FCI Management Trainee (General/Depot) Solved Paper

Reasoning

(BASED ON MEMORY)

1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
Ans. (A)2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
Ans. (B)
3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
Ans. (D)
4. acme : mace :: alga: ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
Ans. (D)
5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
Ans. (D)
6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
Ans. (C)
7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D)G
Ans. (C)
8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans. (D)
9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
Ans. (C)
10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(C) 52
(B) 49
(D) 56
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the other three.
11. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)
12. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
Ans. (B)
13. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
Ans. (B)
14. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.
15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
Ans. (B)
17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
18. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
Ans. (C)
19. (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
Ans. (A)
20. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
Ans. (A)
21. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
Ans. (B)
22. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
Ans. (B)
23. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (D)
24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
Ans. (D)
25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
Ans. (C)
26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
Ans. (B)
27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
Ans. (A)
28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
Ans. (C)
29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (B)
30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (D)
31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
Ans. (A)
32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
Ans. (C)
35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
Ans. (C)
36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
Ans. (D)
37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
Ans. (D)
38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
Ans. (D)
39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (A)
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (C)
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
Ans. (D)
42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded
in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
Ans. (D)
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
Ans. (B)
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Ans. (B)
45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
Ans. (D)
46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
Ans. (B)
47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to …….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)
48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to………
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
Ans. (D)
49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
Ans. (B)
50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Ans. (B)

FCI Management Trainee (General/Depot/Movement) Solved Paper

Management Trainee (General/Depot/Movement) Question Papers

1. Who of the following brought the Sikh Kingdom of Punjab under direct British rule
by an official proclamation?
(A) Lord Hastings
(B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) Lord Minto
(D) Lord Dalhousie
Ans. (D)
2. India is comparatively not rich in which one of the following minerals compared to the other three?
(A) Bauxite
(B) Copper
(C) Iron
(D) Manganese
Ans. (B)
3. Among the following, which one has recorded the highest population growth rate during 1991-2001?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Manipur
(C) Nagaland
(D) Sikkim
Ans. (C)
4. In which one of the following regions does the Indus river originate?
(A) Laddakh
(B) Lahaul
(C) Nepal
(D) Tibet
Ans. (A)
5. What is the term used to denote the temperature at which the water vapour present in the atmosphere is sufficient to saturate?
(A) Condensation point
(B) Dew point
(C) Sublimation point
(D) Saturation point
Ans. (D)
6. The earth’s reflectivity of solar radiation, termed albedo, is highest in which one of the following?
(A) Cropland
(B) Forest area
(C) Sand desert
(D) Snow area
Ans. (D)
7. Who of the following wrote the book Precepts of Jesus?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy
(B) Devendranath Tagore
(C) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(D) Keshab Chandra Sen
Ans. (A)
8. Who for the first time saw bacteria through a microscope made by himself?
(A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
(B) Louis Pasteur
(C) Robert Hooke
(D) Robert Virchow
Ans. (A)
9. Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration?
(A) Dictyosomes
(B) Endoplasmic reticula
(C) Lysosomes
(D) Mitochondria
Ans. (D)
10. To which of the following types of animals are Salamanders closely related ?
(A) Dolphins and Whales
(B) Frogs and Toads
(C) Prawns and Crabs
(D) Seals and Walruses
Ans. (B)
11. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A seed is a ripened —
(A) ovary
(B) flower
(C) gynoecium
(D) ovule
Ans. (D)
12. Historical materialism is a tenet of which one of the following political theories ?
(A) Capitalism
(B) Liberalism
(C) Fascism
(D) Marxism
Ans. (D)
13. What is ‘Look East Policy’ often in the news?
(A) Government of India’s initiative for the infrastructural development in the North Eastern States
(B) India’s search for oil and gas in its Eastern shoreline
(C) India’s collaboration with some East Asian countries in the exploration of oil and gas
(D) India’s continuing pursuit of close relations with South-East Asian countries
Ans. (D)
14. Who of the following published a famous pamphlet known as ‘Right of Mass’ and urged the people in England, America and France to fight for their liberty ?
(A) Thomas Jefferson
(B) Thomas Paine
(C) John Locke
(D) Jean Jacques Rousseau
Ans. (B)
15. Who of the following invented the cotton gin that separates the seeds from cotton three hundred times faster than by hand?
(A) Eli Whitney
(B) George Stephenson
(C) McAdam
(D) James Watt
Ans. (A)
16. Whose duty is it to recommend to the President of India on the issue of the distribution and allocation of the net proceeds of taxes in the context of Centre State fiscal relations ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Union Ministry of Finance
(D) Finance Commission
Ans. (D)
17. In the Union Government, under whose charge is the Cabinet Secretariat?
(A) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(B) The President of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) The Union Home Minister
Ans. (C)
18. Which Five-Year Plan had an objective of “Rapid Industrialization with particular emphasis on development of basic and heavy industries”?
(A) First
(C) Third
(B) Second
(D) Fourth
Ans. (B)
19. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given rulers of ancient India?
(A) Ashoka — Kanishka — Milinda
(B) Milinda — Ashoka — Kanishka
(C) Ashoka — Milinda — Kanishka
(D) Milinda — Kanishka — Ashoka
Ans. (C)
20. Which one of the following is not a disease caused by virus?
(A) Bird-flu
(B) Chickenpox
(C) Cholera
(D) Dengue
Ans. (C)
21. In terms of the evolution of organisms, which one among the following is the most advanced?
(A) Bat
(C) Shark
(B) Pigeon
(D) Vulture
Ans. (A)
22. Which one of the following is not a genetic disorder?
(A) Colour blindness
(B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Hemophilia
(D) Xerophthalmia
Ans. (D)
23. Which one of the following is an enzyme?
(A) Gastrin
(B) Keratin
(C) Trypsin
(D) Vasopressin
Ans. (C)
24. In human body, which one of the following secretes hormones as well as digestive enzymes ?
(A) Oesophagus
(B) Pancreas
(C) Spleen
(D) Large intestine
Ans. (B)
25. In the human body, which of the following store / stores extra blood for release when
shortages occur?
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Spleen
(D) Lymph nodes
Ans. (C)
26. A bullet travelling horizontally hits a block kept at rest on a horizontal surface and gets embedded into it, the two together then move with a uniform velocity. Which one of the following conservation laws holds?
(A) Conservation of angular momentum
(B) Conservation of kinetic energy
(C) Conservation of linear momentum
(D) Conservation of velocity
Ans. (C)
27. Which one of the following is correct?
A negatively charged glass rod has always—
(A) less electrons than protons
(B) less electrons than neutrons
(C) less protons than electrons
(D) less neutrons than protons
Ans. (C)
28. Who among the following was sent by Lord Harding’s to South Africa to plead the cause of Indians led by the young Gandhi?
(A) B. G. Tilak
(B) G. K. Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Motilal Nehru
Ans. (B)
29. Which one of the following is not a current of North Atlantic Ocean?
(A) Falkland Current
(B) Canary Current
(C) Labrador Current
(D) Gulf Stream
Ans. (A)
30. Which one of the following States does not share boundary with Jharkhand ?
(A) Chattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (B)
31. Through which States does Vamsadhara river flow?
(A) Andhra Pradesh and Chattisgarh only
(B) Chattisgarh and Orissa only
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa only
(D) Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh and Orissa
Ans. (C)
32. Whose entry into India resulted in the introduction of maize crop in India?
(A) Dutch
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
Ans. (D)
33. The efforts of who of the following led to the “Age of Consent Act, 1891”?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) M. G. Ranade
(C) Surendra Nath Bannerjee
(D) Mulbari
Ans. (D)
34. What was the name of the party formed by Subhas Chandra Bose after leaving Indian
National Congress?
(A) Congress Socialist Party
(B) Forward Bloc
(C) Indian National Conference
(D) Swaraj Party
Ans. (B)
35. Among the following who was a prominent leader of Khilafat Movement?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans. (B)
36. Who was the architect of the ‘Drain Theory’ and the author of the book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Ramesh Chandra Dutt
Ans. (A)
37. The Civil Disobedience Movement started with which of the following?
(A) No-tax campaign in Bardoli district
(B) Demonstration of Akali Sikhs at Nabha
(C) Demonstration against the Simon Commission
(D) Dandi March
Ans. (D)
38. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide
Ans. (B)
39. Which dance form are Birju Maharaj and Gopi Krishna renowned for?
(A) Kathak
(B) Chhau
(C) Kathakali
(D) Odissi
Ans. (A)
401. Which is the official language of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep?
(A) Tamil
(B) Marathi
(C) Malayalam
(D) Konkani
Ans. (C)
41. Who is known as the ‘Father of India’s missile programme’?
(A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) R. Santhanam
(C) Raja Ramanna
(D) Homi Bhabha
Ans. (A)
42. The birthday of which sportsperson is celebrated as National Sports Day?
(A) Sunil Gavaskar
(B) PT. Usha
(C) Prakash Padukone
(D) Dhyan Chand
Ans. (D)
43. Who among the following holds a record of the fastest 100 test wickets taken by an Indian bowler?
(A) Erapalli Prasanna
(B) Bhagawat Chandrasekhar
(C) Bishan Singh Bedi
(D) Kapil Dev
Ans. (D)
44 In which city were the first Asian Games held?
(A) Bangkok
(B) Kuala Lumpur
(C) New Delhi
(D) Moscow
Ans. (C)
45. The First Five Year Plan covered the period—
(A) 1951-56
(B) 1952-57
(C) 1947-52
(D) 1950-55
Ans. (A)
46. The breadth of the railway broad gauge is approximately—
(A) 1.67m
(B) 1.33m
(C) 2.00m
(D) 1.83m
Ans. (A)
47. Modulation used in a GSM mobile phone is—
(A) PSK
(B) BPSK
(C) MSK
(D) GMSK
Ans. (D)
48. The light in optical fibre cable propagates due to—
(A) Refraction
(B) Diffraction
(C) Total internal reflection
(D) Interference
Ans. (C)
49. When a TV receiver is switched n, the picture comes late, Why ?
(A) Video bandwidth is large
(B) Video signal takes longer to arrive
(C) Electron emission takes time
(D) All of the above.
Ans. (C)
50. Seismograph is used in the study of—
(A) Moon
(B) Earthquake
(C) Floods
(D) Tides
Ans. (B)

FCI Management Trainee (Accounts) Previous Solved Paper

1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at—
(A) Cost price
(B) Market price
(C) Cost or market price which ever is higher
(D) Cost or market price which ever is lower
Ans. (D)
2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of—
(A) Over statement of assets
(B) Understatement of assets
(C) Understatement of liabilities
(D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts
Ans. (B)
3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to—
(A) Accrual concept
(B) Entity concept
(C) Dual aspect concept
(D) Money measurement concept
Ans. (D)
4. Balance in ‘Nazrana’s a/c’ in the books of lessee is shown in—
(A) Landlords a/c
(B) P&L a/c
(C) Balance sheet assets side
(D) Balance sheet liabilities side
Ans. (C)
5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on—
(A) Cash price of the asset
(B) Hire purchase price of the asset
(C) Higher of the two
(D) Lower of the two
Ans. (A)
6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under—
(A) Asset accrued method
(B) Total cash price method
(C) Any of the two methods
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be-—
(A) Rs. 16667
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 33333
Ans. (B)
8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at—
(A) Opening rate of exchange
(B) Closing rate of exchange
(C) Average rate of exchange
(D) Rate applicable to debtors
Ans. (B)
9. If goods are transferred from ‘X’ department to ‘Y’ department at cost +25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in ‘Y’ department will be—
(A) Rs. 4000
(B) Rs. 5000
(C) Rs. 6000
(D) Rs. 3333
Ans. (A)
10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonoured, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs.6000
(C) Rs. 4000
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum—
(A) 5 partners
(B) 10 partners
(C) 20 partners
(D) Any number of partners
Ans. (B)
12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ‘X’. If ‘X’ withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be—
(A) Debited to his capital a/c
(B) Credited to his drawing a/c
(C) Credited to his current a/c
(D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c
Ans. (A)
13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm—
(A) Interest at 6% p.a.
(B) Interest at 12% p.a.
(C) Interest at 15% p.a.
(D) No interest
Ans. (A)
14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be—
(A) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2
(B) 4: 3 : 2: 1
(C) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be—
(A) 10:6:4
(B) 6:10:4
(C) 8:8:4
(D) 9:7:4
Ans. (D)
16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24000. C is admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill—
(A) Rs.21000
(B) Rs.9000
(C) Rs. 15000
(D) Rs. 6000
Ans. (D)
17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of—
(A) Rs. 500000
(C) Rs. 800000
(B) Rs.600000
(D) Rs. 375000
Ans. (A)
18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c—
(A) Passage money
(B) Freight
(C) Primage
(D) Address commission
Ans. (D)
19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking company have been revised w.e.f.—
(A) 1st April 1949
(B) 1st April 1991
(C) 1st April 1992
(D) 1st April 1956
Ans. (C)
20. If accured outstanding premium is given in the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in—
(A) Revenue Account
(B) Balance Sheet
(C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
21. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost or net realisable value on account of the accounting principle of—
(A) Realisation
(B) Consistency
(C) Conservatism
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
22. In the period of rising prices, LIFO method may result in—
(A) Lowering the profit
(B) Raising the profit
(C) Raising the tax liability
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
23. Given,
Total assets turnover 4
Net Profits 10%
Total Assets Rs. 50000
Net profit will be—
(A) Rs. 15000
(B) Rs. 10000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs.20000
Ans. (D)
24. A company auditor addresses his audit report to-
(A) Board of directors
(B) Members
(C) Managing director
(D) Company secretary
Ans. (B)
25. Bonus shares means shares issued to—
(A) Workers
(B) Existing equity shareholders
(C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of dividend
(D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest
Ans. (B)
26. Which of the following does not call for physical verification?
(A) Stock
(B) Plant
(C) Loose tools
(D) Goodwill
Ans. (D)
27. Cash from operations is equal to—
(A) Net profit + increase in current assets
(B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities
(C) Profit from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and liabilities
(D) Fund from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and current liabilities
Ans. (C)
28. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 Firm’s capital is Rs. 60000 and normal return on business is expected at 10%. The goodwill by capitalisation method will be-
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 40000
Ans. (A)
29. Which of the following is not a current liability?
(A) Bank overdraft
(B) Redeemable debentures
(C) Account payable
(D) Provision for bad debts
Ans. (B)
30. Amount of under writing commission payable on the issue of debentures is limited to—
(A) 2%
(B) 2.5%
(C) 3%
(D) 5%
Ans. (B)
31. Which of the following acid test ratio can be said to be satisfactory?
(A) 2: 1
(C) 1: 1
(B) 1: 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
32. The two factor theory of motivation was propounded by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Herzberg
(C) McGregor
(D) Maslow
Ans. (B)
33. Which of the following leadership styles is most commonly found now a day?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Free rein
(D) Participative
Ans. (B)
34. Deciding in advance what is to be done in future is called—
(A) Management
(B) Coordination
(C) Planning
(D) Decision-making
Ans. (C)
35. The organisation structure where there is direct vertical relationship is called—
(A) Line organisation
(B) Chain organisation
(C) Command organisation
(D) All the above
Ans. (D)
36. When managers devote their attention only to those events where results are highly deviated from normal; ft is called—
(A) Management by objective
(B) Management by exception
(C) Management by crisis
(D) Management by choice
Ans. (B)
37. Under delegation of authority—
(A) Authority is given to subordinates
(B) Authority flows from top to bottom
(C) Delegator of authority is not received of accountability
(D) All the above happens
Ans. (D)
38. The process of determining by observation and study and reporting pertinent information relating to the nature of specific job is called—
(A) Job specification
(B) Job evaluation
(C) Job analysis
(D) Job description
Ans. (C)
39. In case of a private company—
(A) There is restriction on the right to transfer of shares
(B) The number of members is restricted
(C) Invitation to public for the subscription of shares is prohibited
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
40. A person at anyone time can not be DIRECT of more than—
(A) 1 Company
(B) 7 Companies
(C) 15 Companies
(D) 20 Companies
Ans. (C)
41. Certificate of commencement of business is not required by a—
(A) Public company
(B) Any type of company
(C) Private company
(D) Private company subsidiary to a public company
Ans. (C)
42. Henry Fayol is known for—
(A) Scientific management
(B) Rationalisation
(C) Industrial psychology
(D) Principles of managements
Ans. (D)
43. The principle of unity of command’ implies—
(A) Unity of thought and action
(B) Unity amongst subordinates
(C) Instructions from staff authority
(D) Instructions from line authority
Ans. (D)
44. A company has equity capital of Rs. 200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100000, long term loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be—
(A) 1:1
(B) 0.5: 1
(C) 0.4: 1
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
45. In case of a company, total assets less outside liabilities is called—
(A) Net working capital
(B) Gross working capital
(C) Deferred liabilities
(D) Net worth
Ans. (D)
46. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is sold would be—
(A) Rs. 39000
(B) Rs. 40000
(C) Rs.41000
(D) Rs. 44000
Ans. (A)
47. Premium on issue of shares is shown in balance sheet as—
(A) An asset
(B) A liability
(C) An expense
(D) A revenue
Ans. (B)
48. Which of the following is known as ‘backbone of auditing’?
(A) Verification of assets
(B) Internal check
(C) Vouching
(D) Internal audit
Ans. (C)
49. A limited company? 100 shares of Rs. 10/- cash fully called up on which Rs. 4/- per share was paid up. The company reissued 50 shares at the rates of Rs. 8/- each. The amount transferred to capital reserve will be—
(A) Rs. 500
(B) Rs.200
(C) Rs. 250
(D) Rs. 100
Ans. (D)
50. Sale of long term investments indicates—
(A) A change in current assets
(B) Application of funds
(C) Increase in working capital
(D) Source of funds
Ans. (D)
51. Net working capital refers to—
(A) Current assets
(B) Current assets minus current liabilities
(C) Equity share capital minus fixed assets
(D) Retired earnings.
Ans. (B)
52. If sales Rs. 6000 gross profit is 1/3 on cost, purchases are R. 4900 and the closing stock is Rs. 900, the opening stock will be—
(A) Rs.400
(B) Rs.500
(C) Rs. 1100
(D) Rs. 2000
Ans. (B)
53. The primary objective of audit is—
(A) Detection and prevention of frauds
(B) Detection and prevention of errors
(C) Detection of frauds and errors
(D) To ensure the final accounts and statements exhibit true and fair position of business
Ans. (D)
54. ‘An auditor is a watch dog and not a blood hound’. This was observed in case of— (A) London oil storage company
(B) Kingston cotton Mills Limited
(C) London General Bank
(D) Delightful Cigarette Company Ltd.
Ans. (B)
55. If two or more sugar mills combine together, it is known—
(A) Horizontal combination
(B) Vertical combination
(C) Lateral combination
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
56. Surrender value is related to—
(A) Marine insurance
(B) General insurance
(C) Life insurance
(D) Fire insurance
Ans. (C)
57. Over capitalisation refer to—
(A) Excess of capital
(B) Excess rate of dividend payment, on shares
(C) Over estimation of rate of capitalisation
(D) Raising more capital than is warranted by its earning power
Ans. (D)
58. Motivation refers to—
(A) Coordinate the people
(B) Guide the working people
(C) Terrorise the people
(D) Inducing people to work willing by
Ans. (D)
59. Which of the following is not a barrier in communication—
(A) Fear and distrust
(B) Affection
(C) Perception
(D) Noise
Ans. (B)
60. “Management is an art of getting things done through and with formally organised group.” This definition has been by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Harod Koontz
(D) F. W. Taylor
Ans. (C)
61. Foreign exchange for import of goods is sanctioned by—
(A) Exim Bank
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) State Bank
(D) Ministry of commerce
Ans. (B)
62. The cost of a machine having a span of life of 5 years is Rs. 10000. It has a scrap value of Rs. 1000. The amount of depreciation in the first year under the sum of year’s digit method will be—
(A) Rs. 1600
(B) Rs. 1800
(C) Rs. 2000
(D) Rs. 3000
Ans. (D)
63. Given:
Gross profit Rs. 60000
Gross profit ratio: 20%
Debtor’s velocity 2 months
The amount of debtors will be—
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 50000
(C) Rs. 120000
(D) Rs.200000
Ans. (B)
64. Premium on issue of shares can be used for—
(A) Issue of Bonus shares
(B) Payment of Dividends
(C) Payment of operating expenses
(D) Redemption of debentures
Ans. (A)
65. If current ratio is 25, quick ratio (1) 5 and net working capital Rs. 15000. This value of inventory will be—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs. 15000
(C) Rs. 37500
(D) Rs. 52500
Ans. (A)
66. Unclaimed dividend is shown on the liability side of the balance sheet under the heading—
(A) Revenue and surplus
(B) Provisions
(C) Current liabilities
(D) Miscellaneous items
Ans. (C)
67. Accounting standards in India are prescribed by—
(A) Company Law Board
(B) Institute of charted accountants of India
(C) Institute of coat and works accountants of India
(D) Indian standard Board
Ans. (B)
68. Which of the following is not correct—
(A) Purchase + Opening stock—Cost of goods sold = Closing stock
(B) Opening stock + Purchases — Closing stock = Cost of goods sold
(C) Closing stock + Cost of goods sold — Purchases = Opening stock
(D) Cost of goods sold — Closing stock + Purchases = Opening stock
Ans. (D)
69. A company bought assets worth Rs. 360000 and in lieu issued debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 10%. The number of debentures issued will be—
(A) 3000
(B) 3600
(C) 3960
(D) 400
Ans. (D)
70. A person got insured his goods worth Rs. 10000 for Rs. 80QO against fire. Loss by fire to him was Rs. 9000. He can claim—
(A) Rs. 8000
(B) Rs. 9000
(C) Rs. 10000
(D) Rs. 7200
Ans. (D)
71. The data obtained from a newspaper are—
(A) Primary data
(B) Secondary data
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
72. Current Ratio of a firm is 3: 1 and working capital is Rs. 60000. What will be the amount of current Assets—
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs90000
(C) Rs. 120000
(D) Rs. 180000
Ans. (B)
73. The income from that house property is taxable under the head “Income from House property”.
(A) The assessee has ownership on that house
(B) The assessee uses that house for his business
(C) The assessee himself lives in that house
(D) The assessee has let out that house on rent for residence
Ans. (A)
74. Following is the deduction in respect of repair under the head of income from house property—
(A) 25% of Annual Value
(B) 30% of Net Annual Value
(C) 1/5 of Annual Value
(D) 1/5 of Net Annual Value
Ans. (B)
75. Single entry system can not be maintained by—
(A) Sole proprietorship
(B) Partnership concerns
(C) Joint stock company
(D) All of these
Ans. (D)
76. Cash account will not be affected by—
(A) Cash paid to creditors
(B) Discount received
(C) Cash sales
(D) Cash received from debtors
Ans. (B)
77. Maximum standard Deduction for employees getting gross salary not more than Rs.
100000 is allowed—
(A) Rs. 20000
(B) Rs. 25000
(C) Rs. 30000
(D) Rs. 33000
Ans. (C)
78. Tax audit is compulsory in case of a person carrying on business whose gross receipt) turnover/sales and exceeds—
(A) Rs. 50 Lakhs
(B) Rs. 40 Lakhs
(C) Rs. l0 Lakhs
(D) Rs. 25 Lakhs
Ans. (B)
79. Mr. Rastogi of Meerut was declared insolvent. One of his liabilities related to one months rent due to his landlord. This liability will be treated as—
(A) Preferential Creditor
(B) Partly Secured Creditor
(C) Fully Secured Creditor
(D) Unsecured Creditor
Ans. (A)
80. When two or more companies liquidate to form a new company. It is called—
(A) Amalgamation
(B) Absorption
(C) Reconstruction
(D) Purchase of Business
Ans. (A)
81. A, B and C are partners in a firm. If D is to be admitted to the firm as a new partner—
(A) Old firm has to be dissolved
(B) Old partnership has to be dissolved
(C) Both the old firm and the old partnership have to be dissolved
(D) No need to dissolve either firm or the partnership
Ans. (D)
82. Remington sold one typewriter to Ramesh Chandra under installment purchase system on 1st January 1996, payment for which was to be made as under—
On 01.01.1996 - Rs. 3000
On 31.12.1996 - Rs. 1700
On 31.12.1997 - Rs. 3600
On 31.12.1998 - Rs. 2300
On 31.12.1999 - Rs. 1100
Interest at 10% p.a. is included in each installment. The total interest charged amount to-
(A) Rs.2100
(B) Rs. 1950
(C) Rs. 1800
(D) Rs. 1700
Ans. (B)
83. The liquidator of a company is entit1edio a remuneration of 2% on assets realised, and 3% on the amount distributed to unsecured creditors. The assets realised Rs. 100000 including cash balance of Rs. 3000. Amount available for distribution to unsecured creditors before paying liquidators remui4eration was Rs. 46350 liquidator’s remuneration will be—
(A) Rs.3100
(C) Rs. 3290
(B) Rs.3140
(D) Rs. 3350
Ans. (C)
84. EXIM Bank was established on—
(A) 1st Dec 1984
(B) 1st June 1985
(C) 1st Jan 1982
(D) 1st July 1980
Ans. (C)
85. For capital gain being long term capital gain, an assessee should retain the assets for a period of—
(A) 40 months
(B) 36 months
(C) More than 36 months
(D) Less than 36 months
Ans. (C)
86. The salary received by a member of parliament is—
(A) Exempt from Tax
(B) Taxable under the head of salary
(C) Taxable under the head of other sources
(D) Taxable under the lead of business
Ans. (C)
87. For the purpose of income tax it is necessary for agriculture income that—
(A) Land should be used for agricultural activities
(B) Land should be used for godown
(C) Land should be used for irrigation
(D) None of above
Ans. (A)
88. Depreciation is allowed on—
(A) Tangible Assets
(B) Current Assets
(C) Fixed Assets
(D) Intangible Assets
Ans. (C)
89. When shares are forfeited, the share capital account is debited by—
(A) Nominal value of forfeited shares
(B) Paid up amount of forfeited shares
(C) Called up amount on forfeited shares
(D) Forfeited amount of shares
Ans. (C)
90. The term ‘POIM’ for the four functions of management. Planning, organisation, integration and measuring was given by.—
(A) F.W. Taylor
(B) Harold Smiddy
(C) Tanon Brown
(D) Peter F. Drucker
Ans. (B)

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION 2011

UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION (UPSC)
Dholpur House, Shahjahan road, New Delhi - 110069

Civil Service Examination, 2011

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will hold the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2011 on 12/06/2011 for recruitment of nearly 880 various posts of Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS), Indian Police Service (IPS) and certain other Group 'A' and Group 'B' Central Services / Posts.

Eligibility:

• Age : Not less than 21 years and not more than 30 years as on 01/08/2011. The upper age is relaxable for SC/ST/OBC and certain other categories of candidates to the extent specified in the Notice.
• Educational Qualification: Degree of a recognised university or an equivalent qualification.
• Physical Standards: Candidates must be physically fit according to the Regulations given in notice.
• Number of Attempts: The maximum number of attempts permissible to different categories of aspirants, who are otherwise eligible will be as follows:
  
  
  • General Category : Four
  • Physical Handicapped : Seven
  • OBC : Seven
  • SC / ST : No Limit

Offline Application Form: The candidates must apply in the Common Application Form devised by the Commission for its examinations, which can be purchased from the designated Head Post Offices/ Post offices throughout the country against cash payment of Rs. 30/- only. OR published in the Employment News.

Online Application Submission : Candidates can apply Online also at http://upsconline.nic.in/ upto 21/03/2011.

Fee: Rs. 100/- through Central Recruitment Fee Stamp only. SC/ST/PH/Female candidates are exempted from payment (OBC candidates required to pay full fee) for the candidates applying offline. Those who are applying Online need to deposit Rs. 50/- in any branch of SBI

How To Apply Offline : All Offline applications must reach the "Controller of Examination, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi-110069" either by hand or by Post/Speed Post or by courier on or before the 21/03/2011. [Candidates from far-flung areas can send application through post/speed post upto 28/03/2011]

Candidates can obtain details of the examination and can get information about registration of their applications, venues of the examination and syllabus etc will be posted on the website of the UPSC at http://upsc.gov.in/ or in the Employment News dated 19/02/2011.

FOR CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION 2011 Detailed Notification CLICK HERE

UPSC SCHEME OF THE EXAM

UPSC EXAM

HPPSC Commerce Questions

ACCOUNTING CONCEPTS,
EQUATIONS, STANDARDS

1. Match List-I (Concepts of Accounting) with List-II (Suitability of the Accounting Concepts) and select the Correct answer using the Code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Concepts of Accounting) (Suitability of the Accounting Concepts)
A. Money measurement concept 1. Applicable to all forms of business organizations
B. Business entity concept 2. Basic accounting
C. Cost concept 3. Original purchase price of assets
D. Dual aspect concept 4. Applicable to those transactions/ events which
are of financial nature in accounting
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. (c)
CLASSIFICATION OF EXPENSES,
RECEIPTS, PROFITS (CAPITAL /REVENUE)

2. The cost of a machine is Rs.70, 000. It has 10-year life at the end of which it is expected to realize Rs.5, 000. The depreciation for first for years on a straight line basis is
(a) Rs. 28,000
(b) Rs. 26,000
(c) Rs. 22,000
(d) Rs. 20,000
Ans. (b)
3. What is the kind of expenditure incurred on heavy advertising whose benefit is to continue for years to come?
(a) Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
(d) Prepaid Expenditure
Ans. (c)
4. Cost of goods purchased for resale is an example of:
(a) capital expenditure
(b) revenue expenditure
(c) deferred revenue expenditure
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
5. Consider the following statements:
Capital expenditure is incurred for the purpose of
1. obtaining a long-term benefit for the business
2. increasing earning capacity of the business
3. purchasing of marketable securities
4. acquiring of an asset in the business
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
6. Which one among the following shall result in ‘capital loss’ to a firm ?
(a) Pilferage of certain items
(b) Loss of goods in transit
(c) Loss due to delay in delivery by port authorities
(d) Confiscation of goods by custom authorities on account of false declaration
Ans. (a)

ACCOUNTS OF NON-PROFIT
ORGANISATION, PARTNERSHIP
7. Z is admitted in a firm for a 1/4 share in the profits for which he brings Rs 30,000 for goodwill. It will be taken away by the old partners X and Y in:
(a) old profit-sharing ratio
(b) new profit-sharing ratio
(c) sacrificing ratio
(d) capital ratio
Ans. (c)
8. A partner’s capital at the end of a, year was Rs 3,00,000. His share of profit for the. year was Rs. 60,000 and he had drawn Rs. 20,000 from the firm during the year. Then his capital at the beginning of the year was:
(a) Rs. 3,00,000
(b) Rs. 3,20,000
(c) Rs. 3,80,000
(d) Rs. 2,60,000
Ans.(d)
9. The balance left in the capital accounts on dissolution of a firm is transferred to:
(a) Realization Account
(b) Profit and Loss Account
(c) Bank Account
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
10. As per Garner v. Murray rule, the loss resulting from a partner’s insolvency is borne by other partners in:
(a) equal ratio
(b) their capital ratio
(c) their profit-sharing ratio
(d) 3 : 1 ratio
Ans.(b)
11. Consider the following statements:
Issue of bonus shares can be made out of the
1. General Reserve Account
2. Realized Capital Profits ‘Account
3. Revaluation Reserve Account
4. Profit and Loss Account (Cr.)
Which. of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1, and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
12. A, B and C are equal partners, After distributing the loss on realization of assets and paying all liabilities
their capital accounts show the following balances:
A— Rs. 10,000 (Cr.)
B—Rs. 4,000 (Cr.)
C—Rs. 14,000 (Dr.)
What is the amount of cash with the firm?
(a) Rs. 18,000
(b) Rs. 4,000
(c) Rs. 14,000
(d) Rs. 10,000
Ans. (c)
13. In case of retirement of a partner, the partner’s loan account would be shown:
(a) in his capital account
(b) in his wife’s loin account
(c) in his loan account
(d) in the total amount due to him
Ans. (c)

FINANCIAL STATEMENTS (FINAL ACCOUNTS)
14. Which of the following is/are included in income and expenditure account?
1. Accrued expenses
2. Credit purchases
3. Prepaid expenses
4. Opening cash balance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) l only
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
15. Which one of the following is the correct sequence regarding preparation of final accounts?
(a) Ledger—Trial Balance—Journal—Profit and Loss Account—Balance Sheet
(b) Journal—Ledger—Trial Balance—Profit and Loss Account—Balance Sheet
(c) Trial Balance—Ledger—Journal—Balance Sheet—Profit and Loss Account
(d) Journal—Trial Balance—Ledger—Profit and Loss Account—Balance Sheet
Ans. (b)
16. Consider the following:
1. Preparation of Balance Sheet
2. Preparation of Funds Flow Statement
3. Preparation of Trial Balance
4. Preparation of Profit and Loss Account
The correct chronological sequence of the above in the preparation of periodical financial statement is:
(a) 4, 2, 3, 1
(b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 1, 3, 2, 4
Ans.(b)
17. In a draft Balance. Sheet, the stock at valuation Rs. 1,00,000 was shown on assets side. While finalizing the Balance Sheet, an item which was valued at Rs. 37,400 had realizable of Rs. 26,000 only. In the Profit and Loss Account, the stock would be shown at:
(a) Rs. 62,600
(b) Rs. 88,600
(c) Rs. 1,00,000
(d) Rs 1,26,000
Ans. (b)
18. Consider the following statements
The purposes of charging depreciation to the Profit and Loss Account are:
1. to provide for replacement of an asset
2. to ascertain true profit
3. to present real financial position
4. to arrive at the scrap value of the asset
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)

ACCOUNTING.OF SHARES AND DEBENTURES
19. Forty thousand 10% Redeemable Preference Shares of Rs. 10 each are redeemed at a premium of Rs. 10 each by the issue of 20,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of Rs. each.
The amount transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account would be:
(a) Rs. 1,80,000
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
(c) Rs. 2,20,000
(d) Rs. 2,40,000
Ans. (b)
20. Profit from re-issue of forfeited shares should be transferred to:
(a) Profit and Loss Account
(b) General Reserve
(c) Share Premium Account
(d) Capital Account
Ans. (d)
21. A company must refund the amount of subscription received from the public including the development if the amount received is less than the mandatory minimum subscription. The mandatory minimum subscription is
(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 90%
(d) 95%
Ans. (c)
22. Equity shares represent owner’s capital. Therefore, an equity shareholder:
(a) has preferential claim over income and wealth of the company
(b) has residual claim over income and wealth of the company
(c) has no right over income and wealth of the company
(d) is personally liable for all the liabilities of the company even beyond his paid-up capital
Ans. (b)
23. Which one of the following statements is true of bonus shares?
(a) Bonus shares are issued to the promoters only
(b) Bonus shares are issued only to the existing shareholders
(c) Bonus shares are the shares issued to the employees of the company as an incentive
(d) Bonus shares are issued at par value
Ans.(b)
RATIO ANALYSIS
24. Which one of the following transactions can change
the current ratio?
(a) Purchase of goods for cash
(b) Payment to outstanding trade creditors
(c) Acceptance on a Bill of Exchange written by a trade creditor
(d) Dishonor of a Bill of Exchange
Ans. (b)
25. An investor while trading in a stock in the share market lays greatest emphasis upon:
(a) earning before interest and tax
(b) rate of return on equity
(c) earning price ratio
(d) dividend price ratio
Ans. (c)
26. A company takes a loan of Rs. 70 lakhs on which it has to pay interest @ 15% p.a. Company’s return on investment is 25% before tax and the tax payable on net earnings is 60%. What gain accrues to the shareholders because of this loan?
(a) Rs. 2, 40,000
(b) Rs. 2, 43,000
(c) Rs. 2, 77,000
(d) Rs. 2, 80,000
Ans. (d)
27. Following particulars are given for a firm:
Quick Ratio—1 .5
Current Assets—Rs. 1, 50,000 Current Liabilities—Rs. 60,000
The value of stock is:
(a) Rs. 60,000
(b) Rs. 70.000
(c) Rs. 80,000
(d) Rs. 90,000
Ans. (a)
28. The Balance Sheet of M/s ABC as on 3 1 December is:
Liabilities Rs. Assets Rs.
Equity Share Capital 22,000 Machinery and
Equipment 46,000
Stock 14,000
Profit and Loss A/c 8,000
10% Sundry Debtors 10,000
Debentures 19,000 Cash at bank 2,000
Sundry 23,000
Creditors
Provision for Taxation 1000 Prepaid Expenses 1000
73,000 73, 000
The Liquidity Ratio is:
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 9: 20
(c) 1: 2
(d) 1: 1
Ans. (c)
29. The current assets to the current liabilities ratio is said to be satisfactory if it is
(a) 1: 2
(b) 2: 1
(c) 1: 1
(d) 1.5: 1
Ans. (b)
30. For a firm, the particulars are:
Rs. Rs.
Stock 60,000 Cash in Hand 40,000
Debtors 45,000 Creditors 70,000
Bills 12,000 Bills Payable 45,000
Receivable Bank 4,000
Overdraft
Advances 4,000
(Recoverable Net Sales 7,50,000
cash or kind) Gross Profit 60,000
Net Profit 40,0000
The Current Ratio for the firm is nearly:
(a) 27: 20
(b) 17:13
(c) 9:7
(d) 11 :9
Ans. (c)
31. Which one of the following is a leveraged buy-out?
(a) When a company is taken over by financing through borrowed funds
(b) When a company is taken over by the employees’ funds
(c) When a lender takes over a company to whom it is indebted
(d) When a company is bought out directly by buying its shares in the market
Ans. (a)
32. For a firm:
Opening Stock—Rs. 32,000
Closing Stock—Rs. 34,000
Sales—Rs. 4,40,000
Gross Profit Ratio—25% on sales
The stock turnover ratio of the firm is
(a) 8.0
(b) 8.5
(c) 9.0
(d) 10.0
Ans. (d)
33. Following particulars are given for a firm:
Closing Stock—Rs. 45,000
Other Current Assets——Rs. 1,05,000
Current Liabilities – Rs. 70,000
Sales—Rs. 3,20,000
The Working Capital Turnover Ratio is:
(a)5 :1
(b)4 :1
(c)3 :1
(d)2 :1
Ans. (b)
FUNDS FLOW STATEMENT
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the Code given below the lists:
List—I List-II
A. VED Analysis 1. Sources and uses of fund
B. Ratio Analysis 2. Inventory control
C. Fund-flow Analysis 3. Analysis and interpretation of financial statements
D. Income and Expenditure 4. Non-profit organization analysis
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (b)
35. If net profit are Rs. 30,000 and expenses not resulting in the application of fund are Rs. 10,000, then the funds from operation will be:
(a) Rs. 30,000
(b) Rs. 40,000
(c) Rs. 10,000
(d) Rs. 20,000
Ans. (b)
AUDITING
36. Select the pairs which are correctly matched
1. Statutory Audit : Review of various operations of a company
2. Management Audit : Verification of top level policy and its implications
3. Operational Audit : Examining the production planning and control operations
4. Internal Audit : According to the company objectives
Select the correct answer using the Code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (c)
37. Four important acts performed by an Auditor in connection with an audit work are:
1. verification of assets and checking valuation of the same
2. checking of Annual Accounts and balance Sheet
3. preparation of an audit programme
4. test checking of financial transactions
The correct sequence in which these acts are
performed by the Auditor is
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4
(b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c)3, 1,4,2
(d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Ans. (d)
38. Consider the following statements
The auditor is generally expected to carry out the following in a particular seriatim:
1. Verification of assets and liabilities
2. Vouching of transactions
3. Checking of valuation of assets and liabilities
The correct chronological sequence of these acts is:
(a) 1, 3, 2
(b) 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 1, 3
(d) 3, 1, 2
Ans. (c)
39. Auditing is compulsory in case of:
(a) Joint-stock Company
(b) Charitable Trust
(c) Cooperative Society
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)
40. Consider the following statements:
An ‘Internal Audit’ is not a part of:
1. Continuous Statutory Audit
2. Internal Check System
3. Internal Control System
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)
41. Consider the following statements:
An ‘Internal Control System’ may include:
1. interim audit
2. internal audit
3. financial controls
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans. (c)
42. According to the Companies Act, account books of a company are to be preserved for the preceding:
(a) six years
(b) eight years
(c) five years
(d) nine years
Ans. (b)
43. Consider the following functions:
1. Checking of valuation and physical verification of assets
2. Routine checking and vouching
3. Scrutiny of internal check system
The correct sequence of these functions to be performed by an Auditor during the course of auditing is
(a) 2, 1, 3
(b) 3, 1, 2
(c) 3, 2, 1
(d) 1, 2 , 3
Ans. (c)
44. Which of the following may be included in ‘Audit Working Paper’?
1. Audit notebook
2. Audit programmes
3. Schedules of sundry debtors and sundry creditors
4. Audit manuals
Select the correct answer using the Code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
45. Internal Auditor is appointed by the:
(a) Board of Directors of the Company
(b) shareholders of the Company
(c) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(d) Company Secretary
Ans. (a)
46. Financial audit in Joint-stock Company in India is:
(a) necessary
(b) voluntary
(c) statutory
(d) voluntary for companies which operate in certain activities only
Ans. (c)

CAPITAL MARKET (STOCK EXCHANGE)
47. Consider the following statements:
1. Transfer and transmission of shares is the same thing
2. ‘Stag’ is a speculative person who applies for shares in a new issue expected to be oversubscribed to make profit by selling such shares at a premium-
3. Stock is a bundle of fully paid shares put together for convenience
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 only
Ans. (b)
48. Underwriters are persons who:
(a) purchase the shares and debentures of a company
(b) work as agents of the company for the sale of shares and debentures
(c) undertake to buy those shares and debentures not subscribe for by the public
(d) publicize the share-issue on behalf of the company
Ans. (c)
49. The movement of securities from one stock exchange to another with the object of reaping a profit from the disparity in share prices is called:
(a) averaging
(b) arbitraging
(c) backwardation
(d) forward trading
Ans. (b)
50. Which one of the following statements pertaining to mutual funds is true?
(a) Mutual funds can be operated only by government organizations
(b) The maximum investment in mutual funds by an individual should not exceed a particular ceiling fixed by government from time to time
(c) Return on investment and safety of principal is not guaranteed in mutual funds
(d) Unit Trust of India is the regulatory authority for mutual funds in India.
Ans. (b)

Bank of Baroda (Paper) Logical Ability Practice Question Answers

Directions (Q 1–5): In each of the letter series, find the missing letters.

1. a – c c a b c – a b – c – b c c
1. b a c c
2. b c c a
3. c b c a
4. c c b a
5. c a b c

2. b b c – b – c a b b – a – b c a
1. b c a b
2. a c b b
3. a b c b
4. c a b b
5. a d b c

3. x x – y – x x x x y – x x x x y – x
1. y x y y
2. y x x x
3. x y x x
4. x y y y
5. x x x y

4. a a – c – a b c a – b c a a b –
1. c a a b
2. a a c b
3. b a a c
4. b a c a
5. None of these

5. c c b – c – b a c c – a – c b a
1. b c a c
2. a b c c
3. c c b a
4. a c b c
5. None of these

6. A is B’s sister, C is B’s mother, D is C’s father and E is D’s mother. What is the relationship of A with E?
1. Daughter
2. Grand daughter
3. Grandson
4. Grandmother
5. Sister

7. If yesterday’s tomorrow was Wednesday, then yesterday’s day-after-tomorrow will be
1. Wednesday
2. Thursday
3. Friday
4. Saturday
5. Sunday

8. Which of the following groups of letters is different from the other groups of letters?
1. FETE
2. GAME
3. HUGE
4. LOVE
5. SMALL

9. Which of the following series is without any law/pattern?
1. FHKOT
2. CEHLP
3. IKNRW
4. LNQUZ
5. INTKR

10. In a row of the six members sitting, P is sitting to the left of Q but to the right of Y. R is sitting to the right of X but to the left of Q who is to the left of Z. The members sitting in the middle are
1. PR
2. RQ
3. XQ
4. PS
5. None of these

11. Select an item from those given in alternatives that has the same property as the one in question
697, 888, 945
1. 146
2. 934
3. 879
4. 555
5. 584

12. Find the missing term in the series BYAZ, ? , DWCX, EVDW
1. AXBY
2. CXBY
3. AZDW
4. CYBX
5. CDBY

13. Find the missing term in the series CEHLQ, FHKOT, ?, LNQUZ
1. GILPU
2. JLOSX
3. IKMQV
4. IKNRW
5. LKMST

14. A boat is going against the stream in a river and it first turns to exact right and then again a second time exactly to the right to its direction of motion. Assuming that the boat is propelled at constant velocity from the start, how will the speed be effected now?
1. Will increase or decrease
2. Will remain the same
3. Will increase
4. Will decrease
5. None of these

15. Select an item from those given as alternatives that has the same property as the one in question. 914, 703, 813
1. 611
2. 789
3. 870
4. 120
5. 154

Directions (Q 16–23): Find out the next term in the given series:

16. 9, 12, 21, 48, ?
1. 69
2. 84
3. 102
4. 129
5. 125

17. 95, 115.5, 138, ?
1. 162.5
2. 163.5
3. 164.5
4. 167.5
5. 125.5

18. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, ?
1. 21
2. 23
3. 25
4. 29
5. 24

19. 563, 647, 479, 815, ?
1. 143
2. 279
3. 386
4. 672
5. 786

20. 79, 68, 57, 46, ?
1. 17
2. 27
3. 35
4. 66
5. 65

21. 5, 1/5, 17, 1/17, 29, 1/29, ?
1. 34
2. 39
3. 41
4. 49
5. 40

22. 18, 27, 6, 9, 2, 3, ?
1. 1
2. 1/3
3. 2/3
4. 1/2
5. 1/4

23. 4, 2, 8, 4, 24, 12, 96, ?
1. 24
2. 36
3. 40
4. 48
5. 50

Directions (Q 24–30): Which one is different from others?

24. Calf, Colt, Puppy, Cat, Cub
1. Calf
2. Colt
3. Puppy
4. Cat
5. Cub

25. Ox, Peacock, Lion, Hen, Tiger
1. Lion
2. Ox
3. Peacock
4. Hen
5. Tiger

26. Copper, Diamond, Silver, Gold, Platinum
1. Diamond
2. Gold
3. Silver
4. Copper
5. Platinum

27. Diet, Died, Tied, Tide, Fried
1. Tide
2. Diet
3. Tied
4. Died
5. Fried

28. 16, 22, 30, 45, 52, 66
1. 30
2. 45
3. 52
4. 66
5. 16

29. 8754, 9786, 7986, 3243, 1245
1. 8754
2. 9786
3. 7986
4. 3243
5. 1245

30. 1622, 2540, 3840, 5786, 5453
1. 5786
2. 3840
3. 2540
4. 1622
5. 5453

Answers

1. 2, 2. 3, 3. 4, 4. 3, 5. 4, 6. 2, 7. 2, 8. 1, 9. 2, 10. 4 11. 2, 12. 2, 13. 4, 14. 3, 15. 1, 16. 4, 17. 1, 18. 2, 19. 1, 20. 3 21. 3, 22. 3, 23. 4, 24. 4, 25. 4, 26. 1, 27. 1, 28. 2, 29. 3, 30. 1

UNITED INDIA INSURANCE COMPANY LIMITED A.O RECRUITMENT

UNITED INDIA INSURANCE COMPANY LIMITED (UIIC)
24, Whites Road, Chennai – 600014


Recruitment of Administrative Officer (Scale I) (Generalist and Specialist)

Applications are invited from Indian citizens for the post of Administrative Officers (SCALE – I) in Specialist and Generalist disciplines :

• Administrative Officers (Scale–I) : 300 posts (UR-155, SC-44,ST-20,OBC-81) (PH-14) in Generalist and Specialist disciplines, Age : 21-30 years as on 31/12/2010, relaxation as per rules., Pay Scale : Rs.17240-32640/-

Application Fee : Rs.500/- to be paid in any Branch of State Bank of India (plus Rs.40/- as SBI fee) by paying appropriate application fee in Account No 31601917796 in favour of “UNITED INDIA INSURANCE COMPANY LIMITED” by filling the Fee Payment Challan and remitting the amount. No fee for SC/ST/PH candidates.

Date of Written Examination : 27/03/2011

How to Apply: Apply Online at United India Insurance Company website only from 07/02/2011 to 26/02/2011. After applying on-line, take a print out of the system generated online application form and retain it for future reference. DO not send this printout to the company.

For further details and apply Online, Please visit http://www.uiic.co.in/recruitment.htm

UN MILLENNIUM DEVELOPMENT GOALS

• End Poverty
  and Hunger
• Universal Education
• Gender
  Equality
• Child
  Health
• Maternal
  Health
• Combat
  HIV/AIDS
• Environmental Sustainability
• Global Partnership

U.P.P.S.C General Studies Question Paper Solved 2008

1. The only Indian Governor General was—
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Ans : (A)
2. Which plan became the basis for Indian independence ?
(A) Cripps Plan
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) Mountbatten Plan
(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)
3. Which part of Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principle of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Ans : (D)
4. Name the Indian who attended all the Three Round Table Conferences—
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Tej Bahadur Sapru

Ans : (A)
5. Rabindranath Tagore relinquished his Nighthood as a measure of protest against—
(A) Partition of Bengal
(B) Press Act of 1910
(C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(D) Salt Laws

Ans : (C)
6. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with—
(A) Defection
(B) Reservation
(C) Election
(D) Protection of minorities

Ans : (A)
7. The Panchayati Raj was recommended by—
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The Cripps Mission of 1942
(C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee Report, 1957

Ans : (D)
8. The President of India can nominate—
(A) 10 members to Rajya Sabha
(B) 2 members to Rajya Sabha
(C) 15 members to Rajya Sabha
(D) 12 members to Rajya Sabha

Ans : (D)
9. UNO has fixed the target for ‘Education for All’ till the year—
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015

Ans : (D)
10. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in—
(A) The Union List
(B) The State List
(C) The Concurrent List
(D) Residuary List

Ans : (C)
11. Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum strength (number of members) ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)
12. The concept of ‘Fundamental Rights’ enshrined in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country’s constitution ?
(A) France
(B) Britain
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Russia

Ans : (C)
13. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha has been fixed at—
(A) 540
(B) 545
(C) 552
(D) 555

Ans : (C)
14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on—
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) June 30, 1948
(C) November 26, 1949
(D) January 26, 1950

Ans : (C)
15. In India the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by—
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Ans : (C)
16. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the introduction of money bill ?
(A) Money bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha
(B) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament
(C) It cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha
(D) It is introduced in the Lok Sabha

Ans : (D)
17. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Governor of Reserve Bank

Ans : (B)
18. The minimum age required for election to Rajya Sabha is—
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 32 years
(D) 35 years

Ans : (B)
19. Which one of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but distributed between Union and States ?
(A) Corporation tax
(B) Tax on income other than on agricultural income
(C) Tax on railway fares and freights
(D) Customs

Ans : (B)
20. Sikkim became a new state by–
(A) 30th Amendment
(B) 34th Amendment
(C) 35th Amendment
(D) 36th Amendment

Ans : (C)
21. On which Indian river is the highest bridge of the world being constructed ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Satluj
(C) Jhelum
(D) Beas

Ans : (A)
22. Match List-I (category) with List-II (54th National Film Award winners) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Best Feature Film
(b) Best Popular Film
(c) Best Children Film
(d) Best Hindi Film
List-II
1. Care of Footpath
2. Khosla ka Ghosla
3. Pullijaman
4. Lage Raho Munnabhai

Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 2 1 3

Ans : (B)
23. In which district of Uttar Pradesh has the first Police Museum of the country been established ?
(A) Allahabad
(B) Agra
(C) Ghaziabad
(D) Lucknow

Ans : (C)
24. The Commercial Banks were Nationalised in—
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1969
(D) 1992

Ans : (C)
25. Asia’s first human DNA Bank has been set up in—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Mumbai

Ans : (C)
26. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of—
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) NABARD

Ans : (B)
27. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ?
(A) Agra
(B) Mirzapur
(C) Moradabad
(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar

Ans : (D)
28. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?
(A) Bank of Baroda
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) UCO Bank

Ans : (C)
29. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers—
(A) all children in the age group 3–10
(B) all children in the age group 4–8
(C) all children in the age group 5–15
(D) all children in the age group 6–14

Ans : (D)
30. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing—
(A) employment to rural women folk
(B) employment to urban women folk
(C) employment to disabled persons
(D) providing training and skills to women

Ans : (D)

31. Mixed economy means—
(A) existence of both small and big industries
(B) existence of both private and public sectors
(C) existence of both primary and secondary sector
(D) none of the above

Ans : (B)
32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9

Ans : (C)
33. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?
(A) Japan
(B) Denmark
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Switzerland

Ans : (A)
34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Place)
(a) Vishakhapatnam
(b) Muri
(c) Gurgaon
(d) Panki
List-II (Industry)
1. Automobile
2. Ship-building
3. Fertiliser
4. Aluminium
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 4 3 1

Ans : (B)
35. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Indian Overseas Bank
(D) UTI Bank

Ans : (C)
36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Mineral Production)
(a) Mineral Oil
(b) Gypsum
(c) Gold
(d) Bauxite
List-II (State)
1. Orissa
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Rajasthan

Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 3 4 2 1

Ans : (D)
37. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy
demand of the country.
Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (C)
38. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu

Ans : (A)
39. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?
(A) Dharwar system
(B) Gondwana system
(C) Cudappa system
(D) Vindhyan system

Ans : (B)
40. Laterite soil is found in—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Maharashtra

Ans : (D)
41. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kirghiz — Central Asia
(B) Masai — West Africa
(C) Red Indians — North America
(D) Eskimos — Greenland

Ans : (B)
42. Chilka lake is situated in—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu

Ans : (C)
43. Damodar is a tributary of river—
(A) Ganga
(B) Hugli
(C) Padma
(D) Suvarn Rekha

Ans : (B)
44. Sangam Yojana is concerned with—
(A) provision for clean drinking water
(B) provision for cleaning rivers
(C) promoting communal harmony
(D) helping the invalids

Ans : (D)
45. National Dairy Development Board is located in—
(A) Anand
(B) Gandhinagar
(C) Vadodara
(D) Valsad
Ans : (A)
46. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in—
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Special List

Ans : (C)
47. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley — Diamond
(B) Havana — Meat packing
(C) Milan — Silk
(D) Sheffield — Cutlery

Ans : (C)
48. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Pilibhit
(C) Lakhimpur Khiri
(D) Sonbhadra

Ans : (C)
49. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001) is—
(A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala
(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar
(D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala

Ans : (B)

50. The major coffee producing state in India is—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)
51. Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Kerala

Ans : (C)
52. According to 2001 Census the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim
(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland
(D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Nagaland

Ans : (C)
53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source of iron ?
(A) Jamun
(B) Karonda
(C) Loquat
(D) Guava

Ans : (A)
54. Vitamin which promotes wound healing is—
(A) Vitamin B
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin D
Ans : (C)
55. Bauxite is an ore of—
(A) Aluminium
(B) Boron
(C) Lead
(D) Silver

Ans : (A)
56. Which of the following methods is used to determine the age of the earth?
(A) Carbon dating
(B) Germanium dating
(C) Uranium dating
(D) All the above

Ans : (C)
57. Name the gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the atmosphere ?
(A) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(B) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(C) Nitrogen (N2)
(D) Oxygen (O2)

Ans : (A)
58. Electron-volt is the unit for—
(A) energy
(B) charge of electron
(C) potential difference
(D) power

Ans : (A)
59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of—
(A) nuclear fission
(B) nuclear fusion
(C) nuclear spallation
(D) none of these

Ans : (A)
60. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of—
(A) Mars
(B) Venus
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn

Ans : (D)
61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is—
(A) Copper
(B) Lead
(C) Cadmium
(D) Mercury

Ans : (B)
62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Malaria
(C) Cholera
(D) Hepatitis

Ans : (D)
63. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) 125%
(D) 225%

Ans : (D)
64. The term ‘Siamese Twins’ is used for—
(A) twins in which there is one male and one female
(B) twins in which both are females
(C) twins suffering from a common disease of siam
(D) twins physically attached to each other

Ans : (D)
65. Every solar eclipse takes place on—
(A) full moon only
(B) new moon only
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)

Ans : (B)
66. The headquarter of which of the following is correctly given ?
(A) UNO — London
(B) WTO — Geneva
(C) ILO — New York
(D) FAO — Chicago
Ans : (B)
67. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of—
(A) N
(B) Zn
(C) Cu
(D) Mn
Ans : (B)
68. A number is 20 more than its 20%. The number is—
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 80

Ans : (B)
69. The train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India) and Dhaka (Bangladesh) has been named—
(A) Sadbhavna Express
(B) Shanti Express
(C) Maitri Express
(D) Aman Express

Ans : (C)
70. Thailand’s Ponsana Boonsak won the men’s singles of the India open Grand Prix Badminton championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the final he
defeated—
(A) Anand Pawar
(B) Arvind Bhat
(C) Chetan Anand
(D) Zhendong Guo

Ans : (C)
71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located at—
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Dehradun
(C) Shriharikota
(D) None of the above

Ans : (D)
72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008, was—
(A) Karnataka
(B) West Bengal
(C) Services
(D) Punjab

Ans : (D)
73. Who among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic Day, 2008 ?
(A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown
(B) French President Nicolas Sarcozy
(C) Danish Prime Minister Anders Fogh Rasmussen
(D) Russian President Vladimir Putin

Ans : (B)
74. In April 2008 fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in—
(A) Vienna
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
Ans : (A)
75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of 2008 ?
1. Madhuri Dixit
2. Ratan Tata
3. Sachin Tendulkar
4. Viswanathan Anand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4

Ans : (B)
76. March 24 (2008) was observed as—
(A) World AIDS Day
(B) World Disabled Day
(C) World Environment Day
(D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day

Ans : (D)
77. Which one of the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is not correctly matched ?
(A) Alamgirpur — Uttar Pradesh
(B) Banawali — Haryana
(C) Diamabad — Maharashtra
(D) Rakhigarhi — Rajasthan

Ans : (D)
78. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was associated with the court of—
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Chanda Pradyota
(C) Prasenajeta
(D) Udayana

Ans : (A)
79. After President’s signature on the recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies with certain
exemptions, will be redefined. Which of the following are exempted ?
1. Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur
2. Assam
3. Nagaland
4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)
80. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was—
(A) Dinara Safina
(B) Ana Ivanovic
(C) Jelena Jankovic
(D) Svetlana Kuznetsova

Ans : (B)
81. Who among the following was of the view that the Earth revolves round the Sun ?
(A) Aryabhatta
(B) Brahmagupta
(C) Varahamihira
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)
82. What is the difference (in years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ?
(A) 57 years
(B) 78 years
(C) 135 years
(D) 320 years

Ans : (C)
83. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar region some centuries before the Christian era ?
1. Mahapadma Nanda
2. Chandragupta Maurya
3. Ashoka
4. Rudradaman
Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4

Ans : (D)
84. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had diplomatic relations was the ruler of—
(A) Cyrene
(B) Egypt
(C) Macedonia
(D) Syria

Ans : (B)

85. The inscription belonging to which one of the following dynasties confirms the tradition that Lumbini was the birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ?
(A) Maurya
(B) Sunga
(C) Satavahana
(D) Kushana

Ans : (A)
86. Which literature had its classical age under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ?
(A) Konkani
(B) Malayalam
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu

Ans : (D)
87. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (B)
88. The department of Public Works was established for the first time by—
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Balban
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Iltutmish

Ans : (C)
89. Who were the ‘Nayanars’ ?
(A) Saivites
(B) Saktas
(C) Vaishnavites
(D) Sun worshippers

Ans : (A)
90. Who among the following kings had strong leaning towards Jainism ?
(A) Dasratha
(B) Brihadratha
(C) Kharavela
(D) Huvishka

Ans : (C)
91. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani to the East India Company ?
(A) Farrukhsiyar
(B) Shah Alam-I
(C) Shah Alam-II
(D) Shujaud Daula

Ans : (C)
92. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was
effected during the period of—
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Chelmsford
(D) Lord Reading

Ans : (B)
93. The Durand line demarcated India’s border with—
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Burma
(C) Nepal
(D) Tibet

Ans : (A)
94. What was the rate of exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ?
(A) 16 : 1
(B) 32 : 1
(C) 40 : 1
(D) 64 : 1

Ans : (C)
95. Arrange the following events of Akbar’s reign in a chronological order :
1. Abolition of Jazia
2. Construction of Ibadatkhana
3. Signing of Mahzar
4. Foundation of Din-i-Ilahi

Select the correct answer from the code given below—


(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4

(D) 3, 4, 1, 2

Ans : (A)
96. After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took his place as leader of the movement ?
(A) Abbas Tyabji
(B) Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel

Ans : (A)
97. Which one of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had escaped the trial ?
(A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi
(B) Mukundi Lal
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(D) Manmath Nath Gupta

Ans : (A)
98. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to ‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’ ?
(A) Ras Behari Bose
(B) Batukeshwar Datt
(C) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad

Ans : (C)
99. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in the Gorakhpur Jail ?
(A) Ramprasad Bismil
(B) Rajendra Lahiri
(C) Roshan Singh
(D) Ashfaqullah Khan

Ans : (A)
100. Whose sustained efforts led to the establishment of the first women’s university in Bombay ?
(A) Dayaram Gidumal
(B) D. K. Karve
(C) Ramabai
(D) Mahadev Govind Ranade

Ans : (B)

Food Corporation of India (FCI) Category III Recruitment Syllabus

SYLLABUS OF WRITTEN EXAM FOR CAT. III

1 Aptitude Question Paper:

This question paper is to be attempted by all candidates. The question paper will consist of 100 objective type questions. All questions carry equal marks. The components of the question paper are as given below:

General Intelligence & Reasoning:

This sub-test is designed to test the candidate's inference and logic from the given information. It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. This component may include questions on analogies, similarities and differences, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, arithmetic number series, non-verbal series, coding and decoding, statement conclusion, etc.

General Awareness and Current Affairs:

This sub-test is designed to test the candidate’s general knowledge and current affairs. Questions in this component will be aimed at testing the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and current events and apart from that general awareness about the concerned region/zone for which advertisement has been published for will also be tested. The test may also include questions relating to India and its neighboring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic Environment, General Polity, Indian Constitution, and Scientific Research, etc.

Numerical Aptitude:

This sub-test is designed to test the quantitative ability of the candidates. The test consists of questions on Addition,Multiplication, Division, Fractions, Percentage, Rate of Interest, Work and Task, Ratio and Proportion, Distance, Profit & Loss,Mensuration, Algebra and Geometry, etc.

Data Analysis and Sufficiency:

This sub test is designed to test the ability of candidate to interpret and analyse the information and the data provided in the form of table, line graph, bar graphs, pie charts or combination of them. It also includes questions to test the ability to find out the sufficiency of data to answer the questions.

English Language:

This sub-test is aimed to test candidate’s ability to comprehend a situation from a given passage and testing the language ability of the candidates in day to day communication in English. It includes questions on synonyms, antonyms, words with corresponding meanings, singular, plural, one word substitutes, idioms and phrases, correct spellings, etc.

Computer Awareness:

This sub-test is designed to test candidate’s knowledge of basic computer operations, MS Office including MS Word, MS Excel, MS PowerPoint, MS Access operations, emails, internet and websites, basic computer hardware and languages.

2. Technical Paper:

This additional component will have 30 objective type questions separately for accounts and quality control and this paper to be attempted in addition to Aptitude Paper by the candidates applying for the post of AG III (Accounts) and AG III (Quality Control) respectively. All questions carry equal marks. This subtest will include technical questions based on the broad job requirement and prescribed educational qualifications for the post of AG III (Accounts) and AG III (Quality Control). The above guidelines are informative and indicative for the candidates. The actual questions may vary in difficulty level and content dispersion.