh! How can I teach children who cannot even read? "

(4) "I'm worried that my class may not accept these children and some of the mischievous children may even harm the poor kids."

Ans: (1)

100. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 stipulates that learning should be

(1) through activities in a child-friendly manner

(2) supported by extra coaching

(3) restricted to co-scholastic subjects

(4) carefully monitored by frequent testing

Ans: (1)

101. A teacher can cater to the learning styles of all the children by

(1) advising the     children to join drawing/dance/music classes

(2) employing a variety of teaching methods and modes of assessment which cater to diversity among' learners

(3) teaching every lesson thoroughly and revising the lessons

(4) testing the children frequently

Ans: (1)

102. As part of a class project, a teacher planned a salad fruit celebration day in which all learners needed to participate. The boys protested as they felt that boys do not cook. The

teacher should

(1) make an attempt to counsel the boys, impressing upon them that gender stereotyping is not healthy

(2) respect the sentiments of the boys and allow them not to participate in the class project

(3) ignore such protests and tell the boys what she thinks of their bias

(4) complain to the head of the school seeking action against the boys

Ans:

103. Read the two sentences given below:

The lizard ate the fly.

The fly ate the lizard.

A teacher can use this example to explain that

(1) they are examples of reported speech

(2) they are a collection of words

(3) there is no difference in the two sentences because both have the same words

(4) when subject and object change positions, the meaning of the sentence changes

Ans: (4)

104. Ritu often makes errors in Subject-Verb concord. The teacher can help her by

(1) asking Ritu to learn the rules and scolding her

(2) asking Ritu to write the rules ten times in her notebook

(3) taking up many examples for the entire class and paying special attention to Ritu

(4) explaining to her the rules of grammar

Ans: (3)

105. Ria is unable to pronounce the words 'smile' and 'school' clearly. As her teacher, what will you do?

(1) Humiliate Ria by isolating her and asking her to repeat the words

(2) Asking the entire class to repeat the words and appreciating Ria when she repeats them correctly

(3) Make Ria repeat the 'words' many times

(4) Make Ria understand the meaning and sound pattern and get the class as a whole to listen to these words through an audio-visual medium

Ans: (4)

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 106 to 114) by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. Max Weber laid the foundation for my belief that decent and hard-working people with high aspirations make great nations, no matter what the odds are. This was the first piece of the development puzzle for me. Mahatma Gandhi opened my eyes to the importance of good leadership in raising the aspirations of people, making them accept sacrifices to achieve a grand vision, and most importantly, in converting that vision into reality. He unleashed the most powerful instrument for gaining trust - leadership by example. He ate,

dressed, travelled and lived like the poor. Walking the talk was extremely important to the Mahatma who understood the pulse of our people like no other Indian leader. The biggest lesson for me from Gandhi's book and life is the importance of leading by example. I realized fairly early that this was the second piece of the development puzzle.

2. Frantz Fanon's book on the colonizer mindset of elites in a post-colonial society opened my eyes to the role of the bureaucracy and the elite in decelerating the progress of the poor and the disenfranchised. The colonial mindset of the 'dark elite in white masks" in a post-colonial society - the mindset that the ruled and the rulers have different sets of rights and responsibilities with a huge asymmetry in favour of the rulers - was indeed the third piece of the development puzzle. I see this attitude of the Indian elite every day in

how they send their children to English medium schools while forcing the children of the poor into vernacular schools, extol the virtues of poverty while living in luxury, and glorify the rural life while they sit comfortably in cities.

Source: A Better India, A Better World'

- N.R. Narayana Murthy (Adapted)

106. The main purpose of the author in the above passage is to

(1) delineate the lesson he has learnt for the development of a nation

(2) prioritise goals for only economic development of India

(3) discuss the different writers he has read

(4) argue why India should not be considered a developed country

Ans: (1)

107. The first piece of the development puzzle, according to the author, is

(1) imbuing the citizens of the country with decency and aspirations

(2) the need for making people understand the importance of leading an idealistic and simple life

(3) creating a team of industrious people for a national cause

(4) the importance of decent, inspired and industrious people for a nation's development

Ans: (4)

108. Mahatma Gandhi proved that only leadership by example can

(1) gain the trust of the people so that they are willing to make sacrifices for a larger cause

(2) inspire people to eat, dress, travel and live like the poor

(3) mobilise the people of a country against colonial rule

(4) fully and properly understand the pulse of the people of a country

Ans: (1)

109. The expression 'walking the talk' means

(1) being diplomatic in one's behaviour an words

(2) practising what one preaches

(3) addressing public gatherings in an election campaign

(4) talking to the common people by mingling with them

Ans: (2)

110. The colonial mindset of 'dark elite in white masks' with reference to the passage is

(1) looking down upon the poor and the disenfranchised

(2) the bureaucratic practice of according topmost priority to confidentiality in official dealings

(3) discriminating people on the basis of the colour of their skin

(4) an assumption that the administrators and politicians have more rights and privileges than the common people

Ans: (4)

111. Extolling 'the virtues of poverty while living in luxury' is an instance of

(1) the ideal of a good government

(2) the need to make people adopt a simple life

(3) the hypocrisy of the people of our country

(4) practising what you preach

Ans: (3)

112. 'I realized fairly early that this was the second piece of the development puzzle.' The underlined part of this sentence is a/an

(1) Noun clause

(2) Verb clause

(3) Adjective clause

(4) Adverbial phrase

Ans: (1)

113. Pick out a word or phrase from the second paragraph of the passage that means the same as 'to make (something) go slower'.

(1) decelerating

(2) vernacular

(3) disenfranchised

(4) dark elite

Ans: (1)

114. 'Development' is a noun with '-ment' as a suffix. Which of the following will become a noun if we add the suffix '-ment' to it?

(1) Enchant

(2) Endure

(3) Extort

(4) Enter

Ans: (1)

Directions: Read the poem given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 115 to 120) by selecting the most appropriate option.

On A Tired Housewife

Here lies a poor woman who was always tired,

She lived in a house where help wasn't hired:

Her last words on earth were: 'Dear friends,

I am going

To where there's no cooking, or washing, or sewing,

For everything there is exact to my wishes,

For where they don't eat there's no washing  of dishes.

I'll be where loud anthems will always be ringing,

But having no voice I'll be quit of the singing.

Don't mourn for me now, don't mourn for me never,

I am going to do nothing for ever and ever.'

Anonymous

115. The woman described in the poem

(1) lived in her own house

(2) worked in the house of a rich man

(3) was very busy doing chores

(4) was no more

Ans: (4)

116. The woman was always tired because

(1) she did all the household work without any help

(2) she had hardly anything to eat

(3) she was physically very weak

(4) she was suffering from a serious ailment

Ans: (1)

117. The woman wanted to go to a place where

(1) people would take good care of her

(2) people would sincerely mourn for her

(3) people didn't sing or dance

(4) people didn't cook, wash or sew

Ans: (4)

118. The woman's account in the poem shows

(1) how a woman can escape from work

(2) how we should help each other

(3) how overworked a housewife is

(4) that there is no work in heaven

Ans: (3)

119. 'For everything there is exact to my wishes,' In this line, the word ‘exact' can be interpreted to mean

(1) according

(2) leading

(3) contrary

(4) contributing

Ans: (1)

120. The rhyme pattern in the poem is

(1) aa, bb, cc, dd, ee

(2) aa, ab, bc, cd, de

(3) ab, ab, ab, ab, ab

(4) aa, ab, cd, cd, ee

Ans:

PART V

LANGUAGE II

ENGLISH

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 121 to 126) by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. This was one of the Old Man's pet schemes; and one about which he would brook no interference. Each child would review the events of his school week in his own words, in his

own way; he was free to comment, to criticize, to agree or disagree, with any person, subject or method, as long as it was in-some way associated with the school. No one and

nothing was sacred, from the Headmaster down, and the child, moreover, was safe from any form of reprisal.

2. "Look at it this way," Mr. Florian had said. "It is of advantage to both pupil and teacher. If a child wants to write about something which matters to him, he will take some pains to

set it down as carefully and with as much detail as possible; that must in some way improve his written English in terms of spelling, construction and style. Week by week we

are able, through his reviews, to follow and observe his progress in such things. As for the teachers, we soon get a pretty good idea what the children think of us and whether or not

we are getting close to them. It may sometimes be rather deflating to discover that a well-prepared lesson did not really excite Johnny Smith's interest, but, after all, the lesson was

intended to benefit Johnny Smith, not his teacher.

121. The scheme, according to the Old Man, was useful because

(1) it was excellent feedback for the teacher, principal and school

(2) he was slightly eccentric

(3) it was meant to humiliate the teacher

(4) it was meant to give power to the teacher

Ans: (1)

122. 'Pet schemes' in line 1 refers to

(1) a student he is fond of

(2) a formula he had discovered

(3) a pet animal

(4) a method he has advocated

Ans: (4)

123. The 'Old Man' refers to

(1) a parent of the school

(2) a student of the school

(3) a teacher of the school

(4) the headmaster called Mr. Florian

Ans: (4)

124. The advantages of the scheme were many. Pick out the disadvantage from the list given below.

(1) Sometimes deflating to the teacher's ego

(2) Diagnostic and remedial for the student and the teacher

(3) Effective feedback

(4) Enhanced writing skills

Ans: (1)

125. 'Sacred' in the context of the Headmaster means

(1) that even 'he' was not above the 'scheme' he advocated for students

(2) he believed in the sacred nature of all life

(3) that he was a holy man

(4) that he was the powerful head of the school

Ans: (1)

126. 'Brook' as a verb means 'to tolerate' in para l. As a noun, it means

(1) Tolerance

(2) Allow

(3) Suffer

(4) Stream

Ans: (4)

Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow (Q. No. 127 to 135) by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. Karuna Verma is bewildered. "I don't know how she did it," she says about her mother, Renu Chopra. Karuna's childhood memories are of her father leaving late for office so

that, by then, her mother would be-back from work. Of her parents working in sync to make sure the kids were well taken care of .Of her mother handling kitchen and classroom with

ease.

2. When her own daughter was born, Karuna too wanted to do the balancing act. But it did not turn out to be as easy as it seemed. For starters, her parents' era was different from

hers. As she was living with her husband in Andheri, Mumbai, away from their families, resuming work would have meant leaving her daughter with a maid while she was away. Her

daughter's formative years would be spent with an outsider, a thought that did not appeal to Karuna. She quit her teaching job in a school.

3. For a woman who was encouraged to be independent. throughout her life, the decision to quit and stay at home was a difficult one. Ironically it was her mother who urged her to

quit the job and become a full-time mother. For Karuna, being a housewife is one of the tougher jobs she has had. "I have no time for myself," says Karuna. "I make sure all my

personal work is done when Avni is asleep. Earlier I had a set routine. My husband and I used to wake up at 6 a.m. I would re-heat the food the maid had cooked the day before

and pack it for lunch. Then we used to head off to work, and at night, we would go out. I had a lot of time to myself and for my husband then," says Karuna.

4. The routine is quite different now. Karuna has taken to cooking. She wakes up quite early and makes sure all her work is done before the baby is up. The rest of the day flies by,

pandering to two-year-old Avni's needs.

Source: The Week, March 13, 2011 (Adapted)

127. Karuna Verma is bewildered at

(1) the responsibility of bringing up a daughter in a big city

(2) her mother's ability to combine her career with household work

(3) the amount of work that she has to do after becoming a mother

(4) the late hours of work that her father followed

Ans: (2)

128. ' ... parents working in sync' means

(1) father earning and mother taking care of children

(2) parents having staggered office hours and sharing household work

(3) parents pooling their resources together to take care of expenses

(4) husband and wife sinking their differences to preserve domestic harmony

Ans: (2)

129. ' Karuna too wanted to do the balancing act.' In this sentence, the term 'balancing act' implies

(1) managing the time efficiently so that parents can spend quality time with their children

(2) making adjustments in order to balance work and leisure properly

(3) sharing of responsibilities by both husband and wife

(4) a mother's ability to look after her child without quitting her job

Ans: (1)

130. 'As she was living with her husband in Andheri, Mumbai, away from their families ............ . In this sentence 'their families' refers to

(1) Families of friends in Andheri, Mumbai

(2) Karuna's parents and in-laws

(3) Karuna's mother and father's families

(4) Karuna's husband's family

Ans: (2)

131. Karuna's parents and her husband's parents probably lived

(1) in Mumbai but not in Andheri

(2) with Karuna and her husband

(3) in Andheri, Mumbai

(4) in some other city

Ans: (4)

132. Karuna decided to quit her job because

(1) she wanted to have more time, to herself and for her husband

(2) she wanted to pay more attention to her cooking

(3) she Was not interested in her teaching job

(4) she did not want her daughter to spend her early years with a maid

Ans: (4)

133. It was ironical that Karuna's mother should advise her to quit her job and stay at home because

(1) Karuna's parents had always advised her that home was much more important than career

(2) Karuna's mother herself had not quit her job to take care of children as she encouraged independence of women

(3) Karuna herself was keen on quitting her job

(4) Karuna's parents had insisted that household chores should be shared between husband and wife

Ans: (2)

134. After Karuna quit her job    

(1) she sent her maid away as she felt that the maid was a bad influence on Avni

(2) she had no time for herself as Avni needed all her attention and care

(3) she had a lot of time to herself and for her husband

(4) she occupied herself with cooking to spend her time usefully

Ans: (2)

135. "I have no time for myself," says Karuna. This sentence can be written in reported speech as

(1) Karuna said that she had no time for herself

(2) Karuna says that she had no time for herself

(3) Karuna says that she have no time for herself

(4) Karuna said that she had no time for myself

Ans: (1)

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

136. Remedial teaching as part of Formative Assessment means

(1) diagnosing and addressing gaps in learning

(2) teaching beyond the textbooks    

(3) extra coaching by parents

(4) teaching for gifted students

Ans:

137. Which of the following is a value associated with an inclusive classroom?

(1) Competition

(2) Envy

(3) Sympathy

(4) Collaboration

Ans:

138. The aim of mechanical drills is to

(1) strengthen the role learning capacity of the learners

(2) encourage creative use of language among the learners

(3) improve the fluency of the learners

(4) improve the accuracy of the learners

Ans:

139. Learners are involved in individual activities pair work, group work and whole-class work because these

(1) provide the learners opportunities to relax in a classroom

(2) have the sole aim of introducing variety in a language classroom

(3) enable the already over-worked teacher to preserve her energy thereby becoming more effective

(4) afford the learners opportunities to use the language in a focused manner for real-life interaction

Ans:

140. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) All formative tasks are meant for assessment.

(2) Formative assessment, to be effective, must be conducted only after teaching a lesson

(3) While all formative tasks are meant for improving teaching-learning, some are used for assessment too.

(4) Formative assessment helps us to grade students into good, average and poor.

Ans:

141. When young learners seem to lose interest in a lesson, the teacher should

(1) tell a story or conduct an interesting activity

(2) ask them to sit quietly for some time

(3) allow them to go out and play

(4) ask them to sleep for a while

Ans:

142. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 has included 'all round development of the child' as one of the aims of education because

(1) it - nurtures the physical, mental and emotional aspects of the child

(2) it ensures that every child is a part of a workforce

(3) every child grows rapidly between six to fourteen years

(4) proper health care is essential

Ans:

143. Teachers do not give the meaning of new words to learners directly because

(1) learners do not like to be given the meaning of words

(2) it prevents learners from discovering the meaning through puzzling out using clues

(3) learners already know the meaning of the words

(4) vocabulary will not be enriched

Ans:

144. Which of the following is an instance of non-formal learning?

(1) Children learning to cook from their parents

(2) Children learning a new game from friends

(3) Children learning correspondence lessons through

(4) Children learning to draw from their art teacher

Ans:

145. Group project work helps in developing

(1) a high level of ambition to achieve

(2) collaboration, critical thinking and problem solving

(3) competition among learners to excel in academics

(4) good memory in the young learners

Ans:

146. What type of questions promote thinking skills in children?

(1) Factual questions

(2) Questions based purely on the reading text

(3) Personal response questions

(4) Closed-ended questions

Ans:

147. 'Students need to brainstorm ideas, organise them, draft, edit and revise their work,' is a 'process' which reflects

(1) Listening skills

(2) Speaking skills

(3) Reading skills

(4) Writing skills

Ans:

148. Teachers help learners 'construct' their knowledge in English by

(1) giving the learners a lot of assignments and projects that will lead to much practice

(2) correcting every mistake a learner makes and giving the relevant rule of grammar as immediate feedback

(3) giving extensive language drills in which learners practice language items mechanically

(4) enabling them to see the relationship between their prior knowledge and the new knowledge

Ans:

149. Reading for comprehension can be best achieved through

(1) Teaching learners to run a finger or pencil under the line being read

(2) Asking the children to read the text aloud

(3) Helping learners speak words softly while reading

(4) Learners reading silently and asking comprehension questions

Ans:

150. A textbook describes a domestic scene which shows the father cooking in the kitchen, the mother coming home from work and their son sewing. What is the concept conveyed?

(1) Division of labour amoung sexes

(2) Work is worship

(3) Removing gender bias

(4) Dignity of labour

Ans: