Sunday, January 23, 2011
Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Test 2009
Biology
1. Which of the following is a ‘club moss’ ?
(A) Selaginella
(B) Equisetum
(C) Lycopodium
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. Raphe in Marsilea is present in—
(A) Female gametophyte
(B) Sporocarp
(C) Sporophyte
(D) Male gametophyte
Ans : (B)
3. The stele type occurring in Marsilea is—
(A) Solenostele
(B) Protostele
(C) Amphiphloic Siphonostele
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)
4. The morphological nature of rhizophore of Selaginella is—
(A) Root like
(B) Stem like
(C) Both root and stem like
(D) Rhizoid like
Ans : (C)
5. The Selaginella shows—
(A) Large and small leaves arranged spirally
(B) All leaves large
(C) All leaves small
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)
6. The anatomy of Pinus needle reflects the features of a—
(A) Mesophyte
(B) Xerophyte
(C) Hydrophyte
(D) Epiphyte
Ans : (B)
7. Girdling leaf traces are the characteristic feature of the stem of—
(A) Cycas
(B) Pinus
(C) Ephedra
(D) Gnetum
Ans : (A)
8. Pinus is a—
(A) Tree
(B) Shrub
(C) Herb
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
9. The recent era is—
(A) Cenozoic
(B) Mesozoic
(C) Proterozoic
(D) Archeozoic
Ans : (A)
10. Fossils are found in—
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Quartz
(C) Soil
(D) Sedimentary rocks
Ans : (D)
11. Reserve food material in fungi is—
(A) Glycogen
(B) Starch
(C) Sucrose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (A)
12. Which is rootless fern ?
(A) Pteris
(B) Dryopteris
(C) Salvinia
(D) Adiantum
Ans : (C)
13. Which is common between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ?
(A) Similar substrate
(B) Glycolysis
(C) Pyruvic acid
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)
14. Turpentine oil is obtained from—
(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Cedarwood
(D) Pinus
Ans : (D)
15. Which alga was used by Calvin and his co-workers in their experiments of photosynthesis ?
(A) Chlamydomonas
(B) Chlorella
(C) Chara
(D) Volvox
Ans : (B)
16. Which is an oilseed crop ?
(A) Marigold
(B) Chrysanthemum
(C) Rose
(D) Sunflower
Ans : (D)
17. The first transgenic plant used for commercial production was—
(A) Cotton
(B) Tomato
(C) Tobacco
(D) Rice
Ans : (B)
18. Rare hybrid plants can be saved by—
(A) Pollen culture
(B) Embryo culture
(C) Protoplast culture
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
19. Which is not a category ?
(A) Ecotype
(B) Species
(C) Genus
(D) Order
Ans : (A)
20. Linnaeus published his concept of binomial nomenclature first in—
(A) Systema Naturae
(B) Species Plantarum
(C) Genera Plantarum
(D) Philosophia Botanica
Ans : (B)
21. When chlorophyll is burnt which element is obtained ?
(A) Ca
(B) Na
(C) Mg
(D) Mn
Ans : (C)
22. Iron deficiency results in—
(A) Leaf tip necrosis
(B) Small leaves disease
(C) Decreased protein synthesis
(D) Intervenal chlorosis appearing first in young leaves
Ans : (D)
23. A phytohormone is—
(A) Naturally produced
(B) Synthetic substance
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
24. During the seismonastic movement in Mimosa pudica turgor changes occur in—
(A) Leaflets
(B) Stipules
(C) Pulvinus leaf base
(D) Petiole and stem
Ans : (C)
25. Evergeen trees remain green through the year on account of—
(A) Cold climate
(B) Absence of leaf fall
(C) Leaves falling in small number interval
(D) Supply of moisture throughout year
Ans : (C)
26. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is—
(A) 15 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(D) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Ans : (C)
27. The damaged ozone layer is situated in—
(A) Ionosphere
(B) Mesosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (C)
28. Which one of the following is ordinarily not an air pollutant ?
(A) CO2
(B) CO
(C) SO2
(D) Hydrocarbon
Ans : (A)
29. Genes are made by—
(A) Histones
(B) Lipoproteins
(C) Hydrocarbons
(D) Polynucleotides
Ans : (D)
30. The term ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by—
(A) Odum
(B) Tansley
(C) Whitker
(D) Goli
Ans : (B)
31. The first juvenile larva of Ascaris is known as—
(A) Filiform larva
(B) Rhabditiform larva
(C) Miracidium larva
(D) Microfilariae
Ans : (B)
32. Chromosomes contain—
(A) Protein only
(B) DNA and protein
(C) DNA, RNA and histone
(D) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone proteins
Ans : (B)
33. Which are phagocytes in liver ?
(A) Kupffer cells
(B) Aciner cells
(C) Diter cells
(D) Hensen's cells
Ans : (A)
34. Termites digest wood with the help of an enzyme secreted by the—
(A) Salivary glands
(B) Cells in the midgut
(C) Symbiotic protozoa
(D) Bacteria and fungi outside the body
Ans : (C)
35. In honeybee colony the drones are produced by—
(A) Fertilized eggs
(B) Unfertilized eggs
(C) Larvae fed upon leaves
(D) Fasting larvae
Ans : (B)
36. Jacobson's organ is concerned with—
(A) Smell
(B) Burrowing
(C) Touch
(D) Vision
Ans : (A)
37. Body organisation in Hydra is of—
(A) Tissue grade
(B) Organ grade
(C) Cellular grade
(D) Organ system grade
Ans : (A)
38. Leech obtains continuous blood flow from its victim by pouring in it—
(A) Heparin
(B) Hirudin
(C) Insulin
(D) Pepsin
Ans : (B)
39. Spicules of Sponges are formed by—
(A) Procytes
(B) Pinacocytes
(C) Scleroblasts
(D) Thesocytes
Ans : (B)
40. Heterocoelous centrum is a characteristics of—
(A) Amphibia
(B) Reptilia
(C) Birds
(D) Mammalia
Ans : (C)
41. The exclusively sedentary protochordate animals are found in the class—
(A) Pterobranchia
(B) Larvacea
(C) Ascidiacea
(D) Thaliacea
Ans : (A)
42. Cytopyge is found in—
(A) Paramecium
(B) Entamoeba
(C) Amoeba
(D) Trypanosoma
Ans : (A)
43. Littoral form of animals is found—
(A) In fresh water
(B) In sea water near the shore
(C) In deep sea
(D) At the bottom of the sea
Ans : (D)
44. Bladder worm is a larva of—
(A) Obelia
(B) Silkmoth
(C) Taenia
(D) Nereis
Ans : (C)
45. Which of the following secretions associated with digestion does not have enzymes ?
(A) Bile
(B) Gastric juice
(C) Saliva
(D) Pancreatic juice
Ans : (A)
46. Yellow fever is transmitted by—
(A) Female Culex
(B) Female Anopheles
(C) Female Aedes
(D) Housefly
Ans : (C)
47. The covering membrane of the vacuole is known as—
(A) Tonoplast
(B) Cell wall
(C) Plasma layer
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
48. Age of fishes was known as—
(A) Devonian
(B) Ordovician
(C) Crustaceous
(D) Silurian
Ans : (A)
49. ‘Quartan malaria’ is caused by—
(A) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Plasmodium malariae
(C) Plasmodium ovale
(D) Plasmodium falciparum
Ans : (B)
50. The word ‘species’ was coined by—
(A) John Ray
(B) Mayer
(C) J. Huxley
(D) C. Linnaeus
Ans : (A)
51. An embryo of chick with 7 pairs of somites is—
(A) 20 hours old
(B) 22 hours old
(C) 24 hours old
(D) 18 hours old
Ans : (C)
52. In the mammals, cleavage result formation of solid mass of cells known—
(A) Blastula
(B) Gastrula
(C) Morula
(D) Neurula
Ans : (C)
53. F1particles are found in—
(A) Lysosome
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi Body
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans : (B)
54. The name ‘polytene chromosome’ suggested by—
(A) E.G. Balbiani
(B) Kollar
(C) Heitz
(D) Bauer
Ans : (A)
55. Centriole is found in—
(A) Animal cells
(B) Red algae
(C) Prokaryotes
(D) Flowering plants
Ans : (A)
56. The first phylum of animal kingdom exhibiting bilateral symmetry is—
(A) Arthropoda
(B) Annelida
(C) Mollusca
(D) Platyhelminthes
Ans : (D)
57. The fresh water sponge is—
(A) Spongella
(B) Grantia
(C) Euplectella
(D) Euspongia
Ans : (A)
58. Flame cells are related with—
(A) Excretory system
(B) Digestive system
(C) Circulatory system
(D) Respiratory system
Ans : (A)
59. The intermediate host in the life cycle of F. hepatica (Liver fluke) is—
(A) Sheep
(B) Snail
(C) Man
(D) Bird
Ans : (B)
60. Vitelline membrane is found in—
(A) Birds
(B) Tunicates
(C) Fishes
(D) Mammals
Ans : (A)
61. Two-pigment system theory of photosynthesis was proposed by—
(A) Hill Emerson
(B) Emerson
(C) Blackmann
(D) Hatch and Slack
Ans : (B)
62. Photosynthetic pigments in chloroplast are embedded in membrane of—
(A) Thylakoids
(B) Photoglobin
(C) Matrix
(D) Envelope of chloroplast
Ans : (A)
63. The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in—
(A) Green light
(B) Blue light
(C) Red light
(D) White light
Ans : (C)
64. All energy is trapped in pigment system-1 in—
(A) ATP
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) NADH2
(D) P-700
Ans : (D)
65. How many ATP molecules are produced, as a net gain, during the complete breakdown of glucose ?
(A) 36
(B) 28
(C) 12
(D) 18
Ans : (A)
66. Father of taxonomy is—
(A) De Candolle
(B) Hooker
(C) Linnaeus
(D) Aristotle
Ans : (C)
67. For entry in gene pool, a mutation occur in—
(A) Somatic cells
(B) Germ cells
(C) Plasma proteins
(D) Somatic DNA
Ans : (B)
68. Vessels diffier from tracheids—
(A) In being living
(B) In being derived from a single cell
(C) In having vertical row of cells and their cross wall dissolved
(D) Because they conduct water
Ans : (C)
69. Which one is true nut ?
(A) Walnut
(B) Cashewnut
(C) Groundnut
(D) Coconut
Ans : (B)
70. After transcription, the mRNA molecule—
(A) Disintegrates
(B) Moves into cytoplasm
(C) Replicates itself
(D) Reassociates to form its structure
Ans : (B)
71. Fossilization is also known by the—
(A) Acclimatzation
(B) Pasteurization
(C) Preservation
(D) Tyndallization
Ans : (C)
72. The branch that deals with the plants studies in the geological past is called—
(A) Pteridology
(B) Palaeobotany
(C) Neurology
(D) Archaeology
Ans : (B)
73. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany is situated at—
(A) Allahabad
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)
74. In plants, largest egg is found in—
(A) Cycas
(B) Sequoia
(C) Pinus
(D) Selaginella
Ans : (A)
75. Which one of the following is an example of symbiosis ?
(A) Utricularia
(B) Agaricus
(C) Lichen
(D) Mango
Ans : (C)
76. Which of the following pteridophytes is known as ‘Horse-tail’ ?
(A) Rhynia
(B) Selaginella
(C) Equisetum
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
77. Marsilea is a—
(A) Homosporic pteridophyte
(B) Heterosporic pteridophyte
(C) Non-sporic pteridophyte
(D) Seeded pteridophyte
Ans : (B)
78. A plant bearing two types of spores is termed as—
(A) Heterospory
(B) Seed habit
(C) Homospory
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)
79. In Pinus present only—
(A) Male cone
(B) Female cone
(C) Male and female cones
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
80. Number of cotyledons found in the embryo of Cycas is—
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1
Ans : (B)
81. Bryophytes are—
(A) Aquatic
(B) Terrestrial
(C) Amphibious
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
82. Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte in—
(A) Algae
(B) Pteridophyta
(C) Fungi
(D) Bryophyta
Ans : (D)
83. In gametophytic phase of Bryophyta the last cell is—
(A) Gamete
(B) Spore
(C) Elater
(D) Zygote
Ans : (A)
84. In Funaria, the calyptra is formed by—
(A) Antheridium
(B) Columella
(C) Capsule
(D) Archegonium
Ans : (D)
85. A bryophyte differes from pteridophyte in—
(A) Archegonia
(B) Lack of vascular tissue
(C) Independent gametophyte
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
86. Acid rain is mainly a mixture of—
(A) Sulphuric acid and nitric acid
(B) Hexane and methane
(C) Acetic acid and bromine
(D) Ascorbic acid and citric acid
Ans : (A)
87. Ribosomes are sites for—
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Fat synthesis
(D) Respiration
Ans : (A)
88. Pyramid of energy is—
(A) Alwayss inverted
(B) Always upright
(C) Sometimes inverted and sometimes upright
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
89. ATP is—
(A) An enzyme which brings about oxidation
(B) A hormone
(C) A molecule with high energy phosphate bond
(D) A protein
Ans : (C)
90. Which one of the following is not a feature of prokaryotic cell ?
(A) Absence of nuclear membrane and the nucleus
(B) Absence of cell organelles
(C) Absence of genetic material
(D) Absence of histone protein in the chromosome
Ans : (C)
91. Which one of the following is highly dangerous radioactive pollutant ?
(A) Phosphorus-32
(B) Sulphur-35
(C) Strontium-90
(D) Calcium-40
Ans : (C)
92. The indicator of SO2 pollution of air is—
(A) Lichen
(B) Fern
(C) Black mould
(D) Moss
Ans : (A)
93. The founder of cell theory was—
(A) Wolf
(B) Rudolf Virchow
(C) Myen, Von Moll and Raspail
(D) Schleiden and Schwann
Ans : (D)
94. Fats in our body are formed when—
(A) There is little glycogen in the body
(B) Blood sugar level becomes constant
(C) Glycogen storage in liver and muscles is completed
(D) Intake of protein is high
Ans : (C)
95. Liver performs several functions. One of these functions is—
(A) Histolysis
(B) Digestion of proteins
(C) Glycogenesis
(D) Maintaining salt balance
Ans : (C)
96. Poison fangs of snakes are—
(A) Maxillary teeth
(B) Specialized structures
(C) Premaxillary teeth
(D) Vomerine teeth
Ans : (A)
97. Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are—
(A) Homologous organs
(B) Analogous organs
(C) Unrelated organs
(D) Vestigeal organs
Ans : (B)
98. ‘Ozone Day’ is observed on—
(A) January, 30
(B) April, 21
(C) September, 16
(D) December, 5
Ans : (C)
99. Which one of the following is the link between Annelida and Mollusca ?
(A) Archaeopteryx
(B) Peripatus
(C) Neopilina
(D) Coelacanth
Ans : (C)
100. The heartbeat is regulated by—
(A) Pacemaker
(B) Vagus nerve
(C) Sympathetic nerve
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)
101. Which pair is correct ?
(A) Microlecithal eggs — Dipnoi
(B) Homolecithal eggs — Amphibia
(C) Mesolecithal eggs — Bird
(D) Centrolecithal eggs — Insect
Ans : (D)
102. The hypothesis of ‘Coupling and Repulsion’ for linkage was formulated by—
(A) Sutton and Boveri
(B) Bateson & Punnet
(C) T.H. Morgan
(D) W. Sutton
Ans : (B)
103. Balanoglossus is commonly known as—
(A) Earthworm
(B) Tapeworm
(C) Corn worm
(D) Tongue worm
Ans : (D)
104. In Drosophila, sex determination depends on—
(A) Y-chromosome
(B) X-chromosome
(C) Autosome
(D) X-chromosome & autosome both
Ans : (D)
105. Nonsense codons are—
(A) AUG, AAU, UAG
(B) GGU, AGU, AUG
(C) UAG, UAA, UGA
(D) GAU, AAU, GUA
Ans : (C)
106. In which stage does centromere divide in two ?
(A) Metaphase-I
(B) Prophase-I
(C) Metaphase-II
(D) Anaphase-II
Ans : (D)
107. Which animal is egg laying mammal ?
(A) Didelphys
(B) Macropus
(C) Pteropus
(D) Tachyglossus
Ans : (D)
108. An oil producing gland on the tail of bird is known as—
(A) Preen gland
(B) Mucus gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Sebaceous gland
Ans : (A)
109. A snake that is viviparous is—
(A) The Russell’s pitless viper
(B) The pit viper
(C) Rattle snake
(D) Kraits
Ans : (B)
110. A gland which is found on undersurface of the thighs of male lizard ?
(A) Sudorific gland
(B) Femoral gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Stink gland
Ans : (B)
111. Which of the following is not a path flagellate ?
(A) Leishmania
(B) Giardia
(C) Trypanosoma
(D) Noctiluca
Ans : (D)
112. The Glochidium larva of Unio—
(A) Is free swimming
(B) Is ectoparasite on fish
(C) Is endoparasite on fish
(D) Lives in bottom
Ans : (B)
113. The term ‘Plasmalemma’ was given by—
(A) C. Nageli & C. Cramer
(B) J.Q. Plowe
(C) Dancilli & Davson
(D) Robertson
Ans : (B)
114. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs—
1. Synthesis of lipids
2. Glycogenolysis
3. Sterol metabolism
4. Detoxification
Codes :
(A) Only 4 is correct
(B) 1 and 2 both are correct
(C) 2 and 3 both are correct
(D) All are correct
Ans : (D)
115. The innermost layer of egg albumen in birds is called—
(A) Inner thin albumen
(B) Vitelline membrane
(C) Dense alburmen
(D) Chalaziferous layer
Ans : (B)
116. In which one of the following is the anus absent ?
(A) Leech
(B) Roundworm
(C) Earthworm
(D) Flatworm
Ans : (D)
117. Which type of jaw suspension is found in mammals ?
(A) Autostylic
(B) Holostylic
(C) Craniostylic
(D) Hyostylic
Ans : (A)
118. Synthesis of urea in liver takes place by—
(A) Nitrogen cycle
(B) Krebs’ cycle
(C) Glycolysis
(D) Ornithine cycle
Ans : (D)
119. Sexual dimorphism is found in—
(A) Hydra
(B) Earthworm
(C) Ascaris
(D) Fasciola
Ans : (B)
120. Which of the following animals has a nervous system but no brain ?
(A) Amoeba
(B) Hydra
(C) Cockroach
(D) Earthworm
Ans : (B)
121. Aristotle’s Lantern occurs in—
(A) Asteroidea
(B) Echinoidea
(C) Holothuroidea
(D) Crinoidea
Ans : (B)
122. Neoteny is observed in—
(A) Ambystoma
(B) Alytes
(C) Sycon
(D) Sacculina
Ans : (A)
123. Kidneys are vital organs of the body because they help in—
(A) Regulation of body fluids
(B) Regulation of acid-base balance
(C) Removal of metabolic wastes
(D) All of these functions
Ans : (D)
124. The infective stage of malarial parasite is—
(A) Trophozoite
(B) Merozoite
(C) Sporozoite
(D) Cyst
Ans : (C)
125. Parasitic castration occurs in—
(A) Fasciola
(B) Nereis
(C) Sacculina
(D) Palaemon
Ans : (C)
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Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Test, 2009
English
Directions—(Q. 1–10) In questions 1 to 10 you have a brief passage with 10 questions. Read the passage carefully, and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
You may think the sign of a good manager is to have a department where everybody is busy at work on their assigned tasks. But if your people are merely doing their jobs, they’re only working at about half their potential. A truly productive department is one in which every employee is actively thinking of better, more efficient methods of working ways in which to produce a higher quality product, in less time, at lower cost.
To get this kind of innovation from your people, you have to be receptive to new ideas; what's more, you have to encourage your people to produce new ideas. Incentives are one way to motivate employees to be more productive. You can offer a cash bonus, time off, or a gift. But a more potent form of motivation is simply the employee's knowledge that management does listen to him or her, and does put employee suggestions and ideas to work.
When you listen to new ideas, be open-minded. Don't shoot down a suggestion before you've heard it in full. Many of us are too quick, too eager, to show off our own experience and knowledge and say that something won't work because ‘we've tried it before’ or ‘we don't do it that way’. Well, may be you did try it before but that doesn't mean it won't work now. And having done things a certain way in the past doesn't mean you've been doing them the best way. A good manager is open-minded and receptive to new ideas.
1. The given passage speaks about—
(A) the sign of a good manager
(B) the workers doing their job
(C) ways in which to produce a higher quality product
(D) the need to be open to new ideas
Ans : (A)
2. We understand from the passage that a good manager is one—
(A) who has a department where everybody is busy at work
(B) who offers a cash bonus, time off or a gift to his workers
(C) who is open minded and receptive to new ideas
(D) who is too quick, too eager to show off his experience and knowledge
Ans : (C)
3. People merely ‘doing their jobs’ in the passage means—
(A) that people busy at work do not perform their assigned tasks
(B) that such people produce a higher quality product
(C) that such people are working at about half their potential
(D) that such people are innovative
Ans : (C)
4. In a truly productive department—
(A) people are busy at work on their assigned tasks
(B) people are busy at work to produce a large quantity of product
(C) people always think of evolving better and more efficient methods of working
(D) people always make a show of their experience and knowledge
Ans : (C)
5. The word ‘motivation’ in the passage means—
(A) to impute a motive to an action
(B) the act of inspiring others
(C) to put a thing into action
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. ‘To be receptive to new ideas’ in the passage suggests—
(A) Readiness to receive new ideas
(B) to be cautious and careful about the new ideas
(C) to share with your people the new ideas
(D) to think of better and more efficient methods of working
Ans : (A)
7. The word ‘incentives’ in the context of the passage suggests—
(A) to produce higher quality product, in less time
(B) to produce higher quality product, at lower cost
(C) an additional payment or additional facilities to employees to increase production
(D) employee's faith that management does listen to his suggestions and ideas
Ans : (C)
8. A truly productive employee, according to the writer, is always—
(A) busy at work on his assigned tasks
(B) actively thinking of better and more efficient methods of working
(C) has an eye on a cash bonus, time off, or a gift
(D) suggesting but never busy at work
Ans : (B)
9. The innovative suggestions or new ideas from your employee can be obtained when—
(A) you offer a cash bonus to him
(B) you make him feel that management does listen to him or her and puts his ideas to work
(C) you distrust his experience and knowledge
(D) you pressurise him to tender new ideas or face the consequences
Ans : (B)
10. A good manager should—
(A) be open-minded and receptive to new ideas
(B) quickly shoot down innovative suggestions from an employee to assert supremacy of his experience and knowledge
(C) discard innovative ideas dubbing them unworkable
(D) be content with the normal functioning of the department
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) Choose the correct alternatives to fill in the blanks in the following sentences—
11. A …… soldier fights for the sake of money.
(A) materialistic
(B) pioneer
(C) veteran
(D) mercenary
Ans : (D)
12. The road to Hell is …… with good intentions.
(A) decorated
(B) engraved
(C) paved
(D) crowded
Ans : (C)
13. Laws grind the …… and rich man rule the law.
(A) criminals
(B) poor
(C) innocents
(D) destitute
Ans : (B)
14. It is not possible for everyone to …… an elephant.
(A) keep up
(B) keep up with
(C) keep in
(D) keep on
Ans : (A)
15. Our college building has a good …….
(A) sight
(B) site
(C) cite
(D) side
Ans : (B)
16. Shakespeare is indebted to one of the following sources for the subject matter of his some plays. Choose the right one from the following—
(A) The Arabian Nights
(B) Holinshed's Chronicle
(C) Bewoulf
(D) The Arthurian Legends
Ans : (B)
17. One of the following poets was nicknamed ‘The Lady of Christ's’ by his fellow undergraduates. Spot the correct name of the poet—
(A) Milton
(B) Spenser
(C) Shakespeare
(D) Marlowe
Ans : (A)
18. ‘When the assault was intended to the city’ is a sonnet written by—
(A) Milton
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Shakespeare
(D) Spenser
Ans : (A)
19. Which play of Shakespeare portrays the character of Malvolio ?
(A) Love's Labour Lost
(B) Twelfth Night
(C) Hamlet
(D) As You Like It
Ans : (B)
20. ‘On the Morning of Christ's Nativity’ is a—
(A) Sonnet
(B) Ode
(C) Masque
(D) Pastoral Elegy
Ans : (A)
21. Which, of the following, is a work of Milton ?
(A) Novum Organum
(B) De Doctrina Christana
(C) Endymion
(D) Prothalmion
Ans : (A)
22. What figure of speech has been used in the following line ? ‘Rascals and rogues ran a race round and round the rugged rock.’
(A) Hyperbole
(B) Alliteration
(C) Onomatopoeia
(D) Apostrophe
Ans : (B)
23. Choose the correct word to complete the given proverb—
‘Barking dogs …… bite.’
(A) Sometimes
(B) Seldom
(C) Always
(D) Never
Ans : (B)
24. What is the antonym of ‘Manly’ ?
(A) Feminine
(B) Effeminate
(C) Masculine
(D) Strong
Ans : (B)
25. What figure of speech has been used in the following line ?
‘Frailty, thy name is woman !’
(A) Metaphor
(B) Personification
(C) Apostrophe
(D) Simile
Ans : (B)
26. ‘Venus and Adonis’ is a poetic composition of a poet who was a dramatist also—
(A) Shakespeare
(B) Milton
(C) Marlowe
(D) Dryden
Ans : (A)
27. ‘For a handful of silver, he left us.’ This line of Browning has a reference to—
(A) Shakespeare
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Tennyson
(D) Dryden
Ans : (B)
28. ‘A Bend in the Ganges’ is a work of—
(A) Anita Desai
(B) Amitav Ghose
(C) Manohar Malgonkar
(D) M.R. Anand
Ans : (C)
29. Pick out the right option which expresses the meaning of word ‘Invaluable’ ?
(A) Valueless
(B) Priceless
(C) Useless
(D) Cheap
Ans : (B)
30. The following sentence has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space ?
‘The doctor said that a small daily …… of the new drug would soon cure him.’
(A) tablet
(B) pill
(C) dose
(D) quantity
Ans : (C)
31. Correct form of the sentence ‘I have often found him negligent …… his work.’ is—
(A) I have often found him negligent in his work
(B) I have often found him negligent of his work
(C) I have often found him negligent to his work
(D) I have often found him negligent with his work
Ans : (B)
32. During his visit to France, Wordsworth fell in love with a girl named—
(A) Catherine
(B) Mary Hutchinson
(C) Annette Vallon
(D) Simon Lee
Ans : (C)
33. ‘The fall of……in 1453 marks the beginning of Renaissance in Europe.’
Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank in the above sentence—
(A) Bastille
(B) The Roman Empire
(C) The Spanish Armada
(D) Constantinople
Ans : (D)
34. Who wrote the following about Shakespeare ?
‘Others abide our question, thou art free.’
(A) T.S. Eliot
(B) Arnold
(C) Blake
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (B)
35. The figure of speech in which the sound suggests the sense or meaning is known as—
(A) Alliteration
(B) Onomatopoeia
(C) Oxymoron
(D) Transferred Epithet
Ans : (B)
36. Punctuate the following sentence—
“She called out angrily so you have been hitting makhan again phatik answered indignantly no I have not who told you that’ Find out the correct option—
(A) She called out angrily, so you have been hitting Makhan again. Phatik answered indignantly. ‘No, I have not. who told you that’.
(B) She called out angrily, ‘So you have been hitting Makhan again.’ Phatik answered indignantly. ‘No, I haven't. who told you that’.
(C) She called out angrily. ‘So you have been hitting Makhan again ?’ Phatik answered indignantly, ‘No, I haven't. Who told you that ?’
(D) She called out angrily, ‘So you have been hitting Makhan ?’ Again Pharik answered indignantly. ‘No, I haven't. Who told you that ?’
Ans : (C)
37. Select the word with its correct spelling—
(A) Vaccum
(B) Vaccume
(C) Vaccuum
(D) Vacuum
Ans : (D)
38. Who calls Milton ‘God-gifted organ-voice of England’ ?
(A) Arnold
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Gray
(D) Tennyson
Ans : (D)
39. Name the critic who remarks ‘Justice (1910) is a commentary upon the prison administration of that period.’ ?
(A) Coats
(B) A.C. Ward
(C) A. Nicoll
(D) Skemp
Ans : (A)
40. What does the idiom (the) pros and cons mean ?
(A) Changes of life
(B) The arguments urged for and against a thing
(C) Irregularly
(D) Repeatedly
Ans : (B)
41. Select from the following the correct meaning of the word ‘Nostalgia’—
(A) A fatal disease
(B) Longing for things that are past
(C) An allegorical story
(D) A state of excessive fear and anxiety
Ans : (B)
42. Choose the correct animal cry to complete the sentence—
‘Dogs bark, lions roar but frogs….’
(A) coo
(B) bleat
(C) croak
(D) cluck
Ans : (C)
43. A figure of speech in which a qualifying adjective is sometimes transferred from a person to a thing or from one word to another, to which it does not strictly belong, is called—
(A) Metonymy
(B) Transferred Epithet
(C) Apostrophe
(D) Personification
Ans : (B)
44. Find out the mis-spelt word—
(A) accompaniment
(B) explaination
(C) superstitious
(D) miscellaneous
Ans : (B)
45. Choose the correct spelling of the word—
(A) restaurant
(B) restuarant
(C) resteurant
(D) restorant
Ans : (A)
46. Which, of the following words, means ‘a place where the birds are kept’ ?
(A) Aquarium
(B) Zoo
(C) Amnesty
(D) Aviary
Ans : (D)
47. Which of the following plays is not written by Galsworthy ?
(A) The Silver Box
(B) Joy
(C) Weavers
(D) A Doll's House
Ans : (D)
48. ‘Every great poet is a teacher’ are the words of—
(A) Shelley
(B) Keats
(C) Byron
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (A)
49. The Restoration period was influenced by—
(A) French dramatists
(B) The dramatists of England
(C) Italian dramatists
(D) Greek dramatists
Ans : (A)
50. Punctuate the following lines—
“as caeser loved me i weep for him as he was fortunate i rejoice at it as he was valiant i honour him but as he was ambitious I slew him’
Find out the correct one—
(A) As Caeser loved me I weep for him, as he was fortunate I rejoice at it, as he was valiant I honour him but as he was ambitious I slew him
(B) As Caeser loved me, I weep for him. As he was fortunate. I rejoice at it. As he was valiant, I honour him but as he was ambitious, I slew him
(C) As Caeser loved me, I weep for him; as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it; as he was valiant, I honour him but—as he was ambitious, I slew him
(D) As Casear loved me I weep for him; as he was fortunate I rejoice at it; as he was valiant I honour him but as he was ambitious I slew him
Ans : (C)
51. Find out the figure of speech in the following lines—
‘Is this the face that launched a thousand ships.
And burned the topless towers of Illium ?’
(A) Personification
(B) Hyperbole
(C) Metaphor
(D) Oxymoron
Ans : (B)
52. The first Indian author to win the prestigious Pulitzer Prize in the U.S.A. was—
(A) Anita Desai
(B) Jhumpa Lahiri
(C) Vikram Seth
(D) Khushwant Singh
Ans : (B)
53. What is the antonym of ‘consent’ ?
(A) descent
(B) dissent
(C) decent
(D) assent
Ans : (B)
54. Select the right meaning of the word ‘Aristocracy’ from the following—
(A) Government by the rich
(B) Government by the nobles
(C) Government by the officials
(D) Rule by mob
Ans : (B)
55. Select, from the following, the name of the author on whose grave the words he chose himself are carved—
‘Here is one whose name is writ in water.’
(A) Keats
(B) Byron
(C) Milton
(D) Swinburne
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 56–65) Read each of the following sentences to trace the parts which are incorrect grammatically. The alphabet of the part is to be mentioned as the answer—
56. The father as well as (A) / the sons were (B) / involved in the murder. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
57. He could not give cattle (A) / green fodder today because (B) / he has broken his right hand a week ago. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
58. What to talk of charity (A) / you do not practise (B) / even ordinary humanity. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
59. I am very thirsty (A) / give me little water (B) / to drink. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
60. You and your wife (A) / appear to have seen (B) / much more happier days. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
61. Nobody was prepared (A) / to give up their seat (B) / to the old man bending on a stick. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
62. The price of this car (A) / is higher than (B) / your new car. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)
63. No sooner the bell rang (A) / than all students ran out (B) / of their classes helter-skelter. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)
64. The Principal, along with teachers, (A) / were invited (B) / on the occasion. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
65. Suresh asked Akbar (A) / when could he (B) / reach Kanpur. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)
66. ‘Docile’ means—
(A) vague
(B) gentle
(C) stupid
(D) stubborn
Ans : (B)
67. ‘Enigmatic’ is—
(A) displeased
(B) puzzling
(C) learned
(D) short-sighted
Ans : (B)
68. ‘Alleviation’ is the antonym of—
(A) lessening
(B) magnification
(C) aggravation
(D) exaggeration
Ans : (C)
69. ‘Deviate’ is the antonym of—
(A) obliviate
(B) break
(C) concentrate
(D) follow
Ans : (C)
70. ‘Inevitable’ bears the opposite meaning of—
(A) unavoidable
(B) eatable
(C) uncertain
(D) mutilated
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 71–75) Choose the most appropriate proposition—
71. A good judge never jumps …… the conclusion.
(A) at
(B) for
(C) to
(D) on
Ans : (A)
72. Such remarks are certainly derogatory …… your reputation.
(A) for
(B) to
(C) with
(D) of
Ans : (B)
73. Minority aspirations cannot forever be kept in check …… the gun.
(A) by
(B) through
(C) with
(D) from
Ans : (A)
74. The Sarpanch turned……the proposal without thinking properly.
(A) in
(B) out
(C) up
(D) down
Ans : (D)
75. His story seems to be devoid …… truth.
(A) from
(B) of
(C) to
(D) in
Ans : (B)
76. Tick the correct sentence—
(A) Neither Ram or Shyam has done it
(B) Either Ram nor Shyam has done it
(C) Both Ram and Shyam has done it
(D) Neither Ram nor Shyam has done it
Ans : (D)
77. Find out the correctly spelt word—
(A) consumpshion
(B) conjumption
(C) consumption
(D) conjumpshan
Ans : (C)
78. Find out the correctly spelt word—
(A) aroplane
(B) aroplain
(C) aeroplain
(D) aeroplane
Ans : (D)
79. The sonnet is a poem of—
(A) ten lines
(B) twelve lines
(C) fourteen lines
(D) sixteen lines
Ans : (C)
80. Classical tragedy was a form of—
(A) drama
(B) novel
(C) prose
(D) poetry
Ans : (A)
81. Elegy began to be so called because—
(A) it was written in the elegiac measure
(B) it was a poem of sorrow
(C) it was written by writers of elegies
(D) some expert critics named it so
Ans : (A)
82. The novel is—
(A) one of the earliest forms of writing
(B) one of the latest forms of writing
(C) one of the discarded forms of writing
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
83. In which play do the following lines occur ?
“Neither a borrower nor a lender be—
For loan oft loses both itself and friend.
And borrowing dulls the edge of husbandry.”
(A) Macbeth
(B) The Merchant of Venice
(C) Hamlet
(D) King Lear
Ans : (C)
84. Choose the correct name of the play (from those given) from which the following lines have been taken—
“We are such stuff As dreams are made on, and our little life Is rounded with a sleep.”
(A) The Tempest
(B) Othello
(C) Macbeth
(D) Cariolanus
Ans : (A)
85. Who has said it ?
“One impulse from a vernal wood May teach us more of man.
Of moral evil and of good Than all the sages can.”
(A) Shakespeare
(B) Milton
(C) Galsworthy
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (D)
86. From which book has it been taken ?
“To be weak is miserable Doing or suffering ?”
(A) The Tempest
(B) Paradise Regained
(C) The Prelude
(D) Paradise Lost
Ans : (D)
87. One of the following works of Milton is a prose work. Mention that—
(A) Lycidas
(B) Paradise Regained
(C) Paradise Lost
(D) Areopagitica
Ans : (D)
88. Shakespeare—
(A) was a great scholar of Latin
(B) knew a lot of Greek
(C) had a great command over English
(D) knew little Latin and less Greek
Ans : (C)
89. The first play by John Galsworthy was—
(A) Justice
(B) Loyalties
(C) The Skin Game
(D) The Silver Box
Ans : (D)
90. Which of the following plays does not belong to the group of four great tragedies of Shakespeare ?
(A) King Lear
(B) Hamlet
(C) Othello
(D) Twelfth Night
Ans : (D)
91. Shakespeare's play Hamlet is influenced by—
(A) Marlowe
(B) Kyd
(C) Peele
(D) Nashe
Ans : (A)
92. The name of Prospero's daughter in The Tempest is—
(A) Desdemona
(B) Cordelia
(C) Miranda
(D) Olivia
Ans : (C)
93. The dominating passion of Macbeth is—
(A) jealousy
(B) greed
(C) revenge
(D) ambition
Ans : (D)
94. In Twelfth Night Olivia is over head and ears in love with—
(A) Malvolio
(B) Duke Orsino
(C) the clown
(D) Viola disguised as Cesario
Ans : (D)
95. Shylock is a character in—
(A) As You Like It
(B) The Merchant of Venice
(C) Twelfth Night
(D) Measure for Measure
Ans : (B)
96. Milton's Paradise Lost—
(A) has no trace of personal element
(B) is notable for its autobiographical passages
(C) is quite objective
(D) has none of the above qualities
Ans : (B)
97. Who is the hero of Paradise Lost ?
(A) God
(B) Satan
(C) Adam
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)
98. The statement, “Others abide our question, thou art free” refers to—
(A) John Milton
(B) Edmund Spenser
(C) Christopher Marlowe
(D) Shakespeare
Ans : (D)
99. Everyman is—
(A) an interlude
(B) a comedy
(C) a tragicomedy
(D) a morality play
Ans : (B)
100. A Dramatic Monologue is—
(A) a short play
(B) a poem
(C) a novel
(D) a prose story
Ans : (A)
101. What do we call a piece of writing that is an imitation of an action that is serious and complete ?
(A) A comedy
(B) A tragi-comedy
(C) A tragedy
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
102. Shakespeare has mostly used in his plays—
(A) heroic couplet
(B) blank verse
(C) free verse
(D) Spenserian stanza
Ans : (B)
103. “They also serve who only stand and wait.” This line occurs in—
(A) Lycidas
(B) Comus
(C) Paradise Lost
(D) On His Blindness
Ans : (D)
104. Name the poem from which the following words have been quoted—
The gods approve The depth, and not the tumult of the soul.
(A) The World Is To Much With Us
(B) The Tables Turned
(C) Ode to Duty
(D) Laodamia
Ans : (D)
105. In which play of Galsworthy do we have William Falder ?
(A) Loyalties
(B) The Silver Box
(C) Justice
(D) Strife
Ans : (C)
106. Shakespeare is—
(A) a Renaissance playwright
(B) a Restoration playwright
(C) a Twentieth Century playwright
(D) a Classcial playwright
Ans : (A)
107. Galsworthy belonged to—
(A) the sixteenth century
(B) the seventeenth century
(C) the twentieth century
(D) the nineteenth century
Ans : (C)
108. Who said it ?
How poor are they that have not patience, What wound did ever heal but by degrees ?
(A) Othello
(B) Cassio
(C) Iago
(D) Desdemona
Ans : (B)
109. Shakespeare wrote—
(A) 154 sonnets
(B) 145 sonnets
(C) 451 sonnets
(D) 26 sonnets
Ans : (A)
110. Milton's Paradise Lost has been praised for its—
(A) lightness of touch
(B) grand style
(C) its satirical tone
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
111. Paradise Lost has been divided into …… Books.
(A) ten
(B) nine
(C) eleven
(D) twelve
Ans : (D)
112. Cordelia came to help her father because—
(A) he had given her the lion's share of his kingdom
(B) he had deprived her of her share in the kingdom
(C) out of her genuine love for him
(D) she hated her elder sisters
Ans : (C)
113. Allusion is—
(A) a synonym of reference
(B) a synonym of poetry
(C) an indirect or passing reference to some event, person, place or artistic work
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
114. A ballad—
(A) is a short epic
(B) is a song sung by ballet dancers
(C) is a folk song or orally transmitted poem dealing with a popular story
(D) is a short novel
Ans : (C)
115. Denouement is related to—
(A) an essay
(B) a play
(C) a lyric
(D) an elegy
Ans : (B)
116. An eclogue is—
(A) a long poem
(B) a short poem
(C) a pastoral poem
(D) a short dialogue
Ans : (C)
117. Galsworthy's tragedies are called—
(A) tragi-comedies
(B) heroic tragedies
(C) social tragedies
(D) classical tragedies
Ans : (C)
118. Samson Agonistes by Milton—
(A) is a play
(B) is a long poem
(C) is a masque
(D) a long treatise
Ans : (A)
119. Ben Jonson's name is associated with—
(A) Sentimental comedy
(B) Romantic comedy
(C) comedy of Manners
(D) comedy of Humours
Ans : (D)
120. Congreve tried his hand at—
(A) romantic comedies
(B) comedies of humours
(C) comedies of manners
(D) farces
Ans : (C)
121. Who has been termed as a motiveless malignity ?
(A) Macbeth
(B) Othello
(C) Iago
(D) Polonlus
Ans : (C)
122. Caliban—
(A) is the hero of the play The Tempest
(B) married prospero's daughter in The Tempest
(C) killed Prospero in The Tempest
(D) is the villain in The Tempest
Ans : (D)
123. Ophelia is the beloved of—
(A) Macbeth
(B) Hamlet
(C) Othello
(D) Romeo
Ans : (B)
124. Simile is—
(A) a part of speech
(B) a figure of speech
(C) a technical device used by old poets
(D) a sister of Emily Dickinson
Ans : (B)
125. John Galsworthy was awarded the Nobel Prize for literature in—
(A) 1912
(B) 1922
(C) 1932
(D) 1942
Ans : (C)
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Reasoning Questions
1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)
3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)
12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)
13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
14. Statements : Some walls are windows.(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)
3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)
12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)
13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)
15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983
16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)
17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)
20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters # Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol # 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.
26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.
31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
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Sunday, January 16, 2011
EXAMS SCHEDULE
● Punjab and Sind Bank Probationary Officers Scale-I Exam. (January 16)
● Clerical Recruitment Exam. in State Bank of India’s Associate Banks (January 16)
● Corporation Bank Officers Cadre Examination (January 16)
● Madhya Pradesh Assistant Director/District Statistical Officer Exam., 2009 (January 16)
● M.P. Police Telecommunication Organisation, Bhopal Constables (Radio) Operator Exam. (January 17)
● Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Officers Scale-I Exam. (January 23)
● Punjab and Sind Bank Specialist Officers Exam. (January 23)
● I.D.B.I. Bank Executives Exam. (January 23)
● UCO Bank Probationary Officer in JMGS-I Exam. (January 30)
● GATE 2011 Online Exam. (January 30) (Papers : GG and TF, AE and MN)
● Punjab and Sind Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (January 30)
● Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Office Assistants Exam. (January 30)
● U.P. PCS Review Officer/Assistant Review Officer etc. General Selection (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (January 30)
● National Insurance Company Ltd. Administrative Officer (Scale-I) Examination. (January 30)
● M.P. School Education Department, Principal Higher Secondary School Recruitment Exam. (January 30)
● M.P. Police Constable Recruitment Exam. (January 30)
February
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. (February 6) (For Class VI)
● Reserve Bank of India Grade ‘B’ Officers Exam. (February 6)
● Union Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (February 6)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher Preliminary Exam. (February 11)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT and Librarian, Primary Teacher (Pre.) Exam. (February 12)
● U.P. Trained Graduate Teacher Recruitment Exam. (Feb 13 & 20)
● Central Bank of India Clerical Cadre Exam. (February 13)
● Assam Gramin Vikas Bank Office Assistant Exam. (February 13)
● UPSC Combined Defence Service Exam. (I), 2011 (February 13)
● GATE 2011 Offline Exam. (February 13) (Papers : AR, BT, CE, CH, CS, ME, PH and PI, AG, CY, EC, EE, IN, MA, MT, XE and XL)
● Assam Gramin Vikas Bank Officer Junior Management Scale-I Exam. (February 20)
● Madhya Pradesh State Services (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (February 20)
● Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I and Scale-II Examination (February 20)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I Exam. (February 20)
● Indian Air Force Airman Recruitment Test (February) (Group ‘X’ Technical Trade)
● S.S.C. Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff Recruitment Exam. (February 27)
● Dena Bank Probationary Officers Exam. (February 27)
● LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (Generalists/Chartered Accountants/Company Secretary/Legal) Exam. (February 27)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Office Assistants Exam.(February 27)
● Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Office Assistants Recruitment Exam. (February 27)
March
● Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officers Recruitment Exam. (March 6)
● Dena Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (March 6)
● Bank of India General Banking Officer Scale-I and II Examination for North Eastern States (March 6)
● Baroda U.P. Gramin Bank Officers (Scale-I) Exam. (March 6)
● Bank of India Clerk Examination for North Eastern States (March 13)
● Rajasthan Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam. (March 13)
● Andhra Pradesh Gramin Vikas Bank Office Assistants Exam., 2010 (March 13)
● Baroda U.P. Gramin Bank Office Assistant Clerical Cadre Exam. (March 13)
● Indian Navy Senior Secondary Recruitment Exam. (March-April)
April
● C.B.S.E. All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental Entrance Exam., 2011 (April 3)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 8)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT and Librarian, Primary Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 9)
● I.I.T. Joint Entrance Exam., 2011 (April 10)
● Rajasthan Sub-Inspector Police Combined Competitive Exam., 2010 (April/May)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( North - East Zone) ( April 10)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( East Zone) ( April 24)
May
● C.B.S.E. All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental (Mains) Exam., 2011 (May 15)
● I.E.R.T. Entrance Exam., 2011 (Allahabad) (Engg./Technology Diploma Course) (May 24)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( South Zone) ( May 08)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( North Zone) ( May 15)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( West Zone) ( May 22)
Wednesday, January 12, 2011
Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2010
General Awareness
(Held on 31-10-2010)
1. The Business Correspondence Model being adopted by the banks provides Banking facilities to which of the following ?
(A) Only Corporate borrowers
(B) Only Weaker sections the society and people of small villages
(C) Only those who are taking housing loans
(D) All (A), (B) and (C) above
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. The concept of ‘Carbon Credit’ is associated with which of the following areas ?
(A) Protection of environment
(B) Women empowerment
(C) Development of rural infrastructure
(D) Development of coal mines
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. As we all know Government is paying much attention to improve Public Distribution System (PDS) in our country. Which of the following have been the achievements of the PDS uptill now, owing to which Government wants to further improve it ?
[Pick up correct statement(s).]
1. After implementing PDS in India, no famine was reported. PDS was always there to give people at least the bare minimum to survive.
2. A drought of 1987 was worst in this century but PDS played a vital role in overcoming the drought.
3. Now PDS is feeding the poorest of the poor in this country.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. Global Micro Credit Summit-2011 will be organized in which of the following countries ?
(A) Britain
(B) South Africa
(C) Spain
(D) Italy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. Many times we read about SHGs in financial newspapers. What is the full form of the term ?
(A) Small Help Groups
(B) Self Help Groups
(C) Small Hope in Growths
(D) Self Hope Groups
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. Whenever newspapers talk about the performance of core industries, which of the following is not considered among them ?
(A) Petroleum
(B) Automobile
(C) Mining
(D) Steel
(E) Cement
Ans : (B)
7. Which of the following agencies/organizations in India maintains the Micro Finance Development and Equity Fund which was in news recently ?
(A) Confederation of Industries in India (CII)
(B) Indian Bank’s Association (IBA)
(C) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
(D) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(E) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
Ans : (D)
8. As per recent newspaper reports UK based Cairn Energy is in the process of selling its stake to which one of the following companies of Indian base ?
(A) ONGC Videsh
(B) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd.
(C) Vedanta Resources
(D) Posco India
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. Which of the following bills presented in the Parliament will bring some changes in existing tax regime ?
(A) Direct Taxes Code (DTC) Bill
(B) Foreign Exchange Management Regulatory Bill
(C) Companies Act Bill
(D) Salaries and Perks for MPs Bill
(E) Finance Bill 2010-11
Ans : (A)
10. Under Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS), the benefits are available to the people having minimum age of …….
(A) 50 years
(B) 55 years
(C) 65 years
(D) 60 years
(E) 70 years
Ans : (C)
11. Mr. Katsuya Okada who was on a visit to India few months back is the Foreign Minister of—
(A) South Korea
(B) Myanmar
(C) Japan
(D) Thailand
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
12. Govt. of India has decided to review its Foreign Direct Investment Rules twice in a year. This will be done from—
(A) 2015
(B) 2012
(C) 2014
(D) 2011
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
13. Many times we read about ‘Hawala’ transactions in newspapers. Hawala in India is prohibited under the provision of which of the following Acts ?
(A) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act(C) Financial action Task Force Act
(D) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. India recently reviewed its trade relation policy with Russia. What are the main exports from India to Russia ?
1. Pharmaceuticals
2. Apparel and Clothing
3. Tea and Coffee
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)
15. As we all know DIPP is the nodal agency in the field of foreign investments in India. What is the full form of DIPP ?
(A) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
(B) Department of Industrial Procedures and Promotions
(C) Directorate of Industrial Procedures and Promotions
(D) Directorate of Industrial Policy and Publicity
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
16. ‘Israel and Palestinians open talks’ was the headline in some major newspapers. As we all know both the nations were not coming for the talks since 2008. Which of the following is the main dispute between these two nations ?
(A) Membership of World Trade Organisation
(B) Membership of G-20
(C) Selecting Syria, one of the major trade partners by Israel. Palestine is dead against it
(D) Redefining the boundaries as a major glacier between them has erased the same
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
17. Many times we read about the performance of Asian Markets in various financial newspapers. Which of the following is not included in Asian Market ?
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) Hong Kong
(D) South Korea
(E) Brazil
Ans : (E)
18. As per the figures released by the World Bank, which of the following countries was the largest recipient of loans from the World Bank during 2009-10 ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan(C) Brazil
(D) China
(E) India
Ans : (E)
19. Which of the following has been fixed as the target for fiscal deficit 2010-11 ?
(In terms of percentage of GDP)
(A) 3%
(B) 3•5%
(C) 4%
(D) 5%
(E) 5•5%Ans : (D)
20. As per news in various newspapers ‘kfw’ Group released another instalment of its financial aid to India. kfw is an organization/bank based in—
(A) France
(B) Japan
(C) Italy
(D) China
(E) Germany
Ans : (E)
21. Which of the following countries has become the main supplier of Defence goods to India and has replaced Russia ?
(A) Canada
(B) USA
(C) Israel
(D) France
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. As per existing policy, new foreign investments in manufacturing of which of the following is not allowed ?
(A) White cement
(B) Plastic goods
(C) Cigarette and Cigars(D) Polythene bags
(E) Pesticides
Ans : (C)
23. The Mixed Double of which of the following Lawn Tennis tournaments was won by Leander Paes along with Cara Black in 2010 ?
(A) Wimbledon
(B) US Open
(C) Australia Open
(D) Dubai Open
(E) None of theseAns : (C)
24. Which of the following is not amongst the Prime Minister’s new 15 point programme ?
(A) Enhanced Credit Support for economic activities
(B) Modernizing Madarsa Education
(C) Improvement in condition of slums inhabited by minorities
(D) Free train journey for unemployed youths
(E) Rehabilitation of victims of communal riots
Ans : (D)
25. The Summit of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation was held in June in which of the following places ?(A) Shanghai
(B) Moscow
(C) Tashkent
(D) Astana
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
26. India’s political relations with its neighbouring countries are a critical part of its …….
(A) Industrial policy
(B) Trade policy
(C) Foreign policy
(D) Development policy
(E) None of theseAns : (C)
27. Which of the following organizations of Indian Origin is helping Sri Lanka in rehabilitation of its war widows ?
(A) Khadi and Village Commission
(B) SEWA
(C) Action for Food Production
(D) Adhar
(E) Aasha
Ans : (B)
28. Who amongst the following became the first Cricketer to take 800 wickets in Test Cricket ?
(A) Kumar Sangakkara
(B) Saqlain Mustaq
(C) Anil Kumble
(D) Muttiah Murlitharan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following agencies/organizations has decided to make major changes for ULIPs ?
(A) IRDA
(B) RBI
(C) AMFI(D) FRBI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. The 16th SAARC Summit was organized in Thimpu. The declaration of the Summit was named as—
(A) Towards Green and Happy South Asia
(B) Silver Jubilee of SAARC
(C) Let us meet again in Delhi
(D) SAARC : The Future of South Asia
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. Which of the following is the name of the programme launched by the Govt. of India to help lonely women by providing vocational training to make them self dependent ?
(A) Apnalaya
(B) Prayas
(C) Abhiyogyata
(D) Swadhar
(E) SwawlambanAns : (D)
32. Which of the following terms is not used in the game of Cricket ?
(A) Doosra
(B) Century(C) Bouncer
(D) Love
(E) Ashes
Ans : (D)
33. Which of the following countries won the Asia Cup Cricket Tournament 2010 held in Sri Lanka ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) India
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
34. Mr. James Alix Michael who was on a visit to India recently is the President of ……
(A) Australia
(B) New Zealand
(C) Colombia
(D) Seychelles
(E) None of theseAns : (D)
35. Trupti Murgunde whose name was in news recently is a—
(A) Badminton player
(B) Golf player
(C) Lawn Tennis player
(D) Table Tennis player
(E) Cricket player
Ans : (A)
36. Which of the following is not a financial term ?
(A) Acid Test(B) Double Fault
(C) Gross Profit
(D) Depreciation
(E) Cash flow
Ans : (A)
37. In the terms of economics, the recession occurring two times with a small gap in between is known as—
(A) Double Deflation
(B) Deflation
(C) Deep Recession
(D) Double Dip Recession
(E) None of theseAns : (A)
38. Saina Nehwal was in Paris recently to play in World Championship. She lost her match against whom amongst the following players ?
(A) Le Chong Wei
(B) Shixian Wang
(C) Taufik Hidayut
(D) Jung Eun
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
39. Union Cabinet recently cleared 15000 crore Sukhoi deal. Sukhoi is—
(A) Battle tank
(B) Fighter plane
(C) Submarine
(D) Radar system
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
40. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award-2010 announced recently ?
(A) Pankaj Adwani
(B) Leander Paes(C) Sania Mirza
(D) M. S. Dhoni
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
41. Which of the following terms is not used in Economics ?
(A) Balance of Payment
(B) Call Money
(C) National Debt
(D) Elasticity of Demand
(E) Boyle’s law
Ans : (E)
42. Which of the following ministries /departments operates the ‘Village Grain Bank’s Schemes’ ?
(A) Ministry of Tribal Welfare
(B) Department of Food and Public Distribution
(C) Department of Social Welfare
(D) Ministry of Forest
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
43. Which of the following countries recently conducted general election and became the first Parliamentary Democracy of Central Asia ?
(A) Turkmenistan
(B) Uzbekistan(C) Kyrgyzstan
(D) Kazakhstan
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
44. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ?
(A) The Golden Gate
(B) Journey to Ithaca
(C) Fore on the Mountain
(D) The inheritance of Loss
(E) 2 States : The Story of My Marriage
Ans : (E)
45. Which of the following nations is the recent one to join Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) ?
(A) Fiji
(B) Cuba
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Colombia
(E) Egypt
Ans : (A)
46. Hiroshima Day is observed on which of the following dates ?
(A) 6th August
(B) 16th August
(C) 6th September(D) 16th September
(E) 26th July
Ans : (A)
47. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the Human Right’s Commission of India at present ?
(A) Prof. M. S. Swaminathan
(B) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan
(C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan
(D) Justice P. V. Reddi
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
48. ‘Booker Prize’ is given in the field of ……
(A) Literature
(B) Social service
(C) Films
(D) Science
(E) Sports
Ans : (A)
49. Which of the following games/sports is not included in the list of Commonwealth Games 2010 ?
(A) Table Tennis
(B) Hockey
(C) Weight lifting(D) Golf
(E) Boxing
Ans : (D)
50. Dronacharya Awards are given to a person associated with—
(A) Education
(B) Social service
(C) Journalism
(D) Sports
(E) Films
Ans : (D)
(Held on 31-10-2010)
1. The Business Correspondence Model being adopted by the banks provides Banking facilities to which of the following ?
(A) Only Corporate borrowers
(B) Only Weaker sections the society and people of small villages
(C) Only those who are taking housing loans
(D) All (A), (B) and (C) above
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. The concept of ‘Carbon Credit’ is associated with which of the following areas ?
(A) Protection of environment
(B) Women empowerment
(C) Development of rural infrastructure
(D) Development of coal mines
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
3. As we all know Government is paying much attention to improve Public Distribution System (PDS) in our country. Which of the following have been the achievements of the PDS uptill now, owing to which Government wants to further improve it ?
[Pick up correct statement(s).]
1. After implementing PDS in India, no famine was reported. PDS was always there to give people at least the bare minimum to survive.
2. A drought of 1987 was worst in this century but PDS played a vital role in overcoming the drought.
3. Now PDS is feeding the poorest of the poor in this country.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. Global Micro Credit Summit-2011 will be organized in which of the following countries ?
(A) Britain
(B) South Africa
(C) Spain
(D) Italy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
5. Many times we read about SHGs in financial newspapers. What is the full form of the term ?
(A) Small Help Groups
(B) Self Help Groups
(C) Small Hope in Growths
(D) Self Hope Groups
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. Whenever newspapers talk about the performance of core industries, which of the following is not considered among them ?
(A) Petroleum
(B) Automobile
(C) Mining
(D) Steel
(E) Cement
Ans : (B)
7. Which of the following agencies/organizations in India maintains the Micro Finance Development and Equity Fund which was in news recently ?
(A) Confederation of Industries in India (CII)
(B) Indian Bank’s Association (IBA)
(C) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
(D) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(E) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
Ans : (D)
8. As per recent newspaper reports UK based Cairn Energy is in the process of selling its stake to which one of the following companies of Indian base ?
(A) ONGC Videsh
(B) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd.
(C) Vedanta Resources
(D) Posco India
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
9. Which of the following bills presented in the Parliament will bring some changes in existing tax regime ?
(A) Direct Taxes Code (DTC) Bill
(B) Foreign Exchange Management Regulatory Bill
(C) Companies Act Bill
(D) Salaries and Perks for MPs Bill
(E) Finance Bill 2010-11
Ans : (A)
10. Under Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS), the benefits are available to the people having minimum age of …….
(A) 50 years
(B) 55 years
(C) 65 years
(D) 60 years
(E) 70 years
Ans : (C)
11. Mr. Katsuya Okada who was on a visit to India few months back is the Foreign Minister of—
(A) South Korea
(B) Myanmar
(C) Japan
(D) Thailand
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
12. Govt. of India has decided to review its Foreign Direct Investment Rules twice in a year. This will be done from—
(A) 2015
(B) 2012
(C) 2014
(D) 2011
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
13. Many times we read about ‘Hawala’ transactions in newspapers. Hawala in India is prohibited under the provision of which of the following Acts ?
(A) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act(C) Financial action Task Force Act
(D) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
14. India recently reviewed its trade relation policy with Russia. What are the main exports from India to Russia ?
1. Pharmaceuticals
2. Apparel and Clothing
3. Tea and Coffee
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)
15. As we all know DIPP is the nodal agency in the field of foreign investments in India. What is the full form of DIPP ?
(A) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
(B) Department of Industrial Procedures and Promotions
(C) Directorate of Industrial Procedures and Promotions
(D) Directorate of Industrial Policy and Publicity
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
16. ‘Israel and Palestinians open talks’ was the headline in some major newspapers. As we all know both the nations were not coming for the talks since 2008. Which of the following is the main dispute between these two nations ?
(A) Membership of World Trade Organisation
(B) Membership of G-20
(C) Selecting Syria, one of the major trade partners by Israel. Palestine is dead against it
(D) Redefining the boundaries as a major glacier between them has erased the same
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
17. Many times we read about the performance of Asian Markets in various financial newspapers. Which of the following is not included in Asian Market ?
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) Hong Kong
(D) South Korea
(E) Brazil
Ans : (E)
18. As per the figures released by the World Bank, which of the following countries was the largest recipient of loans from the World Bank during 2009-10 ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan(C) Brazil
(D) China
(E) India
Ans : (E)
19. Which of the following has been fixed as the target for fiscal deficit 2010-11 ?
(In terms of percentage of GDP)
(A) 3%
(B) 3•5%
(C) 4%
(D) 5%
(E) 5•5%Ans : (D)
20. As per news in various newspapers ‘kfw’ Group released another instalment of its financial aid to India. kfw is an organization/bank based in—
(A) France
(B) Japan
(C) Italy
(D) China
(E) Germany
Ans : (E)
21. Which of the following countries has become the main supplier of Defence goods to India and has replaced Russia ?
(A) Canada
(B) USA
(C) Israel
(D) France
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. As per existing policy, new foreign investments in manufacturing of which of the following is not allowed ?
(A) White cement
(B) Plastic goods
(C) Cigarette and Cigars(D) Polythene bags
(E) Pesticides
Ans : (C)
23. The Mixed Double of which of the following Lawn Tennis tournaments was won by Leander Paes along with Cara Black in 2010 ?
(A) Wimbledon
(B) US Open
(C) Australia Open
(D) Dubai Open
(E) None of theseAns : (C)
24. Which of the following is not amongst the Prime Minister’s new 15 point programme ?
(A) Enhanced Credit Support for economic activities
(B) Modernizing Madarsa Education
(C) Improvement in condition of slums inhabited by minorities
(D) Free train journey for unemployed youths
(E) Rehabilitation of victims of communal riots
Ans : (D)
25. The Summit of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation was held in June in which of the following places ?(A) Shanghai
(B) Moscow
(C) Tashkent
(D) Astana
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
26. India’s political relations with its neighbouring countries are a critical part of its …….
(A) Industrial policy
(B) Trade policy
(C) Foreign policy
(D) Development policy
(E) None of theseAns : (C)
27. Which of the following organizations of Indian Origin is helping Sri Lanka in rehabilitation of its war widows ?
(A) Khadi and Village Commission
(B) SEWA
(C) Action for Food Production
(D) Adhar
(E) Aasha
Ans : (B)
28. Who amongst the following became the first Cricketer to take 800 wickets in Test Cricket ?
(A) Kumar Sangakkara
(B) Saqlain Mustaq
(C) Anil Kumble
(D) Muttiah Murlitharan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
29. Which of the following agencies/organizations has decided to make major changes for ULIPs ?
(A) IRDA
(B) RBI
(C) AMFI(D) FRBI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. The 16th SAARC Summit was organized in Thimpu. The declaration of the Summit was named as—
(A) Towards Green and Happy South Asia
(B) Silver Jubilee of SAARC
(C) Let us meet again in Delhi
(D) SAARC : The Future of South Asia
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. Which of the following is the name of the programme launched by the Govt. of India to help lonely women by providing vocational training to make them self dependent ?
(A) Apnalaya
(B) Prayas
(C) Abhiyogyata
(D) Swadhar
(E) SwawlambanAns : (D)
32. Which of the following terms is not used in the game of Cricket ?
(A) Doosra
(B) Century(C) Bouncer
(D) Love
(E) Ashes
Ans : (D)
33. Which of the following countries won the Asia Cup Cricket Tournament 2010 held in Sri Lanka ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) India
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
34. Mr. James Alix Michael who was on a visit to India recently is the President of ……
(A) Australia
(B) New Zealand
(C) Colombia
(D) Seychelles
(E) None of theseAns : (D)
35. Trupti Murgunde whose name was in news recently is a—
(A) Badminton player
(B) Golf player
(C) Lawn Tennis player
(D) Table Tennis player
(E) Cricket player
Ans : (A)
36. Which of the following is not a financial term ?
(A) Acid Test(B) Double Fault
(C) Gross Profit
(D) Depreciation
(E) Cash flow
Ans : (A)
37. In the terms of economics, the recession occurring two times with a small gap in between is known as—
(A) Double Deflation
(B) Deflation
(C) Deep Recession
(D) Double Dip Recession
(E) None of theseAns : (A)
38. Saina Nehwal was in Paris recently to play in World Championship. She lost her match against whom amongst the following players ?
(A) Le Chong Wei
(B) Shixian Wang
(C) Taufik Hidayut
(D) Jung Eun
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
39. Union Cabinet recently cleared 15000 crore Sukhoi deal. Sukhoi is—
(A) Battle tank
(B) Fighter plane
(C) Submarine
(D) Radar system
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
40. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award-2010 announced recently ?
(A) Pankaj Adwani
(B) Leander Paes(C) Sania Mirza
(D) M. S. Dhoni
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
41. Which of the following terms is not used in Economics ?
(A) Balance of Payment
(B) Call Money
(C) National Debt
(D) Elasticity of Demand
(E) Boyle’s law
Ans : (E)
42. Which of the following ministries /departments operates the ‘Village Grain Bank’s Schemes’ ?
(A) Ministry of Tribal Welfare
(B) Department of Food and Public Distribution
(C) Department of Social Welfare
(D) Ministry of Forest
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
43. Which of the following countries recently conducted general election and became the first Parliamentary Democracy of Central Asia ?
(A) Turkmenistan
(B) Uzbekistan(C) Kyrgyzstan
(D) Kazakhstan
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
44. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ?
(A) The Golden Gate
(B) Journey to Ithaca
(C) Fore on the Mountain
(D) The inheritance of Loss
(E) 2 States : The Story of My Marriage
Ans : (E)
45. Which of the following nations is the recent one to join Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) ?
(A) Fiji
(B) Cuba
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Colombia
(E) Egypt
Ans : (A)
46. Hiroshima Day is observed on which of the following dates ?
(A) 6th August
(B) 16th August
(C) 6th September(D) 16th September
(E) 26th July
Ans : (A)
47. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the Human Right’s Commission of India at present ?
(A) Prof. M. S. Swaminathan
(B) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan
(C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan
(D) Justice P. V. Reddi
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
48. ‘Booker Prize’ is given in the field of ……
(A) Literature
(B) Social service
(C) Films
(D) Science
(E) Sports
Ans : (A)
49. Which of the following games/sports is not included in the list of Commonwealth Games 2010 ?
(A) Table Tennis
(B) Hockey
(C) Weight lifting(D) Golf
(E) Boxing
Ans : (D)
50. Dronacharya Awards are given to a person associated with—
(A) Education
(B) Social service
(C) Journalism
(D) Sports
(E) Films
Ans : (D)
Sunday, January 9, 2011
Friday, January 7, 2011
Wednesday, January 5, 2011
I.D.B.I. Assistant Manager Exam., 2010
General and Financial Awareness
(Held on 14-11-2010)
1. The present Cash Reserve Ratio is—
(A) 5%
(B) 5•5%
(C) 6%
(D) 6•5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. One of the objectives of KYC (Know Your Customer) norms is—
(A) to give boost to bank deposits
(B) to safeguard banks advances
(C) to monitor transactions of suspicious nature
(D) to help income tax authorities to collect income tax
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. Contribution to Prime Minister's relief fund enjoys Income Tax benefit up to—
(A) 50% under section 80G
(B) 75% under section 80G
(C) 100% under section 80 G
(D) 100% under section 88
(E) No exemption is available
Ans : (C)
4. Which of the following activities are expected to be performed by the Business correspondents ?
(A) Disbursal of small value credit
(B) Collection of small value deposits
(C) Sale of micro insurance /mutual fund products
(D) All the three above
(E) Only (B) and (C) above
Ans : (E)
5. Tax at source by banks is deducted on interest paid on term deposits in the interest amount in a financial year exceeds—
(A) Rs. 3,000
(B) Rs. 5,000
(C) Rs. 10,000
(D) Rs. 15,000
(E) There is no such provision
Ans : (B)
6. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of security Interest Act relates to—
(A) Sanction of loans
(B) Enhancement of loan limits
(C) Recovery of loans
(D) All the above
(E) None of above
Ans : (C)
7. MSMED Act is applicable to—
(A) Smalls enterprises only
(B) Medium enterprises only
(C) Micro enterprises only
(D) Micro, Small and Medium enterprises
(E) All enterprises irrespective of their size engaged in manufacturing activity
Ans : (D)
8. Money Laundering refers to—
(A) Conversion of assets into cash
(B) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained
(C) Conversion of cash into gold
(D) Conversion of gold into cash
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)
9. The Monetary and Credit Policy is reviewed by the RBI after a gap of—
(A) one year
(B) one month
(C) two years
(D) five years
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
10. PPF account is opened for a period of—
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 20 years
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. Yuan is the currency of—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) Indonesia
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
12. National savings certificate matures at the end of—
(A) Six years
(B) Three years
(C) Six and half years
(D) Five years
(E) Five and half years
Ans : (A)
13. Normally Bank accept Fixed Deposits for a maximum period of—
(A) 5 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 10 years
(D) 20 years
(E) Any number of years
Ans : (E)
14. Code of banks commitment to Micro and Small enterprises is prepared by—
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) FEDAI
(D) BCSBI
(E) Ministry of Small and Medium Enterprises
Ans : (E)
15. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of debit card ?
(A) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery
(B) No interest earning for banks
(C) Works like a normal withdrawal
(D) All the above
(E) 45 dayes credit is given to the card holder
Ans : (E)
16. IFRS stands for—
(A) International Financial Reporting standards
(B) Indian Financial Rating Standards
(C) International Financial Rating Standards
(D) All the three above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)
17. What is the present Repo Rate ?
(A) 5%
(B) 5•5%
(C) 6%
(D) 6•5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
18. There are certain financial instruments whose prices are derived from the price of the underlying currency of interest rate or stocks etc. These are known as—
(A) Derivatives
(B) Securitisation
(C) Leasing
(D) Factoring
(E) Venture Capital Funding
Ans : (A)
19. What is the full form of ASBA ?
(A) Allotment supported by Blocked Amount
(B) Application supported by Blocked Amount
(C) Application supported by Bank Amount
(D) Allotment supported by Bank Account
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)
20. Reverse Repo is used by RBI to—
(A) Inject liquidity
(B) Absorb liquidity
(C) Increase the liquidity with banking system
(D) Keep the liquidity at one level
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)
21. Which of the following is not considered as lending under infrastructure sector ?
(A) A Highway project
(B) Construction of Educational Institution
(C) Construction of Hospital
(D) Laying down of petroleum pipelines
(E) None of the above
Ans : (E)
22. KYC guidelines have been framed on the recommendations/as per guidelines of—
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Indian Banks Association
(D) Financial Action Task Force
(E) Ministry of Home affairs
Ans : (A)
23. The term ‘Power of Attorney’ refers to—
(A) Power of a person
(B) An authority to operate a Bank account
(C) An instrument by which a person is empowered to act for another person
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
24. What is the amount of compensation to be paid per day, as per RBI directives in case of failed ATM transactions ?
(A) Rs. 50
(B) Rs. 100
(C) Rs. 200
(D) Rs. 500
(E) It is at the discretion of each Bank
Ans : (B)
25. Financial Action Task Force has an office in India at which place ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Chennai
(C) Kolkata
(D) New Delhi
(E) All the above places
Ans : (D)
26. Bridge loans refer to—
(A) Loans granted to contruction companies for construction of bridges
(B) Loan granted to PWD for construction of bridges over Rivers
(C) Interim finance allowed by banks to their customers pending disbursement of term loans by financial institutions
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
27. Payment of Demand Draft can be stopped by—
(A) Payee
(B) Holder
(C) Purchaser
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. Can any one file an appeal against the order passed by the Banking Ombudsman ? If so who is the Appellate Authority ?
(A) The Chairman of concerned Bank
(B) The Deputy Governor RBI
(C) Governor of RBI
(D) Finance Minister
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)
29. For which one of the following reasons, the Government has approved a plan to infuse Rs. 15,000 crore capital into PSBs ?
(A) To boost their lending capacity
(B) To maintain minimum CRAR as per Basel II norms
(C) To maintain NPA provision coverage ratio
(D) To strengthen the Balance Sheet of banks
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
30. What is monetary policy transmission ?
(A) It refers to monetary policy of Central Bank
(B) It refers to fiscal policy of Government
(C) It refers to various channels through which the monetary policy of a Central Bank alters prices or output in the real economy
(D) It refers to various channels through which the fiscal policy of the Government alters prices or output in the real economy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
31. On which one of the following issue IMF has supported monetary policy of India ?
(A) Tightening of monetary policy
(B) Stimulus for agriculture sector
(C) Concessions for foreign investment
(D) Introduction of GST
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. The advantage of convenience in credit card operations is for—
(A) Customer
(B) Members Establishments
(C) Banks
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)
33. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, CAs/CS have been told to report all suspicious fund trasnfers ?
(A) RBI Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Indian Companies Act
(D) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Bancassurance is—
(A) an insurance scheme to insure bank deposits
(B) an insurance scheme exclusively for the employees of banks
(C) a composite financial service offering both bank and insurance product
(D) a bank deposits scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
35. In the term STRIPS, the first letter ‘S’ denotes—
(A) Separate
(B) Small
(C) Special
(D) Savings
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
36. Which of the following organizations, provide credit history of the borrowers ?
(A) CIBIL
(B) SEBI
(C) RBI
(D) CRISIL
(E) IBA
Ans : (A)
37. Loans/advances to farmers is treated as—
(A) Personal Loans
(B) Priority Sector Loan
(C) Business Loan
(D) Corporate Loan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
38. Which one of the following Organisations maintains CRR ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) NABARD
(D) IBA
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
39. When the loan is granted for purchase of white goods it is called—
(A) Consumption loan
(B) White goods loan
(C) Consumer durable loan
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)
40. Which one of the following is the objective of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?
(A) To provide 100 days employment to people in rural areas
(B) To provide employment to educated youth
(C) To provide employment under KVIC schemes
(D) To create more valuable rural assets
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
41. Structure of Basel II is based on how many pillars ?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Eight
(E) Six
Ans : (B)
42. With which one of the following ‘Channel Financing’ is associated ?
(A) Retail Lending
(B) Corporate Lending
(C) SME Lending
(D) Supply Chain Finance
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
43. Expand the term FRBM—
(A) Financial Responsibility and Business Management
(B) Fiscal Responsibility and Business Management
(C) Financial Responsibility and Budget Management
(D) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
44. A customer can approach Banking ombudsman if he does not get satisfactory response to his grievance from the bank within how many days ?
(A) 10 days
(B) 20 days
(C) 8 days
(D) 30 days
(E) 60 days
Ans : (D)
45. Which one of the following country is in talks with EU and International Monetary Fund, to exit from debt crisis ?
(A) Spain
(B) Turkey
(C) Portugal
(D) Greece
(E) Finland
Ans : (D)
46. For achieving 8•5 percent GDP growth in fiscal 2010-11, which one of the following should be percent growth in farm sector ?
(A) 2•0
(B) 2•5
(C) 3•0
(D) 4•0
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
47. According to a report submitted by IMF in its World Economic Outlook, which one of the following countries will have highest percent GDP growth rate in 2011 ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Brazil
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
48. Which one of the following has given ‘Aadhaar’ as its new brand name ?
(A) UIDAI
(B) Sports Ministry, GOI
(C) Ministry of Tourism, GOI
(D) NHAI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
49. Which of the following will help poor to come out of their poverty ?
1. Good Health Service
2. Freedom from illiteracy
3. Optimum Sex Ratio
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
50. Which one of the following is per cent Bank Rate ?
(A) 4•0
(B) 4•5
(C) 5
(D) 3•33
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
United India Insurance A.A.O. Exam., 2010
General Awareness
(EXAM Held on 6-6-2010)
1. Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission or Solar India has been launched to create an installed capacity of 2000 MW by the end of—
(A) 13th Plan
(B) 14th Plan
(C) 15th Plan
(D) 16th Plan
Ans : (A)
2. Bollywood actors who, on February 2, 2010 rang bells in NASDAQ on Time Square, New York—an honour usually reserved for CEOs of major corporations, are—
(A) Amir Khan and Priyanka Chopra
(B) Shah Rukh Khan and Kajol
(C) Abhishek Bachchan and Aswarya
(D) Saif Ali Khan and Kareena Kapoor
Ans : (B)
3. The term ‘16 yards hit’ is associated with—
(A) Badminton
(B) Baseball
(C) Polo
(D) Hockey
Ans : (D)
4. The vital constituent of blood that helps in clotting is—
(A) Platelets
(B) Haemoglobin
(C) Plasma
(D) Serum
Ans : (A)
5. Which of the following animals can hear ultrasonic sound ?
(A) Cat
(B) Rat
(C) Bat
(D) Squirrel
Ans : (C)
6. The acid rain destroys vegetations because it contains—
(A) Sulphuric acid
(B) Ozone
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Nitric acid
Ans : (A)
7. Man Booker Prize winner Ms. Kiran Desai’s novel, ‘The Inheritance of Loss’ deals with—
(A) Telangana movement
(B) Santhal movement
(C) Gorkhaland movement
(D) Bodoland movement
Ans : (C)
8. GARC is the acronym for—
(A) Global Automotive Research Consortium
(B) Global Atomic Research Consortium
(C) Global Automotive Research Centre
(D) Global Advancement Research Centre
Ans : (C)
9. The largest fresh water lake, ‘Lake Superior’ is located in—
(A) Canada
(B) Russia
(C) Tanzania
(D) Argentina
Ans : (A)
10. In which State of India is the largest river island Majuli ?
(A) Assam
(B) Kolkata
(C) Orissa
(D) M.P.
Ans : (A)
11. Match the following—
(a) Berlin, Germany
(b) Ankara, Turkey
(c) Bristol, UK
(d) Budapest, Hungary
1. Danube
2. Kizil
3. Spree
4. Avon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans : (D)
12. Government’s ambitious UID Project has been renamed—
(A) Parichaya
(B) Pahchan
(C) Aadhar
(D) Aanklan
Ans : (C)
13. Who is the author of the book ‘Speaking for Myself’ ?
(A) Salman Rushdie
(B) Cherie Blair
(C) Mohammad Hanif
(D) Hillary Clinton
Ans : (B)
14. The name of India’s first homebuilt stealth warship whose features reduce the probability of being detected at sea is—
(A) Sahyadiri
(B) Satpura
(C) Shivalik
(D) Shivaji
Ans : (C)
15. Which country will host the 17th SAARC summit ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Nepal
(C) Shri Lanka
(D) Maldives
Ans : (D)
16. India’s Prime Minister Manmohan Singh is seated at the ……… spot in the leaders’ list of 100 most influential persons of the world realeased by the famous Time Magazine recently.
(A) 15
(B) 19
(C) 23
(D) 27
Ans : (B)
17. The Islam was established in—
(A) 5th A.D.
(B) 7th A.D.
(C) 3rd B.C.
(D) 5th B.C.
Ans : (B)
18. Which part of the human body is highly affected by the nuclear radiation first ?
(A) Bone marrow
(B) Skin
(C) Lungs
(D) Eyes
Ans : (B)
19. Who invented the video-tape ?
(A) Charles Ginsberg
(B) Georges de Mestral
(C) Richard James
(D) P. T. Farnsworth
Ans : (A)
20. Match the following—
(a) NH–1
(b) NH–3
(c) NH–5
(d) NH–7
1. Varanasi–Kanyakumari
2. Kolkata–Chennai
3. New Delhi–Amritsar
4. Agra–Mumbai
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (B)
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