Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL)

Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL)
(A Government of India Undertaking)

The Company requires trained and experienced professionals in various fields on a fixed term contract basis, initially for a period of one year.

1. Marketing Advisor : 01 Post
• Pay: Rs.45000 +Rs.5000/-for Accommodation
• Age : Below 58 Year
• Qualification : B.Sc. (Chemistry / Biology) Dip.in Business Management or MBA with specialization in Marketing

2. Legal Consultant : 01 Post
• Pay: Rs.15000/- (Consolidated)
• Age : Below 45 Year
• Qualification :Post Graduate with LLB.

3. Regional Manager : 02 Posts
• Pay: Rs.22000/- (Consolidated)
• Age : Below 45 Year
• Qualification :Science Graduate + MBA

4. Marketing Executive : 01 Post
• Pay: Rs.18000/- (Consolidated)
• Age : Below 45 Year
• Qualification :Science Graduate/ MBA in Marketing

Last Date for receipt of application : 11.10.2011

    Eligible candidates may send their application in the format prescribed with the copies of the necessary documents by post / courier / speed post) to the Senior Personnel Manager, IDPL Complex, Old Delhi-Gurgaon Road, Dundahera, Gurgaon-122016 (Haryana)

For Further Detail and Application Format , Please Visit http://idpl.gov.in/Recruitments_new.html

UGC National Eligibility Test 2011 (December)

The National Educational Testing Bureau of University Grants Commission (UGC) conducts National Eligibility Test (NET) for Indian nationals in order to ensure minimum standards for the entrants in the teaching profession and research. It determines the candidate's eligibility for lectureship and for award of Junior Research Fellowship (JRF).
The tests are conducted twice in a year generally in the months of June and December. For candidates who desire to pursue research, the Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) is available for five years subject to fulfilment of certain conditions. The JRFs are awarded to the meritorious candidates from among the candidates qualifying for eligibility for lectureship in the NET. JRFs are available only to the candidates who opt for it in their application forms.
Name of the post

• Lecturership NET: for appointment as Lecturers
• JRF (Junior Research Fellowship) NET: to receive fellowship from UGC

Age Limit

• Lecturership NET: Minimum 19 years, no upper age limit
• JRF (Junior Research Fellowship) NET: Minimum 19 years; maximum 28 years

Educational Qualification

• Candidates who have secured at least 55% marks (without rounding off) in Master's Degree OR equivalent examination from universities/institutions recognised by UGC in Humanities (including languages) and Social Sciences, Computer Science & Applications, Electronic Science etc. are eligible for this Test. The Scheduled Caste (SC)/Scheduled Tribe (ST)/Physically Handicapped (PH)/Visually Handicapped (VH) category candidates who have secured at least 50% marks (without rounding off) in Master's degree or equivalent examinations are eligible for this Test.
• Candidates who have appeared OR will be appearing at the qualifying Master's degree (final year) examination and whose result is still awaited OR candidates whose qualifying examinations have been delayed may also apply for this Test. However, such candidates will be admitted provisionally and shall be considered eligible for award of JRF/ Lectureship eligibility only after they have passed their Master's degree examination or equivalent with at least 55% marks (50% marks in case of SC/ST/PH/VH category candidates). Such candidates must complete their P.G. degree examination within two years from the date of NET result with required percentage of marks, failing which they shall be treated as disqualified.
• The PhD degree holders whose Master's level examination had been completed by 19 September 1991 (irrespective of date of declaration of result) shall be eligible for a relaxation of 5% in aggregate marks (ie, from 55% to 50%) for appearing in NET.
• Candidates are advised to appear in the subject of their post-graduation only. The candidates, whose post-graduation subject is not covered in the list of subjects, may appear in a related subject.
• Candidates seeking concession in fee are required to submit attested copy of their OBC (Non-creamy layer)/ SC/ ST/ PH/ VH certificate along with online printout of their Application Forms (obtained while applying on-line). Other candidates are not required to submit any certificates/ documents in support of their eligibility along with printout of their Application Form. Therefore, the candidates, in their own interest, must satisfy themselves about their eligibility for the Test. In the event of any ineligibility being detected by the Commission at any stage, their candidature will be cancelled and they shall be liable for legal action.
• Candidates with post-graduate diploma/certificate course(s), should in their own interest, ascertain the equivalence of their course(s) with Master's degree of recognized Indian universities from Association of Indian Universities (AIU), New Delhi. (http://www.aiuweb.org/)

Important Dates

• Opening date for online registration - 26 September 2011
• Closing date for online registration - 25 October 2011
• Last date for sending documents at test center- 31 October 2011
• Written Test Date- 24 December 2011 (Saturday)

Application Fee: The application fees to be paid by SC/ ST/ PH/ VH candidate is Rs 110, for OBC candidate is Rs 225 and for General candidate is Rs 450.
Selection procedure

• The Test will consist of three papers. All the three papers will be held on 24 December 2011 in two separate sessions as under:

Session	Paper	Marks	Duration
First	I	100	1¼ Hours (09.30 A.M. to 10.45 A.M.)
First	II	100	1¼ Hours (10.45 A.M. to 12.00 NOON)
Second	III	200	2½ Hours (01.30 P.M. to 04.00 P.M.)

          
Paper-III will be evaluated only for those candidates who are able to secure the minimum qualifying marks in Paper-I and Paper-II, as per the table given in the following:

Category	Minimum Qualifying Marks
	Paper - I	Paper - II	Paper - I + Paper - II
General	40	40	100 (50 %)
OBC/ PH/ VH	35	35	90 (45 %)
SC/ ST	35	35	80 (40 %)

The minimum qualifying criteria for award of JRF is as follows:

Category	Minimum Qualifying Marks
	Paper - I	Paper - II	Paper - I + Paper - II	Paper III
General	40	40	100 (50 %)	100 (50 %)
OBC/ PH/ VH	35	35	90 (45 %)	90 (45 %)
SC/ ST	35	35	80 (40 %)	80 (40 %)

However, the final qualifying criteria for Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) and Eligibility for Lectureship shall be decided by UGC before declaration of result.
How to apply
The candidate needs to follow the steps mentioned below for submission of online application form.

• Download Bank Challan Performa from the UGC website OR take photocopy from the UGC-NET Notification published in the Employment News and then deposit the requisite test fee in any branch of State Bank of India along with the bank charges (commission) of Rs 20.
• Before applying Online, the candidates must possess the following: (i) Scanned passport size photograph in JPEG format of less than 300 kb, (ii) Copy of Bank Challan (fee receipt).
• Candidate seeking admission to the Test must apply online through a link available on the UGC website: http://www.ugc.ac.in/.
• After successful submission, the candidate should take printout of online Application Form (two copies), Attendance Slip (one copy), and Admission Card (one copy) on separate A-4 size papers.
• The envelope containing the Application Form should be super scribed "UGC NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY TEST FOR JUNIOR RESEARCH FELLOWSHIP AND ELIGIBILITY FOR LECTURESHIP, DECEMBER 2011".

For more information, please visit http://ugcnetonline.in/

IBPS CWE PO DESCRIPTIVE PAPER QUESTIONS

A candidate sent questions asked in descriptive paper in CWE P.O.  2nd shift.
(Exam held on 18-09-2011) 


DESCRIPTIVE PAPER
1 Write a letter to your brother infoming him Importace of  Lokpal Bill .
2 wrire a letter to related authority informing him water shortage in your area
3 Write a letter to editor of newspaer for starting a series of cultural heritage in your state .

Essays
1 e-banking
2 emerging trends of Aviation Industry in India
3 Global world converting into global Village

Precis was relating to land acquisition and urbanisation

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officers Exam., 2011

General Awareness
(Exam Held on 17-4-2011)

1. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of Free Trade Agreement, India has done with many countries ?
1. To provide support to entrepreneurs for setting up new projects in tiny/SSI sector.
2. For undertaking expansion of business.
3. To support technology up-gradation.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following organisations issue the rules of global trade ?
(A) World Bank
(B) World Trade Organisation
(C) Foreign Exchange Dealers’ Association
(D) Directorate General and Foreign Trade
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. One single statement that depicts the financial position of a bank and/or business enterprise at a given point of time is called—
(A) Statement of product details
(B) Reconciliation Statement
(C) Balance Sheet
(D) Quarterly returns submitted to RBI
(E) Trading and manufacturing account
Ans : (C)


4. Banks borrow money from the RBI on which of the following rates ?
(A) Reverse Repo Rate
(B) Repo Rate
(C) SLR
(D) CRR
(E) Savings Rate
Ans : (B)

5. The Reverse mortgage scheme is launched to give benefit to which of the following groups of society ?
(A) Govt. employees
(B) Senior Citizens
(C) Unemployed youth
(D) War widows
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. What does the letter ‘M’ depict in the term SME as used in the financial world ?
(A) Maximum
(B) Medium
(C) Mercantile
(D) Mutual
(E) Ministry
Ans : (B)

7. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is deliberate efforts of some people to bring money earned through illegal activities in circulation. Which of the following acts is passed to prevent this activity ?
(A) Payment & Settlements Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Negotiable Instrument Act
(D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
(E) Prevention of Money laundering Act
Ans : (E)

8. Which of the following organizations provides guarantee to the exporters ?
(A) Exim Bank
(B) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation
(C) Director General Foreign Trade
(D) Reserve Bank of India
(E) Registrar of companies
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking World ?
(A) Credit
(B) Rate
(C) Financial Status
(D) Discount
(E) Absolute zero
Ans : (E)

10. What is the full form of IRR as used in banking/financial sectors ?
(A) Internal Rate of Return
(B) Internal Revaluation Reserve
(C) Investment Reserve Ratio
(D) Internal Risk Return
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

11. Which of the following organisations provides credit history of the borrowers ?
(A) CIBIL
(B) ARCIL
(C) SEBI
(D) RBI
(E) CCIL
Ans : (A)

12. Banks need liquidity to meet which of the following objectives of banking ?
1.Meet deposit withdrawal
2.Fund loan demands
3.Maintain public confidence
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) Only 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

13. According to latest Economic Survey, which of the following sectors will provide largest share to Indian economy in the days to come?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Industry
(C) Services
(D) Exports
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following group represents key industries ?
1. Crude oil, electricity
2. Petroleum refining and finished steel
3. Cement and coal
(A) Only group 1
(B) Only group 2
(C) Only groups 1 and 2
(D) Only group 3
(E) All groups 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

15. Which one of the following is covered in the list of services for service tax purposes ?
1. Insurance/health services
2. Hotel accommodation/air travel services
3. Money changers/legal services
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

16. Which of the following agencies is providing Unique Identity Cards to all Indian Residents ?
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Ministry Foreign Affairs
(C) Govt. of Maharashtra
(D) Border Secutiry Force
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

17. Vikram Pandit is associated with which of the following banks ?
(A) Yes Bank
(B) ICICI Bank
(C) Citigroup
(D) HSBC
(E) State Bank of India
Ans : (C)

18. Banks make frequent changes in their product profile including introduction of new products etc. This is called—
(A) Product Control
(B) Product enhancement
(C) Product marketing
(D) Product enrichment
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Banking and financial services, all over the world, are regulated usually by Monetary Authority of the land. Who controls this function in India?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) SEBI
(C) RBI
(D) IRDA
(E) FEDAI
Ans : (C)

20. As per guidelines of the RBI, banks are to provide appropriate banking facilities to habitations having population in excess of 2000 by which year ?
(A) 2011
(B) 2012
(C) 2015
(D) 2016
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. Which one of the following is the target fixed for maintaining fiscal deficit in the Union Budget of India ?
(A) 4•6 per cent of total budget
(B) 4•6 per cent of GDP
(C) 3•6 per cent of total budget
(D) 3•6 per cent of GDP
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

22. FIMMDA stands for—
(A) Foreign Investment Markets & Derivatives Market Association
(B) Fixed Income Money Markets and Derivatives Association
(C) Fixed Income and Money Market Development Association
(D) Floating Income and Money Markets Derivative Assets
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

23. On which one of the following issues, a group of top business leaders and other eminent citizens have expressed their concern to the Govt. of India ?
(A) Corporate Governance
(B) Fiscal deficit
(C) Inflation
(D) Governance deficit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. Nobel Laureate Muhammed Yunus belongs to which one of the following countries ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan
(C) Maldives
(D) Bangladesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Who is the author of the book ‘Darkness At Noon’ ?
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Arthur Koestler
(D) Vikram Seth
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. For which one of the following purposes, Mega Food Parks scheme was introduced by the Government of India ?
(A) To provide better price to farmers
(B) To improve the productivity of food crops
(C) To control the prices of food items
(D) To avoid wastage of fruits and vegetables stored for export
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. Which of the following terms is not used in banking ?
(A) Debit Card
(B) Credit Card
(C) Kisan Card
(D) ELISA Test
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

28. Which of the following is the reason, owing to which Government charges export duty on some export items ?
(A) It is to get benefit of high international prices
(B) To improve the tax collection targets
(C) It is as per international practices
(D) To ensure the smooth availability of the items in India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

29. Pipavav Port is located in which of the following States ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Gujarat
(E) West Bengal
Ans : (D)

30. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of our monetary policy ?
1. Anchor inflation expectations
2. Actively manage liquidity
3. Maintain interest rate regime consistent with price output and financial stability
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. With which one of the following fields was Pandit Bhimsen Joshi associated ?
(A) Dance
(B) Music
(C) Short-story writing
(D) Novels
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. For which of the following purposes, RBI has constituted a Working Group with Shri Deepak Mohanty as Chairman ?
(A) Deregulation of primary markets
(B) Deregulation of secondary markets
(C) Deregulation of Savings Bank Rates
(D) Introduction of Base Rate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

33. Who is Kapil Sibal ?
(A) Coal Minister of India
(B) Civil Aviation Minister of India
(C) Telecom Minister of India
(D) Economic Advisor to Prime Minister of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

34. Which of the following will set up core banking infrastructure for rural banks ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) IBA
(C) RBI
(D) SBI
(E) NABARD
Ans : (E)

35. Colonel Muammar al Gaddafi is associated with which one of the following countries ?
(A) Libya
(B) Beharin
(C) Yemen
(D) Tunisia
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

36. What is Gross Domestic Product ?
(A) It is the cost of production of all final goods and services made in the country
(B) It is the cost of services made within the borders of a country in a year
(C) It is the market value of all final goods and services made in the country
(D) It is the market value of all final goods and services made within the borders of a country in a year
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

37. Which of the following metals is used for generation of Nuclear Power ?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Uranium
(D) Copper
(E) Barium
Ans : (C)

38. In which one of the following States, India’s first Islamic Bank is proposed to be set up ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Odisha
(D) Bihar
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. In which one of the following States, Niyamgiri Bauxite Mining Project is proposed to be set ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Jharkhand
(C) West Bengal
(D) Bihar
(E) Chhattisgarh
Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following terms is not used in Economics ?
(A) Demand and Supply
(B) Ad Valoram Tax
(C) Break even
(D) HIV positive
(E) Cost benefit analysis
Ans : (D)

41. For which one of the following reasons Finance Minister denied entry of NRI funds for infra bonds ?
(A) It will bring in more liquidity in the country
(B) NRIs can withdraw their funds any time
(C) It will bring interest burden on the country
(D) It could lead to losses at the time of redemption because of fluctuations in the Indian Currency
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

42. What is ‘financial inclusion’ ?
1. Easy access to bank accounts for safe parking of savings
2. Availability of cheap credits through appropriately designed loans for poor and low income households and small entrepreneurs
3. Availability of basic financial products like insurance
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

43. According to the Securities and Insurance Laws (Amendment) Bill 2010, who amongst the following will be Vice-Chairman of joint commission to resolve differences amongst the financial regulators ?
(A) Finance Minsiter, GOI
(B) Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
(C) SEBI Chairman
(D) Chairman, Central Vigilance Commission
(E) RBI, Governor
Ans : (E)

44. Which of the following terms is used in Economics ?
(A) Keynesian
(B) Adsorption
(C) Affinity Matrix
(D) Gene Flow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

45. Which one of the following is the directive given to the Govt. of India in the Financial Stability Report submitted to it ?
(A) Focus on financial consistency
(B) To reduce fiscal deficit
(C) To ensure GDP growth
(D) To reduce revenue deficit
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46. In which one of the following States, Jangi-Thopon and Thopon-Powari Power Projects are proposed to be set up ?
(A) J & K
(B) H. P.
(C) U. P.
(D) Manipur
(E) Meghalaya
Ans : (B)

47. Which one of the following is the proposal under the Food Security Law ?
(A) To provide 25 kg of food-grains to ration card holders
(B) To provide 25 kg of food-grains to targeted beneficiaries
(C) To provide 35 kg of food-grains to ration card holders
(D) To provide 35 kg of food-grains to targeted beneficiaries
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

48. Which one of the following are key policy rates used by RBI to influence interest rates ?
1. Bank Rate/the Repo Rate
2. Reverse Repo Rate
3. CRR/SLR
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) Both 1 and 3
Ans : (C)

49. For giving cooking gas connection to poor families, which of the following one time subvention (in rupees) will be provided by the Planning Commission ?
(A) 500
(B) 600
(C) 750
(D) 1000
(E) 1400
Ans : (E)

50. Which one of the following rates signal the RBI’s long term out-look on interest rates ?
(A) Repo Rate
(B) Reverse Repo Rate
(C) Bank Rate
(D) SLR
(E) CRR
Ans : (C)

51. What do you understand by ‘Para Banking’ services ?
(A) Eligible financial services rendered by banks
(B) Utility services provided by banks
(C) Services provided through business correspondents
(D) Services provided to armed force personnel
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

52. For which one of the following reasons, the Steel Ministry wants complete ban on export of iron ore from India ?
(A) The price of iron ore exports is not competitive
(B) The iron ore exports do not provide any value addition to exports
(C) The prices of iron ore are high and as such the exports of the ore should be banned
(D) Iron ore is a non-renewable resource like coal and petroleum products, hence it should be preserved
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

53. What is a cross Border Exchange ?
(A) Trading of foreign currency in India
(B) Trading of Indian rupee in exchange of other currencies/ goods
(C) Hawala transactions in Indian Rupee
(D) Unauthorized remittance of Indian Rupee
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

54. What is Cartosat-2B ?
(A) It is an advanced remote sensing statellite built by ISRO
(B) It is a warhead developed by DRDO
(C) It is an educational project launched by UGC
(D) It is an advanced computer developed by IIT Kanpur
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

55. For which one of the following reasons RBI has decided to undertake mid-quarter policy reviews ?
1. To realign its policies
2. To take steps and ensure smooth flow of credit
3. To provide guidance to the economy
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

56. Which one of the following is the objective of Financial Stability and Development Council ?
(A) To address inter-regulatory issues only
(B) To focus on financial literacy only
(C) To focus on financial inclusion only
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) All (A) , (B) and (C)
Ans : (C)

57. For which one of the following reasons has the Planning Com-mission decided to convert itself into a system Reforms Commission ?
(A) It is to make people to people contact
(B) It is to understand the problems of people
(C) It is to review the implementation of its policies
(D) It is aimed at changing economic profile of the country
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

58. Which one of the following sectors in India has attracted highest amount of Foreign Direct Investment during 2009-10 ?
(A) Manufacturing
(B) Construction
(C) Wholesale and Retail Trade
(D) Financial Insurance, Real Estate
(E) Civil Aviation
Ans : (B)

59. Which of the following is/are a renewable source of energy ?
1. Wind
2.Solar
3. Thermal
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (E)

60. Expand the term SWIFT—
(A) Society for Worldwide Inter-national Financial Telecommunications
(B) Society for Worldwide Inter-bank Financial Telecommunications
(C) Society for Worldwide Inter-national Financial Transfers
(D) Society for Worldwide Inter-bank Fiscal Transactions
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

61. For which one of the following reasons. NABARD has set up joint liability groups (JLG) of farmers ?
(A) To facilitate delivery of credit to farmers
(B) To facilitate better delivery of credit to farmers through informal sources
(C) To facilitate better delivery of credit to share croppers and those who do not have their own land
(D) To facilitate better delivery of credit to farmers through Panchayats
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

62. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking World ?
(A) Holding Company
(B) Post dated cheque
(C) Credit
(D) Time deposit
(E) Centripetal force
Ans : (E)

63. What is the extent of claim that can be entertained by a Lok Adalat ?
(A) Up to lakhs
(B) Up to 10 lakhs
(C) Up to 20 lakhs
(D) Up to 50 lakhs
(E) No limit
Ans : (A)

64. ‘ASHA’ is a scheme for providing which of the following services to the people in India ?
(A) Health Service
(B) Clean water
(C) Primary Education
(D) Employment for 100 days
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

65. Some private organizations are running e-choupals, to help which of the following section of society ?
(A) Farmers
(B) Small businessman
(C) Cooperative Credit Societies
(D) School-going children
(E) Unemployed youth
Ans : (A)

66. Which is the currency of U.A.E. ?
(A) Dirham
(B) Dinar
(C) Dollar
(D) Taka
(E) Pound Sterling
Ans : (A)

67. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘A bend in the River’ ?
(A) Chetan Bhagat
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Kiran Desai
(D) Anita Desai
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

68. Which of the following terms is used in game of Cricket ?
(A) Love
(B) Scoop
(C) LBW
(D) Tee
(E) Back-hand drive
Ans : (C)

69. Which one of the following was India’s per cent GDP growth during 2009-10 ?
(A) 6•7
(B) 9•2
(C) 7•4
(D) 9•7
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

70. Which one of the following countries in Europe is facing financial crisis ?
(A) Ireland
(B) Portugal
(C) Rumania
(D) Hungary
(E) France
Ans : (D)

71. Which of the following schemes is launched for school children ?
(A) Rajlakshmi
(B) Kutir Jyoti
(C) Mid Day Meal
(D) Swajal Dhara
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

72. Loans of small or very small amounts given to low income group people are known as—
(A) Investment Loans
(B) Micro Credit
(C) Savings Loan
(D) Secured Loans
(E) Cash Credit Loans
Ans : (B)

73. Which of the following is the Central Bank of U.S.A. ?
(A) Federation of Banks in U.S.A.
(B) Citigroup U.S.A.
(C) Bank of America
(D) Central Bank of U.S.A.
(E) Federal Reserve System
Ans : (E)

74. Which one of the following countries was second biggest net importer of goods and services in the year 2009 ?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Germany
(E) Russia
Ans : (B)

75. The activity of purchasing shares of various companies is called—
(A) On-line Trading
(B) Share Trading
(C) Real estate investment
(D) Corporate Trading
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

UGC-NET/JRF Examination, 2010

Sociology
Paper-II

(Exam Held on June 2010) 

1. Who among the following authors initially used the term ‘social physics’ for Sociology?
(A) Spencer
(B) Comte
(C) Tonnies
(D) Weber
Ans : (B)

2. An author thought of ‘society to be consisting in the conscious-ness of kind’.
Identify from among the following—
(A) Cooley
(B) Ward
(C) Simmel
(D) Giddings
Ans : (D)

3. What does the social relationship primarily involve ?
(A) Institutions
(B) Religion
(C) Consciousness of other people
(D) Associations
Ans : (C)


4. A group organised to achieve a certain purpose is known as which among the following ?
(A) Institution
(B) Community
(C) Association
(D) State
Ans : (C)

5. Who among the following thought of religion to an opium of the people ?
(A) Freud
(B) Mosca
(C) Marx
(D) Durkheim
Ans : (C)

6. Who said : “Civilization is always advancing but not culture.” ?
(A) Johnson
(B) MacIver
(C) Toynbee
(D) Berger
Ans : (B)

7. Match the authors (List-I) with their books (List-II)—
List-I(a) MacIver
(b) Davis
(c) Berger
(d) Bierstedt
List-II
1. Invitation to Sociology
2. Society
3. The Social Order
4. Human Society
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (D)

8. Which is the basic distinction between culture and civilization ?
(A) Culture is what we have achieved and civilization is what we aspire to achieve
(B) Culture is what comes out of intelligence but civilization is what comes out of experience
(C) Culture is secondary but civilization is primary
(D) Culture is what we are and civilization is what we have
Ans : (D)

9. Ceremonies that mark a critical transition in the life of an individual from one phase of life-cycle to another are called—
(A) Role-taking
(B) Rites of Passage
(C) Status Crystallization
(D) Status set
Ans : (B)

10. Who among the following gave the concept of anticipatory socialisation ?
(A) Merton
(B) Parsons
(C) Homans
(D) Sumner
Ans : (A)

11. Read the following two statements (A) Assertion and (R) Reason, and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : Monogamy is the most common form of marriage in the contemporary society.
Reason (R) : Status of women gets enhanced only through monogamy.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

12. Match List-I with List-II by using the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Ingroup and outgroup
(b) Primary and secondary group
(c) Gemeinschaft and Gesellschaft
(d) Closed and open groups
List-II1. Homans
2. Tonnies
3. Cooley
4. Summer
5. Durkheim
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (B)

13. When a girl of the higher caste marries a boy of the lower caste, the system is known as—
(A) Levirate
(B) Anuloma
(C) Sororate
(D) Pratiloma
Ans : (D)

14. In the matriarchal family the position of a Woman is recognised to be supreme in all matters.
Which of the following is not its characteristic ?
(A) Descent is reckoned through mother
(B) Marriage relations are not permanent
(C) Wife lives in the house of her husband
(D) Property is inheritable by the females
Ans : (C)

15. Who has given the concept of atomistic family ?
(A) Murdock
(B) Zimmerman
(C) Durkheim
(D) Warner
Ans : (B)

16. Match List-I (Rules of Restriction) with List-II (Name of Rule) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list—
List-I
(a) One should seek a spouse from outside one’s descent group.
(b) Women of the higher caste cannot marry men of lower caste.
(c) One should marry only within one’s caste group.
(d) The men of higher caste could marry women of lower caste.
List-II1. Pratiloma
2. Exogamy
3. Anuloma
4. Endogamy
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (D)

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I (Authors)
(a) Peter Worsley
(b) W. W. Rostow
(c) Andre Gunder Frank
(d) Reinhard Bendix
List-II (Books)
1. The Stages of Economic Growth
2. Under development or Revolution
3. The Third World
4. Nation Building and Citizenship : Studies of Our Changing Social Order
5. Asian Drama
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 5 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 1 2 5
Ans : (B)

18. There is a lot of difference between ancient and modern bureaucracies. Which factor among the following does not denote this difference ?
(A) Greater specialization of functions
(B) Vastness of modern bureaucracy
(C) Dominant aspect of society
(D) Hierarchy of command
Ans : (D)

19. The ‘looking glass self’ means that we learn who we are—
(A) By self feeling
(B) By an act of imitation
(C) By other people’s experience with us
(D) By imaging ourselves to be someone else
Ans : (A)

20. The ‘super ego’ according to Freud represents the part of an individual’s personality that was created—
(A) Through socialization during the formative years
(B) Through socialization in the old age
(C) Through socialization process which occurs throughout one’s life
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

21. Which one of the following is not a functional utility of social stratification ?
(A) It helps in providing opportunities
(B) It develops a spirit of struggle
(C) It helps in deciding responsibility of everyone in the society
(D) It helps in identifying unsuitable persons in society
Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following theories makes us believe that caste system is not of human but of divine origin ?
(A) Racial theory
(B) Political theory
(C) Occupational theory
(D) Traditional theory
Ans : (D)

23. Which one of the following is an essential element of the social class ? Feeling of—
(A) Equality among the members of a class
(B) Superiority against those who are at the lower ladder of status
(C) Inferiority against those who are at the higher ladder of status
(D) All the above
Ans : (A)

24. Consider the following statements—
Sanskritization is the process of—
1. Orthogenetic change
2. Heterogenetic change
3. Change in cultural structure
4. Change in social structure
Which of the statement given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : (C)

25. Which of the following concepts are applied to analyse the process of civilization change ?
(A) Gemeinschaft and Gesellschaft
(B) Zweckrational and Wertrational
(C) Mechanical and Organic Solidarity
(D) Sensate and Ideational Culture
Ans : (D)

26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list—
List-I
(a) Ethnic
(b) Reform
(c) Secessionist
(d) Subnational
List-II
1. Naga Movement
2. Jharkhand Movement
3. Birsa Movement
4. Bhakti Movement
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)

27. Who propounded the theory of ‘Internal Structure of Role’ ?
(A) Radcliffe Brown
(B) Nadel
(C) Levistrauss
(D) Murdock
Ans : (B)

28. Who among the following formulated the theory of ‘Middle Class’ within the Marxian frame-work ?
(A) Collins
(B) Coser
(C) Dahrendorf
(D) Engles
Ans : (C)

29. According to Radcliffe-Brown, which of the following does not contribute to the integration and survival of the society ?
(A) Kinship system
(B) Leadership
(C) Lineage
(D) Rituals
Ans : (B)

30. Which of the following requisites is not applicable to symbolic system of Malinowski ?
(A) Production and distribution of consumer goods
(B) Social control and regulation of behaviour
(C) Organisation and execution of authority
(D) Communal rhythm in daily life and activities
Ans : (C)

31. In which of the following statements, Durkheim has identified the indirect functions of crime ?
(A) Collective sentiment against the infringement of norms
(B) Fear of punishment
(C) Flexibility in society
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

32. Who has advocated that functional analysis need not be con-fined to society as a whole but it can be extended to an organisation, institution or group ?
(A) Levistrauss
(B) Malinowski
(C) Parsons
(D) Merton
Ans : (C)

33. There are two statements, one Assertion (A) and other is Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : Social analysis of action is ultimately concerned with individuals and not collectivities.
Reason (R) : Collectivities are treated as solely the resultants and modes of organisation of particular acts of individuals and hence these alone can be treated as agents in a course of subjectively understandable action.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

34. Which of the following is applicable to Pareto’s Logical Action ?
(A) Subjectively logical action
(B) Objectively logical action
(C) Both subjectively and objectively logical action
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following is associated with basic principles of symbolic interaction ?
(A) People cannot modify the symbols us ed in interaction
(B) People can modify the symbols used in interaction based on subjective understanding
(C) People are able to modify or alter the symbols used in interaction based on the interpretation of situation
(D) People can modify symbols used in interaction based on the capacity to think
Ans : (C)

36. According to Marx, which of the following is considered to be the most crucial element for class struggle ?
(A) Class interest
(B) Class consciousness
(C) Class formation
(D) Class identity
Ans : (B)

37. Who was the first to use the comparative method or indirect experiment method in Sociology?
(A) Max Weber
(B) Emile Durkheim
(C) Herbert Spencer
(D) V. Pareto
Ans : (B)

38. Who has used ‘participant observation’ method for collection of data ?
(A) A. R. Radcliffe Brown
(B) B. Malinowski
(C) S. C. Dube
(D) N. K. Bose
Ans : (B)

39. Who has written on ‘objectivity’ in his methodological writings ?
(A) W. Dilthey
(B) Emile Durkheim
(C) Max Weber
(D) Daya Krishna
Ans : (B)

40. Match List-I with List-II and mark the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :
List-I (Books)
(a) Rules of Sociological Method
(b) Statistical Reasoning in Sociology
(c) Methodology of Social Sciences
(d) Methods in Social Research
List-II (Authors)
1. Goode and Hatt
2. Max Weber
3. Schuessler and Mueller
4. Emile Durkheim
5. P. F. Lazarsfeld
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (D)

41. Who has propounded the idea that we can treat social facts (phenomena) as things ?
(A) R. K. Merton
(B) Paul F. Lazarsfeld
(C) Emile Durkheim
(D) Max Weber
Ans : (C)

42. Which type of question(s) are investigated in exploratory research design ?
(A) Why is it ?
(B) What is it ?
(C) How is it ?
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)

43. Which method is more suitable for collecting data from non-literate communities ?
(A) Questionnaire
(B) Observation
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

44. Purpose of case study method is—
(A) To generalize about relation-ships
(B) To explore desired relation-ships of a phenomenon
(C) To explore maximum possible relationships of a phenomenon
(D) To relate it to select relation-ships of a phenomenon
Ans : (C)

45. Which average can be calculated from an open ended table ?
(A) Median and Mode
(B) Mode and Mean
(C) Mean and Median
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

46. When one variable is qualitative and another variable is quantitative, which measure will be for finding covariation between them ?
(A) Yule’s (Q)
(B) Phi coefficient (Φ)
(C) Rank correlation (P)
(D) Chi square (χ²)
Ans : (D)

47. Match List-I with List-II and mark the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :
List-I(a) Participant Observation
(b) Social Facts
(c) Versetehen
(d) Middle range theory
List-II1. Max Weber
2. R. K. Merton
3. Emile Durkheim
4. A. R. Radcliffe-Brown
5. W. F. Whyte
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 5 3 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 5
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 5
Ans : (A)

48. Which of the following methods is known as probability sampling ?
(A) A sample selected by lottery from the totality
(B) A sample selected of those who were available
(C) A sample selected considering the purpose of research
(D) A sample selected by considering the various categories of respondents
Ans : (A)

49. Which one of the following statistics will be used to find out covariation between two qualitative variables ?
(A) Phi (Φ)
(B) Yule’s Q
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

50. In which one of the following concepts has M. N. Srinivas explained caste mobility as a process of Social and Cultural change ?
(A) Sanskritization
(B) Secularization
(C) Westernization
(D) Modernization
Ans : (A)

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Union Bank of India Clerk Exam., 2010

General English
(Exam Held on 10-1-2010)

Directions—(Q. 1–5) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four boldly printed words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the boldly printed words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

1. RBI is unwilling (A) to enforce (B) these reuglations as these will discourage (C) investment. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (E)

2. Many Indian firms have entry (A) into partnership (B) with foreign (C) ones of late. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (A)

3. This is a prime (A) example (B) of what the government can achieve (C) if it is determine. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)


4. They managed (A) to accomplice (B) this by coming (C) up with unique (D) schemes. All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

5. In such circumstanses (A) do not take unnecessary (B) risks (C) with your savings. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 6–20) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Rajendra was a landlord. He had made a lot of money by cheating and ill-treating his laboures who worked in the fields. One day, a young man named Mani came to Rajendra, asking for work. Rajendra was pleasantly surprised. No one had ever wanted to work for him because of his reputation, and here was someone walking right into his house ! Mani’s next few words surprised him even more. Mani said, “I will work for you for free. Only give me a place to sleep, two sets of clothes and two square meals a day.” Rajendra was beside himself with joy when he heard this and was about to agree, when Mani added, “I have only one condition : I will tell you the truth always, but one day in the year, I will lie.”

Rajendra, who lied happily everyday of the year, agreed to this odd condition. So Mani began working for him. He was a wonderful worker–hard-working and trustworthy. He was very honest and soon became Rajendra’s right-hand man. Because of Mani’s hard work, Rajendra had an excellent harvest. He and his wife, Manda, decided to have a big feast to celebrate. They invited all their relatives and friends, from the village and outside as well. Everyone was looking forward to the delicious feast being planned. On the morning of the feast, Rajendra decided he would also give away some gifts to his relatives, just to show off. So he set off for the market in his cart.

As soon as he was out of sight, Mani went running to Manda. He wept loudly and beat his chest. Then he fell on the floor, sobbing and announced, “The master is dead ! The cart overturned on the road. Our master has been flattened like a chapatti !” As soon as Rajendra’s wife and relatives heard this, they started wailing. Mani rushed out, saying he would bring back the body, while everyone started preparing for the last rites. Mani now went running to his master and said, “Master ! Your wife is dead. A cobra bit her and she fell to the ground, as blue as the spring sky.” Rajendra was stunned. What ! His beloved Manda, his partner in all his schemes, was dead ! He hurried home shouting her name.

Manda too was weeping loudly, sitting in the courtyard. When she saw her husband run in, she stopped mid-wail, and Rajendra too stoodopen mouthed. Then they fell into each other’s arms, unable to believe their eyes.

As one, they turned to Mani. “What is the meaning of this, Mani ?” His master angrily demanded. Mani smiled. “Remember my condition, that I would lie once in the year ? Well, I chose today. You see what lies can do ? Now think what happens to the people whom you lie to everyday of the year !” Saying this, he walked out, leaving behind a stunned and ashamed landlord.

6. Why did Mani want to work for Rajendra ?
(A) Rajendra offered him food, clothing and shelter.
(B) To learn from Rajendra who was a successful businessman.
(C) To earn his trust so he could take over the business one day.
(D) He wanted to show Rajendra the error of his ways.
(E) Rajendra did not mind bad habit of telling lies.
Ans : (D)

7. Why did Rajendra shout at Mani one day ?
(1) Mani had lied to Rajendra and his wife causing them to fight.
(2) The feast had to be cancelled because of Mani and Rajendra suffered huge losses.
(3) He had embarrassed his wife and him in front of their friends and relatives.
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (D)

8. What was Rajendra’s immediate reaction on hearing the news of his wife’s ‘death’ ?
(A) He panicked because his wife was responsible for them being rich.
(B) He ran home at once because he doubted Mani’s honesty.
(C) He was very upset and rushed home at once.
(D) He wanted to make funeral arrangements.
(E) He went home to inform everyone that the feast was cancelled.
Ans : (C)

9. Why did Rajendra go out on the day of the feast ?
(A) He wanted to share his good fortune with his relatives.
(B) He took gifts for his relatives who were not as well off as he was.
(C) He wanted to boast about his prosperity to his relatives.
(D) To purchase groceries required for the feast from the market.
(E) He wanted to personally invite his relatives who lived outside the village.
Ans : (C)

10. Why did Mani work very hard for Rajendra ?
(A) He took pride in his work and wanted to ensure a good harvest.
(B) He was grateful to Rajendra for giving him a job.
(C) He knew Rajendra would share the profit with his right hand man.
(D) He considered himself as part to Rejendra’s family.
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

11. Why did Rajendra accept Mani’s condition ?
(A) He did not value honesty.
(B) He had no intention of letting Mani fulfill it.
(C) He was an expert at detecting when people lied.
(D) He knew how difficult it was to stop lying.
(E) He predicted that Mani would be an excellent worker.
Ans : (D)

12. Why did Mani lie to Manda ?
(A) Out of revenge for not being invited to the feast.
(B) To find out whether Rajendra’s relatives cared about him or his wealth.
(C) To help her realise how much Rajendra meant to her.
(D) To delay the start of the feast as his master had not yet arrived.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) Rajendra was ashamed only because Mani had managed to trick him.
(B) Mani had many friends who were cheated by Rajendra.
(C) Rajendra was a miser because despite being wealthy he travelled by cart.
(D) Mani was clever and a good actor.
(E) Manda was an excellent cook and had prepared a delicious feast.
Ans : (C)

14. Which of the following can be said about Manda ?
(1) She trusted Mani more than Rajendra.
(2) She had a good relationship with her husband’s relatives.
(3) She was dishonest.
(A) None
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (A)

15. What opinion did Rajendra’s workers have of him ?
(A) He was generous for paying them and providing for their basic needs.
(B) He was a cheat and he exploited them.
(C) He was a weak man who listened only to his wife.
(D) He was unfair to his workers and paid each a different salary.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–18) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

16. Pleasantly
(A) Extremely
(B) Delightfully
(C) Charming
(D) Friendly
(E) Coolly
Ans : (A)

17. Right
(A) Suitable
(B) Legally
(C) Accurately
(D) Straight
(E) Immediately
Ans : (D)

18. Wailing(A) Crying
(B) Complaining
(C) Shouting
(D) Tears
(E) Grumbling
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 19–20) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

19. Celebrate
(A) Insult
(B) Reject
(C) Dishonour
(D) Mourn
(E) Infamous
Ans : (C)

20. Planned
(A) Organised
(B) Deliberate
(C) Cancelled
(D) Informal
(E) Automatic
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
1. Being generous by nature, the king offered them a meal and treated them kindly.
2. In appreciation the king ordered a stew to be prepared for the feast in honour of the farmer.
3. The king welcomed them too and placed before each a bowl of water saying. “This is the stew of the stew of the hare !”
4. A few days later, a few people came to the court claiming to be neighbours of the farmer.
5. A poor farmer presented a fine hare to the king.
6. Not long afterwards a large number of people appeared at the palace and introduced themselves as neighbours of the neighbours of the farmer.

21. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (C)

22. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (D)

23. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

24. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

25. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

26. It is too early to say how the impact the new tax will have on investors.
(A) what impact
(B) that the impact
(C) how much impacts
(D) what are the impacts of
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

27. Unfortunately many of our towns and cities do have more good transportation systems.
(A) have a good
(B) not have good
(C) not have much good
(D) not having better
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

28. Banks charge differently rate of interest depending on the size of the loan.
(A) difference in rate of interests
(B) differently what rate of interest
(C) different rates of interest
(D) the different rate of interest
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

29. It is necessary that we take any steps to reduce pollution soon.
(A) we should take every
(B) we have taken no
(C) us to take any
(D) we take some
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

30. Kindly ask his advice regarding the various health insurance policies presently available.
(A) him to advise that
(B) regarding his advice
(C) that he should advise
(D) about his advice
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. The scheme has been (A) / implemented only in these (B) / part of the country and the (C) / Prime Minister will visit it shortly. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

32. The company has (A) / decided to sell half (B) / of it shares (C) / to a Chinese firm. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

33. Rajiv has won a prize of (A) / two million dollars which (B) / has to be shared (C) / with all his team members. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

34. We have an account (A) / with this bank and (B) / find the staff much (C) / helpful and knowledgeable. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

35. By opening so many (A) / branches in such a (B) / short time, they have (C) / used the wrong strategy. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

36. I do not understand (A) / about how the payment (B) / was made without (C) / the manager’s permission. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

37. We have been (A) / telling them to (B) / drive carefully but (C) / they are never listening. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

38. During the interview (A) / with the General Manager (B) / I asked her what challenges (C) / she was faced. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

39. There is all sorts (A) / of regulations that have (B) / to be met before (C) / we get a licence. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

40. Today we are closer (A) / to reaching an agreement (B) / than we were (C) / a few months ago. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

For as long as I can remember I have thought of myself as a teacher and I still do even today. But in 1965 I decided to …(41)… my hand at business. So I …(42)… my father to allow me to …(43)… up a printing and packaging plant. I …(44)… the project proposal and applied for a …(45)… Once it was approved I went …(46)… the challenges of employing the right …(47)… My project was successful and I …(48)… an attractive profit. Becoming a rich businessman …(49)… never my dream. It was just a …(50)… of proving to myself and my family that I could be a success in buisness. This experience also gave me a lot of selfconfidence.

41. (A) attempt
(B) try
(C) give
(D) show
(E) use
Ans : (B)

42. (A) permitted
(B) appealed
(C) offered
(D) persuaded
(E) prevailed
Ans : (D)

43. (A) built
(B) raise
(C) stand
(D) begin
(E) set
Ans : (E)

44. (A) extended
(B) prepared
(C) thought
(D) formulate
(E) draft
Ans : (B)

45. (A) loan
(B) post
(C) leave
(D) job
(E) relief
Ans : (A)

46. (A) through
(B) ahead
(C) for
(D) away
(E) under
Ans : (A)

47. (A) equipment
(B) knowledge
(C) behaviour
(D) role
(E) people
Ans : (E)

48. (A) gain
(B) benefited
(C) obtain
(D) reap
(E) made
Ans : (E)

49. (A) fulfilled
(B) pursued
(C) was
(D) had
(E) stayed
Ans : (C)

50. (A) state
(B) certificate
(C) way
(D) proof
(E) direction
Ans : (B)

Bank Of India 2010 General Awareness Solved Paper

 

1. The President of the Palestine recently emphasized that his country will not resume peace talks until Israel fully halts settlement building in the—
(A) West Bank
(B) Haifa
(C) Gaza
(D) Tel-Aviv-Yafo
(E) Jerusalem
Ans : (A)

2. All the major world leaders gathered in Berlin in Nov. 2009 to mark the 20th anniversary of—
(A) European Union
(B) NATO
(C) Fall of Berlin Wall
(D) G-20
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Now almost all major newspaper journals and magazines are printing research reports giving the analysis and/or the causes of the sub-prime crisis which gripped America and the world a few months back. Which of the following was/were amongst the common cause(s) of the same ?
(They were present in almost all the economies)
(1) The problem was that investors erroneously believed property prices were quite predictable and built a whole edifice of financial planning on the back of the American housing market.
(2) Credit rating agencies all over the world were not equipped to forecast the effect of sub-prime crisis on world economy. Agencies were over-confident and did not react in time.
(3) Neither USA nor other countries took a note of the crisis in time. In fact they ignored it for quite some time.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)

4. If you see a big hoarding at a prominent public place, the punch line of which says ‘We All Were Born Free’; ‘We All Have Equal Rights’, in all probability, the hoarding is put up by—
(A) National Commission for Farmers
(B) National Human Rights Commission
(C) Directorate of Income Tax
(D) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(E) Union Public Service Commission
Ans : (B)

5. Nowadays we frequently read news items about ‘Derivatives’ as used in the world of finance and money market. Which of the following statement(s) correctly describes what a derivative is and how it affects money/finance markets ?
(1) Derivatives enable individuals and companies to insure themselves against financial risk.
(2) Derivatives are like fixed deposits in a bank and are the safest way to invest one’s idle money lying in a bank.
(3) Derivatives are the financial instruments which were used in India even during the British Raj.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. Many a time we read in the newspapers that RBI has changed or revised a particular ratio/rate by a few basis points. What is basis point ?
(A) Ten per cent of one hundredth point
(B) One hundredth of 1%
(C) One hundredth of 10%
(D) Ten per cent of 1000
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following issues cannot come under the purview of the functioning of the Human Rights Commission of a country ?
(A) Racial Discrimination
(B) Treatment to Prisoners of War
(C) Human Trafficking
(D) Child Abuse
(E) Climate Migration
Ans : (E)

8. A prominent international weekly sometime ago printed a caption on its cover page which read ‘Brazil Takes Off’. Other major newspapers/magazines also printed similar stories/articles in their publications at that time. Why have magazines/newspapers decided to talk about Brazil these days ?
(1) All major economies of the world have been taking time to recover from the recession but Brazil was one of those which was ‘Last in and First out’.
(2) Brazil is a member of BRIC but unlike China it is a democracy, unlike India, it has no hostile neighbours, no insurgents and unlike Russia it exports more oil and arms and treats foreign investors with more respect.
(3) Brazil is the world’s second largest booming economy.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)

9. Which of the following countries has conferred the honour of ‘Legion d’ honneur’ on Bharat Ratna Lata Mangeshkar ?
(A) Germany
(B) Norway
(C) Japan
(D) U.K.
(E) France
Ans : (E)

10. Expand the term NREGA—
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(B) National Rural Electrification Governing Agency
(C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(D) New Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

11. The Rajya Sabha has recently cleared the new poll bill. Which one of the following amendment(s) is/are made in this bill ?
It has proposed—
(A) Increasing the security deposits to more than double
(B) Restricting the publication of exit polls
(C) Ensuring speedy disposal of electoral disputes
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) All (A), (B) and (C)
Ans : (D)

12. The market in which long term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold is commonly known as—
(A) Commodities Exchange
(B) Capital Market
(C) Bull Market
(D) Bullion Market
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. Which one of the following was India’s top destination for exports during 2009 ?
(A) UAE
(B) USA
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) Bangladesh
Ans : (A)

14. Which one of the following will be the first High Court in India, to implement the concept of ‘ecourts’ ?
(A) Delhi
(B) A.P.
(C) Chennai
(D) Kolkata
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. Amongst the following, which one of the following sectors provides the highest contribution in Industrial Production Index ?
(A) Crude Oil
(B) Petro Refinery Products
(C) Electricity
(D) Coal
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. Amongst the following sectors, which sector/segment has shown the highest per cent growth in the current fiscal ?
(A) Mining
(B) Manufacturing
(C) Electricity, gas and water supply
(D) Banking and Finance
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. As per the reports published in newspapers, India purchased around 200 tonnes of gold (almost half the quantity of gold put up for sale) in Sept. 2009. India purchased this gold from which of the following organizations ?
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) International Gold Council
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

18. World Trade Organisation (WTO)’s ministerial meeting was organized in which of the following cities recently ?
(A) Geneva
(B) Washington
(C) Paris
(D) Port of Spain
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. In which one of the following countries, was the recent Commonwealth Meet (CHOGAM) held ?
(A) Trinidad
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Jamaica
(E) U.K.
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following decisions taken by the RBI will promote the concept of financial inclusion in the country ?
(A) To appoint some additional entities as business correspondents
(B) To collect reasonable service charges from the customer in a transparent manner for providing the services.
(C) To ask the banks to open at least 50 new accounts daily in non serviced areas.
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

21. For recapitalization of Public Sector Banks, the World Bank has decided to provide funds to India. These funds will be made available in the form of—
(A) Soft Loan
(B) Term Loan
(C) Emergency aid
(D) Grants
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. Citizens of which one of he following age-groups (in years) are covered under the New Pension System (NPS) ?
(A) 18–50
(B) 21–55
(C) 25–55
(D) 18–60
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

23. Which one of the following is the objective of the flagship scheme ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ (RSBY) ?
(A) To provide life insurance cover to rural households
(B) To provide health insurance cover to rural households
(C) To provide both life and health insurance cover to rural household
(D) To provide life and health insurance covers only to people living below poverty line
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

24. Which one of the following had set up the N. R. Narayana Murthy Committee on issues relating to Corporate Governance ?
(A) SEBI
(B) RBI
(C) CII
(D) Ministry of Finance, GOI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. The proceeds of the disinvestment of profitable public sector units will be used for which of the following purposes ?
(A) Expansion of existing capacity of PSEs
(B) Modernisation of PSEs
(C) Opening of new PSEs
(D) Meeting the expenditure for various social sector schemes
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Which one of the following is the target fixed for fiscal deficit in the year 2010-2011 ?
(A) 3•5%
(B) 4•0%
(C) 5•5%
(D) 5•0%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Which one of the following companies is the largest producer of natural gas in the country ?
(A) ONGC
(B) OIL
(C) Cairn India
(D) RIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Which one of the following states has sought a package of Rs. 500 crores ($ 100 million) for its Rural Poverty Reduction Programme ?
(A) M.P.
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) A.P.
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. Chinese objections have stalled the road work at the village of Demchok, on the Indian side of the line of control. In which one of the following states is this village located ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

30. Constitutionally, which one of the following can levy Service Tax ?
(A) Union Govt. only
(B) State Govt. only
(C) Union Territory Govt. only
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

31. In the proposed low cost pension scheme, which one of the following has been made responsible for maintaining of the records of pension account of an individual ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) National Securities Depositories Ltd. (NSDL)
(C) Stock Holding Corporation of India
(D) RBI
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. Which one of the following is/are implication(s) of large inflow of foreign exchange into the country ?
1. It makes monetary management difficult for RBI.
2. It creates money supply, asset bubbles and inflation.
3. It weakens the competitiveness of Indian exports.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

33. The Central Banks of which one of the following countries has offered $ 115 billion emergency credit to support its economy hit by falling prices and also to strengthen its currency ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C) U.K.
(D) USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

34. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ?
(A) The Golden Gate
(B) A House for Mr. Biswas
(C) 2 States
(D) White Tiger
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. NTPC Ltd. is in the process of exploring opportunities to source coal from overseas. In which one of the following countries has the NTPC identified two new coal mines ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Australia
(C) South Korea
(D) Indonesia
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. Which of the following organizations has raised its loan amount to India to make it US $ 7 billion in 2009-10 fiscal ?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) World Bank
(D) European Union
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. Who amongst the following cricket players became the first to score 17000 runs in One Day Internationals ?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) Stephen Fleming
(C) Ricky Ponting
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. The Govt. of India has decided to use the Core Banking System of banks to ensure proper usage of funds provided for which of its following programmes ?
(A) Literacy Mission
(B) Pradhanmantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(C) National Health Mission
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. Famous Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for exemplary work in the field of—
(A) Sports
(B) Literature
(C) Science & Technology
(D) Social Service
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

40. The Reverse Mortgage Scheme was launched by some organizations a few years back. This was done to help which of the following sections of society ?
(A) Beneficiaries of the NREGA
(B) People living Below Poverty Line
(C) Youngsters
(D) Senior Citizens
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. The organization of the South East Asian countries is known as—
(A) OPEC
(B) ASEAN
(C) NATO
(D) UNCTAD
(E) SAARC
Ans : (B)

42. ‘Miss Earth 2009’ title has been conferred upon—
(A) Alejandra Pedrajas
(B) Sandra Saifert
(C) Jessica Barboza
(D) Larissa Ramos
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

43. Which of the following countries became the third largest producer of Steel in the world in 2009 ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Japan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

44. The Foreign Trade policy is announced recently by the Govt. of India. Which of the following ministries/agencies announce the same ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Export Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
(C) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(D) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. Irina Bokova has taken over as the Chief of the—
(A) ILO
(B) UNICEF
(C) OPEC
(D) UNO
(E) UNESCO
Ans : (E)

46. Dorjee Khandu has taken over as the Chief Minister of—
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Assam
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football ?
(A) Caddy
(B) Cutback
(C) Mid-on
(D) Love
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

48. Which of the following is considered a Non Food Crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Bajra
(D) Rice
(E) Jute
Ans : (E)

49. Who amongst the following was the Prime Minister of Nepal immediately prior to Madhav Kumar Nepal ?
(A) Ram Baran Yadav
(B) Pushpakamal Dahal
(C) Girija Prasad Koirala
(D) Mahendra Kumar Suryavanshi
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

50. The 10th India-European Summit was held in New Delhi in November 2009. Who amongst the following represented India and also chaired the same ?
(A) S. M. Krishna
(B) Pratibha Patil
(C) Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Manmohan Singh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

GEOGRAPHY MCQs

1. Which of the following rocks is different from the remaining three on the basis of its mode of origin?
(A) Limestone
(B) Sandstone
(C) Shale
(D) Marble
Ans : (D)

2. Which of the following land forms is not associated with river erosion?
(A) Waterfall
(B) V-shaped valley
(C) Moraines
(D) Ox-bow lake
Ans : (C)

3. Which of the following latitudes is the longest?
(A) 23°N
(B) 66°N
(C) 0°
(D) 80°N
Ans : (C)

4. Two places on the same meridian must have the same—
(A) Length of summer
(B) Length of winter
(C) Latitude
(D) Solar time
Ans : (D)

5. When it is 6.00 AM on 0° meridian, at the same time what time would be there in India?
(A) 6.30 AM
(B) 9.30 AM
(C) 11.30 AM
(D) 5.30 AM
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following processes helps in the formation of rift valley?
(A) Seismism
(B) Faulting
(C) Folding
(D) Volcanism
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following names is given to the planetary winds blowing between the tropics?
(A) Monsoon
(B) Polar winds
(C) Westerlies
(D) Trade winds
Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following cities is not located on Varanasi-Chennai rail-route?
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Nagpur
(C) Jabalpur
(D) Allahabad
Ans : (D)

9. Where is Dead Sea situated in the following continents?
(A) Europe
(B) Australia
(C) Asia
(D) Africa
Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following industries is most developed in the Great Lakes region of North America?
(A) Cement and Paper
(B) Steel and Engineering
(C) Film industry
(D) Textile and Chemicals
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following group of countries is most famous for exporting wool and meat?
(A) Australia, Sri Lanka, Indonesia
(B) Argentina, France, Chile
(C) Australia, Argentina, New Zealand
(D) New Zealand, Argentina, Italy
Ans : (C)

12. Which of the following soils is most suitable for the cultivation of cotton in India?
(A) Red soil
(B) Laterite soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) Regur soil
Ans : (D)

13. Which of the following state groups is the largest producer of iron-ore in India?
(A) Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar
(B) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Punjab
(C) Maharashtra, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh
(D) Bihar, W. Bengal, Orissa
Ans : (A)

14. Which of the following landforms is different from other three on the basis of the mode of origin?
(A) Fold
(B) Anticline
(C) Nappes
(D) Rift Valley
Ans : (D)

15. Which of the following landform is not associated with glaciation?
(A) Hanging valley
(B) Moraines
(C) Inselberg
(D) Drumlin
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following order is given to the planets of solar system on the basis of their size?
(A) Saturn, Jupitar, Mercury, Neptune
(B) Jupitar, Saturn, Neptune, Mercury
(C) Jupitar, Mercury, Neptune, Saturn
(D) Neptune, Mercury, Saturn, Jupitar
Ans : (B)

17. As we go higher into the atmosphere, the air becomes—
(A) Thinner
(B) Denser
(C) Warmer
(D) Visible
Ans : (A)

18. From which of the following longitude the Indian standard time is determined?
(A) 82° 30' East
(B) 80° West
(C) 90° East
(D) 81° 30' East
Ans : (A)

19. Which of the following oceans are connected by Panama Canal?
(A) Pacific and Atlantic
(B) Atlantic and Indian Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean and Pacific
(D) Atlantic and North Ocean
Ans : (A)

20. For which crop production is 'Saopalo' famous?
(A) Cotton
(B) Maize
(C) Coffee
(D) Tea
Ans : (C)

21. Which of the following State group is largest producer of mineral oil in India?
(A) Gujarat, U. P., Maharashtra
(B) Maharashtra, W. Bengal, Assam
(C) Assam, U. P., Bihar
(D) Assam, Gujarat, Maharashtra
Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following water-ways does not pass through the Panama Canal?
(A) London-Honolulu.
(B) New York-San francisco
(C) New York-Buenos Aires
(D) New York-Sydney
Ans : (C)

23. Which of the following latitudes is a great circle?
(A) Equator
(B) 66°N
(C) 20°S
(D) 23°S
Ans : (A)

24. Which of the following city is not located on Delhi-Kolkata rail route?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Allahabad
(C) Gaya
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following industries is famous in the Ruhr industrial region of Europe?
(A) Textile and Chemicals
(B) Steel and Engineering
(C) Cement and Paper
(D) Ship building
Ans : (B)

26. If the direction of the earth's rotation on its axis is east-west, what would be the direction of Trade wind blowing in Southern hemisphere?
(A) South-West
(B) South-East
(C) North-East
(D) North-West
Ans : (B)

27. The coldest hour of the day is approximately—
(A) 5 a.m.
(B) 9 p.m.
(C) 3 a.m.
(D) 10 a.m.
Ans : (C)

28. Which of the followings is fibre mineral?
(A) Zinc
(B) Asbestos
(C) Coal
(D) Asphalt
Ans : (B)

29. What are asteroids?
(A) Minor planets revolving round the Sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(B) Luminous celestial bodies moving round the Sun
(C) A group of fixed stars arranged naturally
(D) Small pieces of solid matter which appear in the earth's atmosphere as shooting stars from out spaces and become visible through incandescence caused by the resistance of the air to their passage,
Ans : (A)

30. What is Isthmus?
(A) The mouth of a river where it joins the sea
(B) A narrow strip of sea dividing two oceans
(C) A narrow strip of land joining two seas or oceans
(D) A piece of projected land
Ans : (C)

31. Which of the following phenomena causes the shape of the Earth ?
(A) Internal structure
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Rotation
(D) Revolution
Ans : (C)

32. Which of the following is the location of a point on the globe that is antipodal to 65° North Latitude and 30° East Longitude?
(A) 65° North Lat., 30° West Long
(B) 30° South Lat., 65° East Long
(C) 65° South Lat., 150° West Long
(D) 30° North Lat., 65° West Long
Ans : (C)

33. The surface of the earth is still irregular inspite of millions of years of gradation, because—
(A) Gradation is a slow process
(B) Gradation does not reduce irregularities
(C) Deposition of material re-elevates the land
(D) Parts of the crust have been uplifted
Ans : (D)

34. What would result if the sedimentary deposit of the Ganga Plain is compressed between the Himalayas and the Deccan Plateau and then uplifted?
(A) Block mountain
(B) Fold mountain
(C) Rift valley
(D) Volcanic plateau
Ans : (B)

35. What would happen to ocean water if the moon comes nearer to the earth ?
(A) Fall of temperature
(B) Stopping of ocean currents
(C) Rise of sea level
(D) Increase in height of oceanic tides
Ans : (D)

36. The line joining places of equal atmospheric pressure is termed—
(A) Contour
(B) Isohyet
(C) Isotherm
(D) Isobar
Ans : (D)

37. What would happen to types of rainfall if the earth's surface becomes all plain?
(A) No cyclonic rainfall
(B) No orographic rainfall
(C) No convectional rainfall
(D) No frontal rainfall
Ans : (B)

38. The maximum risk to air travel is from—
(A) Clouds
(B) Rainfall
(C) Fogs
(D) Strong winds
Ans : (C)

39. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of rice in the world?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) Philippines
(D) Bangladesh
Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following countries possesses a strong natural resource base for iron and steel industry ?
(A) Russia
(B) Pakistan
(C) Japan
(D) Bangladesh
Ans : (A)

41. The present day search for fuels alternative to petroleum, is due mainly to—
(A) Iran-Iraq war
(B) Strained relations between Israel and Middle East countries
(C) Highly increased cost of petroleum
(D) Increase in the consumption of petroleum
Ans : (D)

42. What is the population density of a District which has 50 Lakh people and 25 thousand square kilometres area?
(A) 50 persons per sq. km.
(B) 100 persons per sq. km.
(C) 150 persons per sq. km.
(D) 200 persons per sq. km.
Ans : (D)

43. The Savana type of climate is characterized by—
(A) Humid summers and humid winters
(B) Humid summers and dry winters
(C) Humid winters and dry summers
(D) Humid throughout the year
Ans : (B)

44. Given below are the climate data of a particular station. In which of the following natural regions is the station located
Temperature——Rainfall
(Degrees Centigrade)——(Centimetres)
January——23.3——1.8
February——23.3——1.8
March——21.1——2.5
April——17.8——4.6
May——14.4——7.1
June——12.2——7.9
July——11.1——6.9
August——12.3——6.3
September——13.9——5.1
October——16.7——4.3
November——19.4——3.0
December——27.7——2.5
(A) Warm temperate East coast type
(B) Warm temperate West coast type
(C) Warm temperate Continent type
(D) Hot deserts
Ans : (B)

45. Which of the following groups of countries is arranged in descending order of area?
(A) Russia, Canada, China, U.S.A.
(B) Russia, U.S.A. Canada, China
(C) Russia, Canada, U.S.A., China
(D) Russia, China, U.S.A., Canada
Ans : (A)

46. Which of the following Industrial Regions of USA is located mainly on the basis of hydroelectric power?
(A) The New York, Philadelphia, Baltimore region
(B) The Southern New England Region
(C) The Southern Lake Michigan Region
(D) The Detroit Region
Ans : (B)

47. What should India increase in order to become one of the most prosperous countries of the world?
(A) Food production
(B) Industrial production
(C) Population
(D) Trade
Ans : (B)

48. Water power potential of India is great, but it has not been developed to its full extent. The major deterrant being that—
(A) Coal is available in plenty therefore it is not necessary to develop water power
(B) Raw materials required for the production of electric transformers are not available in India
(C) Rainfall is seasonal and as such requires costly storage resevoirs
(D) Lack of technical skill hinders the development of water power
Ans : (C)

49. Which of the following regions has almost prevalent types of natural vegetation in India?
(A) The Himalaya mountain
(B) The Deccan Plateau
(C) The Ganga plain
(D) The Coastal plains
Ans : (C)

50. For which of the following manufacturing industries does India have the most natural resources?
(A) Glass Synthetic rubber
(B) Synthetic rubber
(C) Iron and Steel
(D) Aluminium
Ans : (C)

51. One of the characteristics of India's population is lesser number of women compared to men. Which one of the following explains this phenomenon?
(A) Excess males at birth
(B) Lower social status of women
(C) Neglect of females in childhood
(D) High maternity mortality
Ans : (C)

52. The basic unit of settlement recurring throughout India is the village. Which of the following criteria is largely responsible for the selection of village sites?
(A) Behavioural patterns of the community
(B) Availability of flat land
(C) Essential resources like water and fuel
(D) Fuel resources and building materials
Ans : (C)

53. Which one of the following factors accounts largely for the dispersal of cotton textile industry from its original location around Bombay?
(A) The development of transportation, especially railways
(B) Extreme congestion in Mumbai and lack of space
(C) The development of hydro-electric power
(D) Improved technology
Ans : (B)

54. The main cause for Uttar Pradesh becoming the most important agricultural state of India is—
(A) Good cultivators
(B) Good climate
(C) Large market
(D) Extensive fertile plain
Ans : (D)

55. What locational advantage does India possess for International trade?
(A) Central location in the Eastern hemisphere
(B) Location in the middle of the developing countries
(C) Location at the sourthern end of Asia
(D) Location on the east-west oceanic route through the Suez Canal
Ans : (D)

56. The longest dam is—
(A) Aswan
(B) Hirakud
(C) Gorky
(D) Mangla
Ans : (B)

57. Which state in India is the largest producer of Saffron?
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Sikkim
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (A)

58. Which is the largest man-made lake in India?
(A) Chilka
(B) Dal
(C) Sambhar
(D) Bhakra
Ans : (D)

59. Where is the Gol Dumoaz located?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kamataka
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (C)

60. Gulmarg is a hill station in—
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (B)

61. The largest producer of cashewnut in India is—
(A) Kerala
(B) Gujarat
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)

62. Lal Bahadur National Academy of Administration is situated in—
(A) Pune
(B) Kolkata
(C) Dehradun
(D) Mussoorie
Ans : (D)

63. In what state is 'Rana Pratap Sagar' atomic power plant located?
(A) Haryana
(B) Gujarat
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (C)

64. Where is oil and Natural Gas Commission located?
(A) Haldia
(B) Dehradun
(C) Ankleshwar
(D) Cambay
Ans : (B)

65. Which of the following is situated at Agra ?
(A) Paratroopers Training College
(B) National Police Academy
(C) Central Tractor Organisation
(D) Air Force Flying College
Ans : (A)

66. The prevailing winds blowing from 30° S and 30° N towards the equator are termed as—
(A) Monsoon winds
(B) Antitrade winds
(C) Trade winds
(D) Polar winds
Ans : (C)

67. Irrigation is necessary for areas receiving rainfall—
(A) Less than 200 cm.
(B) Less than 75 cm.
(C) Less than 125 cm.
(D) At uncertain times
Ans : (B)

68. The reason for the necessity of irrigation in India is that—
(A) There is no rainfall at the time of need
(B) Indian crops require much water
(C) Indian farmers are in habit of watering the fields
(D) India is a hot country so water is easily evaporated
Ans : (A)

69. Which one of the following sources of irrigation in India is not suitable?
(A) Canals
(B) Karez
(C) Wells
(D) Tanks
Ans : (B)

70. In which of the following states of India, tank irrigation is most suitable?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Punjab
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Bihar
Ans : (A)
71. The canals of Kerala state are—
(A) Canals of Nagarjunasagar irrigation works
(B) Canals of Rampadsagar irrigation works
(C) Canals of Mangalam irrigation scheme
(D) Canals of the Mettur irrigation scheme
Ans : (C)

72. In which of the following state is Tungabhadra project of irrigation?
(A) Bihar
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (B)

73. How much part of India is irrigated by canals?
(A) 42%
(B) 60%
(C) 80%
(D) 25%
Ans : (A)

74. From where the Sirhind canal takes off?
(A) At Okhla near Delhi
(B) From Fire-lake at Khadakwesla
(C) From Gomati at Banbansa
(D) From the SutIej at Rupar
Ans : (D)

75. Where is Krishnaraja Sagar?
(A) In Kota
(B) In Udaipur
(C) In Mysore
(D) In Hyderabad
Ans : (C)

76. The number of wells in South India is very low because—
(A) The people of South India do not like to take water from wells
(B) Wells are difficult to dig because of hard rock underneath the thin layer of the soil
(C) There is too much rainfall therefore wells are not needed
(D) The people of South India do not know how to dig wells
Ans : (B)

77. For the production of wheat there should be—
(A) Cool and wet climate during its growing period but hot climate during the ripening period
(B) Sufficient heat but very little rainfall
(C) Sufficient heat and heavy rainfall
(D) Hot climate during the growing period but cool climate during the ripening period
Ans : (A)

78. During the summer monsoon the Himalayas have rains on their—
(A) Southern and western slopes
(B) Northern and eastern slopes
(C) Northern and western slopes
(D) Southern and eastern slopes
Ans : (D)

79. Which one of the following rivers originates from Amarkantak ?
(A) Son river
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Godavari river
(D) Sutlej river
Ans : (A)

80. The rivers of South India are—
(A) Suitable for hydro electricity
(B) Suitable sources of canals
(C) Full of water throughout the year
(D) Suitable for nevigation
Ans : (A)

81. Raining in Mumbai is—
(A) Mostly in summer
(B) Mostly in winter
(C) Throughout the year evenly
(D) Very rare
Ans : (A)

82. The Climate of India is—
(A) Mediterrian type
(B) Equatorial type
(C) Desert type
(D) Monsoon type
Ans : (D)

83. If Aravalli ranges were from east to west—
(A) There would be no difference at all
(B) Bengal would have been the dry area
(C) The western Rajasthan would never have been a desert
(D) Uttar Pradesh wold have been a desert
Ans : (C)

84. The range of temperature of Mathura in comparison of Kolkata is—
(A) Too much
(B) Too little
(C) Zero
(D) Uniform
Ans : (A)

85. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in the north-western region of India are part of—
(A) Trade winds
(B ) Westerlies
(C) Local disturbances
(D) Retreating monsoons
Ans : (B)

86. The chief production in region having black soil is—
(A) Cotton
(B) Rice
(C) Wheat
(D) Tea
Ans : (A)

87. Which one of the following soils found in India is the most useful for agriculture?
(A) Black or regur soil
(B) Alluvial soil
(C) Red and yellow soil
(D) Marshy soil
Ans : (B)

88. Kaziranga, the famous sanctuary of Assam is famous for—
(A) Rhinoes
(B) Tigers
(C) Lions
(D) Elephants
Ans : (A)

89. Sindri manufactures—
(A) Silk
(B) Paper
(C) Steel
(D) Fertilizers
Ans : (D)

90. Which one of the following forests is found in Sundarbans ?
(A) Evergreen forests
(B) Coniferous forests
(C) Coastal forests
(D) Deciduous forests
Ans : (C)

91. The leaves of the plants of desert forests are—
(A) Pointed in shape
(B) Small sized and thorny
(C) Long
(D) Broad
Ans : (B)

92. Railway coaches are made from—
(A) Shisham
(B) Deodar
(C) Teak
(D) Pine
Ans : (B)

93. Which one of the following is the biggest producer of rice?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Punjab
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (A)

94. What type of trees are found in the monsoon region?
(A) Broad leaf deciduous trees
(B) Evergreen trees
(C) Conifers
(D) Thorny bushes
Ans : (A)

95. What type of climate is required for sugarcane?
(A) Dry and hot
(B) Hot and wet
(C) Cold and dry
(D) Cold and wet
Ans : (B)

96. Sri Harikota situated in Andhra Pradesh is famous for—
(A) National Remote Sensing Agency
(B) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
(C) Satellite Control Centre
(D) Satellite Trackings and Ranging Station
Ans : (C)

97. A high ratio of non-workers to workers, as we have in India indicates—
(A) High degree of cultural development
(B) A State of self-sufficiency
(C) The rich natural resources of the country
(D) A rapid growth of population
Ans : (D)

98. What is Kolar ?
(A) Oil field in Assam
(B) A hydro-electric scheme in Bihar
(C) Gold fields in Karnataka
(D) A salt factory in Sambhal
Ans : (C)

99. Koderma, a place in Jharkhand is famous for—
(A) Mica mining centre
(B) Photogoods
(C) Cement factory
(D) Leather goods
Ans : (A)

100. Which one of the following states produces silver in abundance?
(A) Orissa
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Kerala
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)

101. What is the number of India among the producers of manganese ore in the world?
(A) Second
(B) First
(C) Third
(D) None
Ans : (C)

102. Which of the following is an igneous rocks?
(A) Limestone
(B) Slate
(C) Marble
(D) Basalt
Ans : (D)

103. Blue mountains are—
(A) The Vindyas
(B) The Nilgiri hills
(C) The Himalayas
(D) The Aravali ranges
Ans : (B)

104. The new name of Calicut, a famous city of Kerala is—
(A) Kozhikode
(B) Trivendrum
(C) Kalighat
(D) Koderma
Ans : (A)

105. The largest producer of Coco in Africa is—
(A) Ghana
(B) Sudan
(C) Nigeria
(D) Ivory Coast
Ans : (A)

106. Which state in India has highest population?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Bihar
Ans : (B)

107. According to the census of 2001 which of the following cities in India has the maximum population?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) New Delhi
(D) Chennai
Ans : (A)

108. The only state in India that shows an excess of females over males is—
(A) Kerala
(B) Punjab
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Assam
Ans : (A)

109. The Farakka Barrage has been constructed on the river—
(A) Hugli
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Bhagirathi
(D) Padmini
Ans : (A)

110. The Gandhi Sagar dam has been constructed on the boundary of Rajasthan and—
(A) Orissa
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Haryana
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (B)

111. Name the river whose water is utilized by Kakrapara project—
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Tunghbhadra
(C) Damodar
(D) Tapti
Ans : (D)

112. Which state in India occupies the first place in literacy—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnatak
Ans : (C)

113. Which State or Union Territory of India has the lowest literacy?
(A) Bihar
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Manipur
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (A)

114. Where is the headquarter of the Centre Board of Film censors?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Pune
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (A)

115. The highest number of cotton mills in India is —
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Mumbai
(C) Coimbatore
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (A)

116. Churk is famous for—
(A) Cement factory
(B) Paper factory
(C) Sugar factory
(D) Carpet
Ans : (A)

117. The biggest newsprint paper mill of India is at—
(A) Titagarh
(B) Ballarpur
(C) Nepanagar
(D) Saharanpur
Ans : (C)

118. Bhilai Steel works has been built with the foreign collaboration of the—
(A) British
(B) Russians
(C) Germans
(D) Americans
Ans : (B)

119. The biggest number of sugar mills in India is in the state—
(A) Bihar
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

120. The biggest number of jute mills in India is on the bank of the river—
(A) Hooghly
(B) Mahandi
(C) Brahmputra
(D) Cauvery
Ans : (A)

121. The biggest number of jute mills in India is in West Bengal because—
(A) This is the region of raw materials for jute products
(B) The climate is suitable
(C) It is near the consuming area
(D) Cheap supply of labour is available here
Ans : (A)

122. Which one of the following is the centre for cycle industry ?
(A) Firozabad
(B) Sonipat
(C) Allahabad
(D) Nagpur
Ans : (B)

123. Wet climate is suitable for cotton textile Industry because—
(A) Cotton yarn cannot be spun successfully under dry conditions
(B) The efficiency of the workers increases
(C) The rate of damage of machinery is decreased
(D) The rate of consumption electric power is decreased
Ans : (A)

124. 'Lalimli Mill' is in the town—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Faridabad
(C) Kanpur
(D) Ludhiana
Ans : (C)

125. Which one of the following cities in India is famous for gold wire embroidery on silken sarees even in foreign countries?
(A) Agra
(B) Varanasi
(C) Srinagar
(D) Tatanagar
Ans : (B)

126. Dalda brand vegetable Product is manufactured in—
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kanpur
(C) Modinagar
(D) Ghaziabad
Ans : (A)

127. Which one of the following towns in famous for glass bangles all over India?
(A) Sirampur
(B) Naini
(C) Mumbai
(D) Firozabad
Ans : (D)

128. Which is the longest road of India?
(A) Pathankot Jammu Road
(B) Great Deccan Road
(C) Grand Trunk Road
(D) Mahatma Gandhi Road
Ans : (C)

129. Dum Dum airport is in—
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Delhi
(D) Chennai
Ans : (B)

130. At present what is the length of Western Railway line?
(A) 6,475 kms
(B) 10,973 kms
(C) 7,051 kms
(D) 7,160 kms
Ans : (A)

131. The 'Head Quarters' of North East Railway is at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Gorakhpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Kanpur
Ans : (B)

132. For going to Kashmir, the railway route is—
(A) Northern Railway
(B) North-East Railway
(C) Eastern Railway
(D) Western Railway
Ans : (A)

133. The Golden Temple Express runs between—
(A) New Delhi and Madurai
(B) Delhi and Howrah
(C) Amritsar and C.S.T.
(D) Ferozpur and Bombay V.T.
Ans : (C)

134. Where is the Railway Staff College situated?
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Vadodara
(C) Chandausi
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (B)

135. The Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at—
(A) Varanasi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Chitranjan
(D) Jamshedpur
Ans : (A)

136. Which of the following trains runs between C. S. T. to Pune ?
(A) Rajdhani Express
(B) Deccan Queen
(C) Avadh Express
(D) Jayanti Janta
Ans : (B)

137. Chitranjan is famous for—
(A) Airport
(B) Ship building
(C) Production of electric and diesel locomotives
(D) Air craft factory
Ans : (C)

138. Inland Air services in India are run by the—
(A) Air India
(B) Air services of India
(C) Indian Air lines
(D) Air Bharat
Ans : (C)

139. Which of the states of India ranks first in tribal population?
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Chhatisgarh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)

140. What is the rank of India in the world with respect to the population?
(A) Second
(B) First
(C) Third
(D) None
Ans : (A)
141. Which one of the following is used for measuring the speed of wind?
(A) Hygrometer
(B) Barometer
(C) Anemometer
(D) Thermometer
Ans : (C)

142. The maximum density of population of India is in the state—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Kerala
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

143. What do you mean by the term density of population of a country ?
(A) The average number of deaths per annum
(B) The average number of births per annum
(C) The average number of people living in one hectare
(D) The average number of people living in one square kilometre
Ans : (D)

144. Chandigarh is the capital of—
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab and Haryana
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (C)

145. The Capital of Karnatak state is—
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Bangalore
(C) Warangal
(D) Tiruvanantpuram
Ans : (B)

146. The biggest meteorological laboratory of India is in—
(A) Pune
(B) Jaipur
(C) Patna
(D) Kanpur
Ans : (A)

147. Which one of the following is the centre of Higher Technical education?
(A) Bhilai
(B) Kharagpur
(C) Srinagar
(D) Mathura
Ans : (B)

148. Which one of the following ports has replaced Karachi ?
(A) Kandla
(B) Mumbai
(C) Surat
(D) Cochin
Ans : (A)

149. Which is the best natural port of India?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Mumbai
(D) Kandla
Ans : (C)

150. Kakrapara Project is an irrigation project on the river of—
(A) Mahi
(B) Tapti
(C) Narmada
(D) Godavari
Ans : (B)

151. Bidi is manufactured in—
(A) Jabalpur
(B) Ajmer
(C) Gwalior
(D) Indore
Ans : (A)

152. The natural sea port from where spices, tea, coffee, sugar and coconut oil are exported, is—
(A) Kandla
(B) Chennai
(C) Vishakhapatnam
(D) Cochin
Ans : (D)

153. Which one of the following is known as 'Pittsburg of India' ?
(A) Baroda
(B) Rourkela
(C) Jamshedpur
(D) Durgapur
Ans : (C)

154. India imports chiefly from—
(A) Iran
(B) Russia
(C) Britain
(D) United State of America
Ans : (D)

155. The maximum export of India is to—
(A) United States of America
(B) Germany
(C) Russia
(D) Britain
Ans : (A)

156. The most leading port of India for import is—
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kandla
(C) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
Ans : (A)

157. Which of the following states produces asbestos in abundance?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (B)

158. Which is the richest state of India from the point of view of minerals?
(A) Kerala
(B) Bihar
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (D)

159. Which one of the following states is such whose inhabitants are mostly Christians?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Tripura
Ans : (A)

160. Which one of the following languages is used in Tripura ?
(A) Hindi
(B) Mizo
(C) Khasi
(D) Bengali
Ans : (D)

161. Which one of the following states is famous for sandal wood?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)

162. Which state of India is known as land of paradise?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Haryana
(D) Assam
Ans : (B)

163. In India, which coast receives rainfall from North East monsoon—
(A) Konkan Coast
(B) Malabar Coast
(C) Coromandal Coast
(D) Gujarat Coast
Ans : (C)

164. Which country is called the Sugar Bowl of the World ?
(A) India
(B) Cuba
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (B)

165. The Islands of Cloves is—
(A) Zanzibar
(B) New Zealand
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Cuba
Ans : (A)

166. Croydon is an international air port of—
(A) U. S. A.
(B) France
(C) U. K.
(D) India
Ans : (C)

167. Which country is associated with 'kiwis' ?
(A) Phillippines
(B) New Zealand
(C) Malaysia
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (B)

168. What is the new name of Siam ?
(A) Thailand
(B) Canton
(C) Taiwan
(D) Timor
Ans : (A)

169. The capital of Norway is—
(A) Copenhagan
(B) Oslo
(C) Beirut
(D) Canton
Ans : (B)

170. Kalahari deert is in—
(A) North Africa
(B) South Africa
(C) South America
(D) Australia
Ans : (B)

171. Dead sea a salt water lake, is locatted between—
(A) Israel and Jordan
(B) Egypt and Libya
(C) Israel and Lebanon
(D) Morocco and Spain
Ans : (A)

172. Which river forms the boundary line between Uttar Pradesh and Haryana ?
(A) Sutlej
(B) Yamuna
(C) Ganga
(D) Parvati
Ans : (B)

173. Britain and France and divided by the natural boundary of—
(A) The Alps
(B) The English Channel
(C) The river Thames
(D) The river Seine
Ans : (B)

174. The coldest place of the world is in—
(A) Verkhoyansk
(B) Nr. Vostok
(C) Ust' Shchugor
(D) Snag
Ans : (B)

175. Which is the hottest place of the word?
(A) A Aziziyah
(B) Seville
(C) Death Valley
(D) Jacobabad
Ans : (A)

176. Which country is the biggest producer of tea in the world?
(A) India
(B) Russia
(C) China
(D) Brazil
Ans : (A)

177. Which country is the biggest producer of rubber in the world?
(A) Malaysia
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Thailand
(D) Brazil
Ans : (A)

178. The Capital of Iran is—
(A) Bagdad
(B) Tehran
(C) Adan
(D) Basra
Ans : (B)

179. Which of the following rivers is known as the 'Sorrow of China' ?
(A) Hwang Ho
(B) Amur
(C) Mekong
(D) Yangteesi-Kiang
Ans : (A)

180. What is the main industrial production in Switzerland?
(A) Cotton textile
(B) Motor-cars
(C) Watch and clocks
(D) Cement
Ans : (C)

181. Paris is famous for—
(A) Museum and library
(B) Fashion and decoration
(C) Healthy climate
(D) Dairy industry
Ans : (B)

182. Which country of Europe is famous for dairy industry?
(A) Denmark
(B) Norway
(C) Sweden
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (A)

183. Which is the river that originates from Black Forest and falls in Black sea?
(A) Rhine
(B) Oder
(C) Danube
(D) Don
Ans : (C)

184. Which is the longest river of Europe ?
(A) Danube
(B) Volga
(C) Rhine
(D) Seine
Ans : (B)

185. Which country of Europe is known as the 'Country of Lakes' ?
(A) Finland
(B) Italy
(C) France
(D) Spain
Ans : (A)

186. Which is the mountain between the Black sea and Caspian sea?
(A) Ural
(B) Caucasus
(C) Alps
(D) Balkan
Ans : (B)

187. In which country of Europe is the active volcano of Vesuvius?
(A) Italy
(B) Norway
(C) France
(D) Germany
Ans : (A)

188. Which of the two Seas are linked by the strait of Gibraltar ?
(A) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(B) North Sea and Baltic Sea
(C) Atlantic Ocean and Mediterranean Sea
(D) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
Ans : (C)

189. The Kiel canal links—
(A) Mediterranean and Black Sea
(B) Pacific and Atlantic oceans
(C) Mediterranean and Red Sea
(D) North Sea and Baltic Sea
Ans : (D)

190. The chief wine producer of the world is—
(A) Great Britain
(B) Norway
(C) France
(D) Germany
Ans : (C)

191. Which of the following has the greatest importance in commercial fisheries?
(A) Spain
(B) Dogger Banks
(C) Italy
(D) Portugal
Ans : (B)

192. What is the chief import of U.K. ?
(A) Food stuffs and raw material
(B) Machines and rubber
(C) Wine and biscuits
(D) Iron and coal
Ans : (A)

193. What is the chief mineral of Russia?
(A) Iron
(B) Coal
(C) Copper
(D) Tin
Ans : (B)

194. Edinburgh is famous for—
(A) Higher education
(B) Iron industry
(C) Dairy industry
(D) Fish industry
Ans : (A)

195. The longest railway line of the world is—
(A) Canadian Pacific Railway
(B) Cape-Cairo Railway
(C) Trans-Siberian Railway
(D) Paris-Constantinople Railway
Ans : (C)

196. In which one of the following places the population is very low?
(A) Interior part of Spain
(B) North plain of Italy
(C) Southern part of Holland
(D) Plain of Douro in Portugal
Ans : (A)

197. Chief Industry of Canada is—
(A) Wine
(B) Dairy
(C) Iron
(D) Wood pulp and paper
Ans : (D)

198. The Capital of U.S.A. is—
(A) St. Louis
(B) San Francisco
(C) Washington D.C.
(D) Newyork
Ans : (C)

199. Winnipeg is famous in the world for—
(A) Natural scenery
(B) Wheat centre
(C) High buildings
(D) Film industry
Ans : (B)

200. The name of the canal which links Pacific and Atlantic Ocean, is—
(A) Panama
(B) Suez
(C) Kiel
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

201. The biggest lake of fresh water in the world is—
(A) Baikal lake
(B) Superior lake
(C) Nyasa lake
(D) Victoria lake
Ans : (B)

202. Which one of the following towns is not the railway station of Canadian Pacific Railway?
(A) Regina
(B) Winning
(C) San Francisco
(D) Vancouver
Ans : (C)

203. The river Mississipi falls in—
(A) The Gulf of Mexico
(B) Atlantic Ocean
(C) Pacific Ocean
(D) Superior lake
Ans : (A)

204. Sierra Nevada is the name of—
(A) An animal of America
(B) A disease found in America
(C) A fruit found in America
(D) A mountain in America
Ans : (D)

205. The biggest meat market of the world is in—
(A) London
(B) Boston
(C) Chicago
(D) Winnipeg
Ans : (C)

206. Red Indians are the original inhabitants of—
(A) Africa
(B) North America
(C) Asia
(D) Europe
Ans : (B)

207. Which part of North America is the most thinly populated?
(A) Alaska
(B) California
(C) Eastern Part of U.S.A.
(D) The region of great lakes
Ans : (A)

208. What is exported from Halifax?
(A) Wood and its articles
(B) Fish and Fruits
(C) Petroleum
(D) Wheat
Ans : (B)

209. What is the chief agricultural product of the U.S.A. ?
(A) Maize
(B) Cotton
(C) Barley
(D) Rice
Ans : (A)

210. What is the chief occupation of Brazilians?
(A) Sugar Production
(B) Mining
(C) Producing Coffee
(D) Sheep rearing
Ans : (C)
211. When does it rains in the Central valley of Chile?
(A) In summer
(B) In winter
(C) Throughout the year
(D) Never
Ans : (B)

212. Which is the biggest river of South America?
(A) Amazon
(B) Peru
(C) Orinico
(D) Parana-Paraguay
Ans : (A)

213. Where does the river Uruguay fall ?
(A) In Pacific ocean
(B) Titicaca lake
(C) In Carribean sea
(D) In Atlantic Ocean
Ans : (D)

214. What is Uspallata in South America?
(A) An animal
(B) A lake
(C) A pass
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

215. Which one of the following regions, comes under the equatorial climate?
(A) Desert of Chile
(B) Amaion-basin
(C) Plain of Brazil
(D) Pampass
Ans : (B)

216. Which one of the following countries is famous for the production of nitre?
(A) Chile
(B) Brazil
(C) Peru
(D) Columbia
Ans : (A)

217. Which is the biggest port of Argentina?
(A) Bahia Blanca
(B) Buenos Aires
(C) La Plato
(D) Mar Del Plato
Ans : (B)

218. The capital of Brazil is—
(A) Bahia Blanca
(B) Buenos Aires
(C) La Plato
(D) Brasilia
Ans : (D)

219. The largest units of coir industry are located at—
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

220. Which country of the South America is known as 'Granary of Europe' ?
(A) Argentina
(B) Chile
(C) Brazil
(D) Bolivia
Ans : (A)

221. Atacama desert is in—
(A) Australia
(B) Asia
(C) Africa
(D) South America
Ans : (D)

222. The main region of the South America which produces wheat, is—
(A) Peru
(B) Pampas
(C) Brazil
(D) Columbia
Ans : (B)

223. Which country of the South America, is the biggest producer of Petroleum?
(A) Venezuela
(B) Peru
(C) Chile
(D) Brazil
Ans : (A)

224. Which one of the following animals is found in South America?
(A) Lama
(B) Kangaroo
(C) Giraffe
(D) Gorilla
Ans : (A)

225. The highest mountain peak in Africa is—
(A) Kenya
(B) Atlas
(C) Nyasa
(D) Kilimanjaro
Ans : (D)

226. Which one of the following countries is not in Africa?
(A) Kenya
(B) Nigeria
(C) Bolivia
(D) Ethiopia
Ans : (C)

227. What is the new name of the island of Madagascar ?
(A) Haitti
(B) Malagasy
(C) Mozambique
(D) Maputo
Ans : (B)

228. Kimberley, a town of South Africa is famous for—
(A) Diamonds
(B) Goldmines
(C) Poisoneous Snakes
(D) Seaport
Ans : (A)

229. In which part of Africa, Sahara desert is situated?
(A) Northern part
(B) Southern part
(C) Western part
(D) Eastern part
Ans : (A)

230. Africa is a hot continent, because—
(A) There are many volcanoes
(B) There is a great Sahara desert
(C) The greater part of the continent lies within the equatorial type of climate
(D) This is a big producer of spices
Ans : (C)

231. Which part of Africa has the highest population ?
(A) Valley of the river Niger
(B) Valley of the river Nile
(C) Valley of the river Congo
(D) Valley of the river Zambezi
Ans : (B)

232. Which is the largest lake in Africa?
(A) Tanganyika
(B) Nyasa
(C) Edward
(D) Victoria
Ans : (D)

233. What is said 'veld' in Africa?
(A) Savanna forest
(B) Equatorial forest
(C) Grass lands
(D) Tropical forest
Ans : (C)

234. The river Zambezi originates from—
(A) Victoria lake
(B) Western Plateau
(C) Tanganyika lake
(D) Mt. Atlas
Ans : (B)

235. Which one of the following is not in good number at the sea coasts of Africa?
(A) Rivers
(B) Islands
(C) Lakes
(D) Mountains
Ans : (B)

236. The ore for aluminium is—
(A) Hematite
(B) Bauxite
(C) Laterite
(D) Pyrolusite
Ans : (B)

237. Which one of the following is the largest lake in Rajasthan?
(A) Anasagar
(B) Pichhola
(C) Sambhar
(D) Udaisagar
Ans : (C)

238. In which part of Africa, Uranium is found?
(A) Sahara
(B) Congo basin
(C) Sudan
(D) Rhodesia
Ans : (B)

239. What is the most typical Australian tree?
(A) Oak
(B) Pine
(C) Eucalyptus
(D) Rubber
Ans : (C)

240. What is the main mineral of Australia?
(A) Gold
(B) Silver
(C) Lead
(D) Diamond
Ans : (A)

241. Kalgoorlie and coolgradie mines are in—
(A) Africa
(B) Australia
(C) North America
(D) Europe
Ans : (B)

242. Murray and Darling rivers fall in—
(A) The gulf of Carpentaria
(B) Pacific ocean
(C) Encounter Bay
(D) Indian ocean
Ans : (C)

243. The capital of Tasmania is—
(A) New castle
(B) Hobart
(C) Launceston
(D) Perth
Ans : (B)

244. What is the chief export from New Zealand?
(A) Wool
(B) Oil
(C) Motor car
(D) Cigarette
Ans : (A)

245. Which part of Australia receives rain throughout the year?
(A) Western part
(B) Eastern part
(C) Southern part
(D) Northern part
Ans : (D)

246. Which of the following is the chief crop of Australia?
(A) Rice
(B) Maize
(C) Wheat
(D) Potato
Ans : (C)

247. The chief imports of Australia is—
(A) Gold, cotton, iron and rice
(B) Cigarettes, motorcars, cotton clothes, machines and Petroleum
(C) Coal, iron and wool
(D) Meat, wheat, silver and woolen clothes
Ans : (B)

248. The original inhabitants of New Zealand are known as—
(A) Maoris
(B) Bedouins
(C) Magyars
(D) Tartars
Ans : (A)

249. To which side of Australia, Fiji island is situated?
(A) North-west side
(B) North-east side
(C) In South
(D) In West
Ans : (B)

250. In which of the foIlowing countries, the Christmas festival is celebrated in summer season?
(A) New Zealand
(B) Germany
(C) Japan
(D) New Foundland
Ans : (A)

251. Which one of the following food grains is grown in China in the largest quantity?
(A) Rye
(B) Barley
(C) Rice
(D) Maize
Ans : (C)

252. The climate of South East Australia is cold because—
(A) It is very near to the equator
(B) It is a hilly highland
(C) It is very near to sea
(D) It is in the region of cold winds
Ans : (B)

253. What is Great Barrier Reef?
(A) A belt of Coral along the east coasts of Australia
(B) A cave between Sydney and Malbourne
(C) A fish found area in the sea near New Zealand
(D) A mine situated in the Great Victoria Valley
Ans : (A)

254. Paradeep port lies in—
(A) Kerala
(B) Orissa
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (B)

255. A radio broadcast from Tokyo on Saturday at 12 noon should be heard at Vancouver—
(A) The same morning
(B) The same evening
(C) On Friday
(D) On Sunday
Ans : (C)

256. Lines joining places receiving equal amount of rainfall are called—
(A) Isohalines
(B) Isobars
(C) Isotherms
(D) Isohyets
Ans : (D)

257. Which State is the largest producer of manganese in India?
(A) Assam
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Orissa
Ans : (D)

258. Which is the largest cotton producing country in the world?
(A) Russia
(B) U.S.A.
(C) India
(D) Egypt
Ans : (B)

259. The capital of Western Australia is—
(A) Sydney
(B) Canberra
(C) Malbourne
(D) Perth
Ans : (D)

260. Which of the following has the smallest population ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Canada
(C) Romania
(D) Australia
Ans : (D)

261. The biggest island in the world is—
(A) New Guinea
(B) Borneo
(C) Greenland
(D) Sumatra
Ans : (C)

262. They Sea port which does not have a petroleum refinery?
(A) Kandla
(B) Mangalore
(C) Chennai
(D) Cochin
Ans : (A)

263. The largest lake in India is—
(A) Wular
(B) Sambhar
(C) Chika
(D) Dal
Ans : (A)

264. Which of the following rivers occupies a riftvalley?
(A) Narmada
(B) Cauvery
(C) Mahanadi
(D) Sutlej
Ans : (A)

265. Sindri is famous for—
(A) Oil refining
(B) Aluminium manufacture
(C) Machine-tool industry
(D) Fertilizer production
Ans : (D)

266. The solar eclipse occurs when—
(A) The sun comes in between the moon and the earth
(B) The earth comes in between the sum and the moon
(C) The moon comes in between the sun and the earth
(D) The moon, the sun and the earth are in a straight line
Ans : (C)

267. The spring tide occurs when the moon, the sun and the earth make in angle of—
(A) 180°
(B) 90°
(C) 45°
(D) 33°
Ans : (A)

268. Atacama is—
(A) A desert region of North Chile
(B) The grassland of Argentina
(C) The peninsular portion of Eastern Mexico
(D) A desert region in Southern California
Ans : (A)

269. The Panama Canal shorterns the distance between—
(A) The Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean sea
(B) The Red sea and the Arabian sea
(C) The Pacific and the Atlantic oceans
(D) The Atlantic ocean and the Indian ocean
Ans : (C)

270. The inclination of the earth's axis to plane of the orbit is—
(A) 90°
(B) 23½°
(D) 66½°
(C) 0°
Ans : (B)

271. Which of the following towns is a modern planned town?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Varanasi
(C) Chennai
(D) Chandigarh
Ans : (D)

272. Some one travels from Kolkata to Delhi through the Gangetic plain, he would notice that the cultivation of wheat—
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) First decreases and then increases
(D) First increases and then decreases
Ans : (B)

273. Nuclear power station in Uttar Pradesh is at—
(A) Mathura
(B) Narora
(C) Lucknow
(D) Kanpur
Ans : (B)

274. The scandinavian countries are located in high latitudes. Parts of countries located in the same latitudes freeze during winter, but the ports located on the Norwegian coast do not freeze.
This is the mainly due to the fact that—
(A) Many small rivers drain to the sea
(B) There is a chain of volcanoes
(C) The North Atlantic Drift flows past the coast
(D) The Westerlies blow from the South West
Ans : (C)

275. Temperature varies from place to place with latitude and altitude. It may increase or decrease depending upon the factors that affect temperature. Certain anomalies may also develop on account of tmique combination of factors. The inversion of temperature would mean that the—
(A) Temperature decreases with elevation
(B) Temperature is constant at different eleations
(C) Temperature decreases and then increases with elevation
(D) Temperature changes along the same latitude
Ans : (C)

276. Natural vegetation of a region depends mainly on climate and hence there are distinctive areas of different types of vegetation. The governing factors in general are temperature, and precipitation. Accordingly, pine forests in India are found in—
(A) The Sunderbans
(B) The Thar desert
(C) The Himalayas
(D) The Ganga plain
Ans : (C)

277. India is an agricultural country and possesses fertile plains and numerous perennial rivers. About 72 per cent of its population resides in the rural areas. Nearly 70 per cent of the people are dependent on agriculture. About three-fourths of the cultivated land of India is used for food production because—
(A) The soil is suitable for food crops
(B) India is an exporter of food grains
(C) India has to feed a large population
(D) Per capita consumption of food in India is the highest in the world
Ans : (A)

278. A considerable part of our cotton, woollen and silk goods is produced on handlooms and powerlooms. Khaddar cloth is made out of handspun yarn. The Indian sarees which have become popular in the western world are produced in the decentralised sector. As many as five million people are employed in this sector. The number is bigger than the total number of persons employed in the organized industries and mining put together. The handloom and Khadi industry is located—
(A) In the urban areas of India
(B) In the capital towns of the states
(C) Largely in the rural areas of India
(D) Only on the urban fringes
Ans : (C)

279. The youngest folded mountain in India is—
(A) Vindhyas
(B) Aravallis
(C) Nilgiris
(D) Siwaliks
Ans : (D)

280. Which of the followings is the shortest day in the southern hemisphere ?
(A) March 21
(B) June 21
(C) September 22
(D) December 23
Ans : (B)
281. Which of the following ports does not have an oil refinery?
(A) Cochin
(B) Chennai
(C) Tuticoran
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (C)

282. In which of the following minerals in India not self sufficient?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron ore
(C) Coal
(D) Mica
Ans : (A)

283. The Mathura refinery gets its crude supply from—
(A) Assam oil fields
(B) Gujarat oil fields
(C) Bombay High
(D) Imported stock
Ans : (C)

284. The highest peak of Peninsular India is ?
(A) Anaimudi
(B) Kalsubai
(C) Ooty
(D) Mahabaleswar
Ans : (A)

285. Nearly half of the total production of sugarcane in India comes from Uttar Pradesh alone, because—
(A) The yield per hectare is the highest in U.P.
(B) The prevailing climate of U.P. is best suited for sugarcane cultivation
(C) Thick variety of sugarcane is cultivated in U.P.
(D) Area under sugarcane cultivation is the highest in U.P.
Ans : (D)

286. The Tigris river flows mainly through—
(A) Turkey
(B) Syria
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
Ans : (C)

287. Which of the following is the largest producer of mineral oil in the world?
(A) Russia
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Saudi Arabia
(D) Kuwait
Ans : (B)

288. The mediterranean climate is characterized by—
(A) Humid summers and humid winters
(B) Humid summers and dry winters
(C) Dry summers and dry winters
(D) Dry summers and humid winters
Ans : (D)

289. Which of the following plants is used for making Kaththa ?
(A) Accacia arabica
(B) Accacia Catechu
(C) Accacia senegal
(D) Laccifer lacca
Ans : (B)

290. The lower layer of the atmosphere is known as—
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Troposphere
(D) Stratosphere
Ans : (C)

291. The line joining places which have the same height above mean sea level is called—
(A) Isohyte
(B) Isobar
(C) Contour line
(D) Isohaline
Ans : (C)

292. The cold northern island of Japan is—
(A) Kyushu
(B) Konshu
(C) Kokkaido
(D) Shikoku
Ans : (C)

293. Dandakaranya is located in—
(A) Northern India
(B) Central India
(C) Norther-Eastern India
(D) Southern India
Ans : (B)

294. Which of the following is NOT a coal field?
(A) Raniganj
(B) Jharia
(C) Mosabani
(D) Korba
Ans : (C)

295. The summer solstice in northern hemisphere occurs when the sun is directly overhead at noon on—
(A) The Tropic of Capricorn
(B) The Tropic of Cancer
(C) The equator
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

296. Cactus is a plant usually found in—
(A) Flood plains
(B) Semiarid regions
(C) Deltaic regions
(D) Fresh water lakes
Ans : (B)

297. Which of the following is a land locked country ?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Myanmar (Burma)
(C) Philippines
(D) Israel
Ans : (A)

298. The Bhakra Nangal dam is the largest producer of raw silk?
(A) Ravi
(B) Beas
(C) Sutlej
(D) Yamuna
Ans : (C)

299. Which of the following is the largest producer of raw silk?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Karnataka
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans : (B)

300. The moon revolve round the earth in—
(A) 30 days
(B) 29 days
(C) 28½ days
(D) 27⅓ days
Ans : (D)

301. The Tapti river rises from the—
(A) Vindhyan range
(B) Satpura range
(C) Maikal range
(D) Mahadev hills
Ans : (D)

302. States with long coastal boundaries are producers of salt in India. However half of the country's sea salt production comes from Saurashtra-Gujarat. This is due to—
(A) Its longest coast line
(B) High salinity of sea water
(C) A large number of medium sized ports
(D) Well developed industrial market in the State
Ans : (B)

303. The greatest deposits of loess are found in—
(A) New Zealand
(B) Central Europe
(C) China
(D) Argentina
Ans : (C)

304. The general trend of Isotherms on the globe is—
(A) East-West
(B) North-South
(C) North-East
(D) South-West
Ans : (A)

305. The rate of cooling of ascending air is—
(A) 1°C for every 300 metres
(B) 2°C for every 300 metres
(C) 2.5°C for every 300 metres
(D) 3°C for every 300 metres
Ans : (B)

306. The diameter of moon is—
(A) 3475 km
(B) 3250 km
(C) 3500 km
(D) 3258 km
Ans : (A)

307. A column of air 1 sq. cm. in cross-sectional area extending from sea-level to the top of the atmosphere weights approximately—
(A) 933 g wt
(B) 1033 g wt
(C) 1136 g wt
(D) 1360 g wt
Ans : (B)

308. Drowned glaciated valleys in high latitude regions are known as—
(A) Fiords
(B) Ocean ridges
(C) Sub-marine canyons
(D) Glaciated valleys
Ans : (A)

309. The doldrum area comes into the trade winds In—
(A) Autumn
(B) Summer
(C) Spring
(D) Winter
Ans : (B)

310. Plant cover of Deserts in the world is—
(A) Tall grasses
(B) Perennial Xerophytic shrubs
(C) Dwarf trees
(D) Water storing plants
Ans : (B)

311. Barchan dunes will tend to form in—
(A) Hot deserts
(B) Humid tropical areas
(C) Coastal areas
(D) Polar deserts
Ans : (A)

312. The earth while orbitting makes various angles with the sun's rays. On 22nd December, the rays are vertical on earth at—
(A) 23½°
(B) 30° North
(C) 23½° South
(D) 30° South
Ans : (C)

313. In which period people visit Hammerfest (about 71° N 24°E) to see the beauty of the Midnight Sun?
(A) March to May
(B) June to August
(C) September to November
(D) December to February
Ans : (B)

314. Which one of the following has been formed differently from the other three?
(A) Peat
(B) Bituminus
(C) Lignite
(D) Graphite
Ans : (D)

315. If the locations of two places on the map are 60°N 90°E and 40°S 90°E, what is the direct distance in kilometres between these places?
(A) 11100
(B) 10000
(C) 11000
(D) 11200
Ans : (A)

316. North-Western parts of India get winter rainfall mainly due to—
(A) North-West monsoon
(B) Western disturbances
(C) North-East monsoon
(D) Retreating monsoon
Ans : (B)

317. Which valley is formed as a result of tectonic forces?
(A) 'V' -shaped valley
(B) 'U' -shaped valley
(C) Hanging valley
(D) Rift valley
Ans : (D)

318. Which forest is known for large scale lumbering ?
(A) Equatorial forests
(B) Mixed forests
(C) Coniferous forests
(D) Monsoon forests
Ans : (C)

319. What is the chief characteristics of monsoon climate?
(A) Daily range of temperature very high
(B) Complete reversal of wind direction with the change of season
(C) Annual range of temperature very high
(D) Heavy rainfall mainly during winter
Ans : (B)

320. Soils are usually formed by the process of—
(A) Erosion
(B) Deposition
(C) Denudation
(D) Weathering
Ans : (D)

321. Which group of maps are the large scale maps?
(A) Atlas and wall maps
(B) Themetic and political maps
(C) Physical and weather maps
(D) Cadastral and Tourist Guide maps
Ans : (D)

322. If the R.F. of a map is 1 : 10,00,000 what could be its statement of scale?
(A) 1 cm-l0 km
(B) 1 cm-l km
(C) 1 cm-100 km
(D) 1 cm-l000 km
Ans : (A)

323. Sugar industry in India has a tendency to migrate towards south because—
(A) The soils of South India are highly suitable for cultivation of sugarcane
(B) The climate of South India is more suitable for the production of sugarcane
(C) The per capita consumption of sugar in the South is more than the North
(D) The winds coming from the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea increase the sugar content in the sugarcane
Ans : (B)

324. Which of the following two rivers are navigable for big distances—
(A) Godavari and Tungbhadra
(B) Narmada and Tapti
(C) Ganga and Brahamputra
(D) Damodar and Kosi
Ans : (C)

325. Gujarat is the largest producer of salt in India because—
(A) Its coastal waters are very saline
(B) It has extensive dry coast
(C) It has extensive shallow seas
(D) Its inhabitants are expert in preparing salt
Ans : (A)

326. Which soil is formed differently from the other three soils?
(A) Regur
(B) Bhabar
(C) Bangar
(D) Khadar
Ans : (A)

327. Amongst the cereals, this has the largest production in India—
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Ric
(D) Barley
Ans : (C)

328. The largest desert in the World is—
(A) Gobi
(B) Kalahari
(C) Patagonia
(D) Sahara
Ans : (D)

329. Ruhr region is situated in—
(A) Poland
(B) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) France
Ans : (C)

330. Earthquake waves are recorded in—
(A) Barograph
(B) Hydrograph
(C) Seismograph
(D) Pantagraph
Ans : (C)

331. Which of these is young folded mountain?
(A) The Himalayas
(B) The Vindhyas
(C) The Nilgiris
(D) The Western Ghats
Ans : (A)

332. Ankaleshwar is famous for—
(A) Gold mining
(B) Petrochemical Industry
(C) Manufacturing Industry
(D) Wheat producton
Ans : (B)

333. Which country imports iron most?
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Sweden
(D) Japan
Ans : (D)

334. Chittaranjan is famous for—
(A) Cotton manufacturing Industry
(B) Sugar Industry
(C) Fertilizer Industry
(D) Locomotive Industry
Ans : (D)

335. Which of the following is not a mineral ?
(A) Slate
(B) Limestone
(C) Coal
(D) Calcite
Ans : (A)

336. Which one is the biggest planet of the Solar system?
(A) Mercury
(B) Earth
(C) Pluto
(D) Jupiter
Ans : (D)

337. Rourkela Steel Plant of Orissa gets its iron ore from—
(A) Noamundi
(B) Bonai
(C) Barsua
(D) All above
Ans : (D)

338. 'Meghalaya' is the name given to the region corresponding to—
(A) Lushai Hill Region
(B) Garo-Khasi Hill Region
(C) Nefa Region
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (B)

339. Which of the following is a port in Persian Gulf?
(A) Port Said
(B) Suez Port
(C) Eden Port
(D) Bandar Abbas
Ans : (D)

340. The strait of Hormuz joins which of the following water bodies—
(A) Red sea and Mediterranean sea
(B) Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
(C) Caspian sea and Black sea
(D) Gulf of Oman and Arabian sea
Ans : (B)

341. Which of the following lies on the left bank of the Ganga?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Patna
(C) Allahabad
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (D)

342. Bhor Ghat gap gives access to the railway link between—
(A) Mumbai and Jalgaon
(B) Mumbai and Pune
(C) Cochin and Coimbatore
(D) Trivandrum and Kanyakumari
Ans : (B)

343. We generally measure the depth of the Sea in—
(A) Feet
(B) Fathoms
(C) Metres
(D) Nautical miles
Ans : (B)

344. Hanging valleys are formed due to the action of—
(A) River
(B) Glacier
(C) Waves of the ocean
(D) Volcanic eruption
Ans : (B)

345. In the northern hemisphere, due to Ferrel's law the wind is deflected—
(A) Towards its right
(B) Towards its left
(C) Towards its north
(D) Towards its south
Ans : (A)

346. The largest number of jute mills are located along—
(A) Ganga Valley
(B) Brahmaputra Valley
(C) Godavari basin
(D) Hooghly basin
Ans : (D)

347. Mettur dam is built on the—
(A) Godavari river
(B) Krishna river
(C) Kaveri (Cauvery) river
(D) Tungabhadra river
Ans : (C)

348. The phases of moon are caused by—
(A) The rotation of the earth
(B) The rotation of the moon
(C) The revolution of the earth
(D) The revolution of the moon
Ans : (B)

349. The average time interval between successive high tide and low tide is—
(A) 12 hours and 26 minutes
(B) 6 hours and 12 minutes
(C) 24 hours and 52 minutes
(D) 50 minutes
Ans : (C)

350. The planet with the shortest year is—
(A) Earth
(B) Mercury
(C) Mars
(D) Pluto
Ans : (B)