General Awareness
1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four
4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy
(d) polity.
5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.
6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
7. Who is called the 'Father of History'?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny
8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.
9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.
12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income
13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.
14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.
15. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.
17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.
18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall
19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.
20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.
21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) Methane.
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.
22. Preparation of 'Dalda or Vanaspati' ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis
23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red
24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.
25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini
26. What is the full form of 'AM' regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.
27. Who is the author of Gandhi's favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar
28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria
29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite
30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK
31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry
32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) " all other things variable "
(b) "other things increasing"
(c) "other things being equal"
(d) "all other things decreasing"
33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi
34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.
35. India's biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.
(d) the India Telecommunication System.
36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.
37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India
38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit
39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.
40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual
42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing
43. Knowledge, technical skill, education 'etc.' in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.
44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km
45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.
46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas
48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.
49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.
50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon
51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour - In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.
52. What was the original name of "Nurjahan"?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara
53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.
55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.
56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.
57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang
58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.
59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.
60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.
61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.
62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae d) Fungi
63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.
64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis
65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.
66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.
67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars
68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.
69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.
70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.
71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.
72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.
73. "Slash and Burn agriculture" is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.
74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.
75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.
Answers Part - I
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a)
26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c)
36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a)
56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (a) 65. (d)
66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (a)
71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a)
Friday, October 22, 2010
Staff selection commission solved question papers
BSF GENERAL DUTY CONSTRBLE EXAM PREVIOUS PAPER
BSF GENERAL DUTY CONSTRBLE EXAM PREVIOUS PAPER-2009
Maths section:
1. 46853 - 39746 = ? - 4456
(1) 7.107 (2) 8427 (3) 10243, (4) 11563 (5) None of these
2. (0.75 x 4.4 x 2.4) + 0.6 = ?
III 13.2 (2) 4.752 (3) 15.84 (4) 12 (5) None of these
3. 55.06 + 19.73 + 85.024 = ?
(1) 160.03 (2) 158.914 (3) 160.534 (4) 159.99 (5) None of these
4. 884697 - 773697 - 102479 = ?
(1) 8531 (2) 8521 (3) 8512 (4) 8251 (5) None of these
5. (9)power 3 + (3)power 2 + (6)power3 + (15)power 2 =?
III 756.96 ' (2) 90.16 (3) 738.96 (4) 756.064 (5) None ofthese
6. ((?]power 2 + (18)power 2 ÷ 125 = 3.56
(1) 15 (2) 12 (3) 11 (4) 14 (5) None of these
7. 15.4x25+40/3.5x6.4 +27.6 =?
(1) 6.5 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 8.5 (5) None of these
8. 75 x 28 - 126 = ?
(1) 1894 (2) 1956 (3) 1994 (4) 1974
(5) None of these
9. 465 + 2.5 = ?% of 1500
(1) 14.2 (2) 16.6 (3) 15.4 (4) 12.4 (5) None of these
10. 124 x 39 +? ÷ 45 = 108
(1) 28 (2) 22 (3) 32 (4) 14 (5) None of these
11. 786 ÷ 24 x? = 6.55
(1) 0.2 (2) 4 (3) 0.4 (4) 5 (5) None of these
12. (308 + 144 + 254) + (756 - 665-71) =?
(1) 34.8 (2) 36.4 (3) 35.3 (4) 36.2 (5) None of these
13. 8024 ÷ 59 x ? + 48 = 4944
1. 42 (2) 28 (3) 36 (4) 46 (5) None of these
14. (425 x 4000) + 16000 x 12 = ?
(1) 925 (2) 1275 (3) 1700 (4) 8.85 (5) None of these
15. 6731 + 53 x 8 = ?
(1) 1024 (2) 1016 (3) 1022 (4) 762 (5) None of these
1. 4 2. 1 3. 5 4. 2 5. 3 6. 3 7. 4 8. 4 9. 4 10. 5 11. 1 12. 3 13. 3 14. 2 15. 2
Q. 16-30 GK/general awareness section:
16. The term nitshka which meant ornament in the Vedic period was used later times to denote
1. coin (2) weapon 3) script (4) husband
17. Lord Buddha was born in
(1) Lumbanii (2) Vaishali (3)Bodh Caya (4) Pavapuri
18. The number of Puranas are
1) 25 (2) 18 (3) 52 (4) 108
19. The national bird of India is
(1) Eagle (2) Lily (3) Lion (4) Peacock
20. The currency Japan is:
(1) Waht (2) Dinar (3) Dirham (4) Yen
21. Who was the first man to reach North pole?
(1) Robert Peary (2) Amundsen (3) Yuri Gagrin (4) None of these
22. The book 'Raghuvamsa' was written,by:
(1) Tulsidas (2) Valmiki (3) Kalidas (4) Minoo Masani
23. The height of Mt. Everest is :
(1) 8880 m (2) 8848 m. (3) 8511 m (4) 8484 m
24. In northern hemisphere the longest day falls on
(1) June 25 (2) Ju'ne 21 (3) December 21
(4) June 27
25. Marble is what kind of rock.
(1) Igneous (2) Sedimentary (3) MetamorphiC (4) None of these
26. The Headquarters of Universal Postal Union is:
(1) Berne (2) Rome' (3) Geneva (4) New York
27. First world war started in :
(1) 1914 (2) 1916 (3) 1918 (4) 1920
28 Who invented aeroplane?
(1) W. Roentgen (2) Wright brothers (3) Z. Jansen (4) Pitman
29. Who was the first preseident of India?
1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 2. B.K Hari 3. Bhimrap Ambedkar 4. P. Nehru
30. what is the Capital of USA?
1. New York. 2. Washington DC 3. Houston 4. Boston
Ans: 16.3 17. 1 18. 4 19. 4 20. 21. 1 22. 3 23. 2 24. 2 25. 3 26. 1 27. 1 28. 2 29. 1 30. 2
Chhattisgarh Pre. B.Ed. Exam. 2008
Chhattisgarh Pre. B.Ed. Exam. 2008
Teaching Aptitude
1. Most important work of teacher is—
(A) to organize teaching work
(B) to deliver lecture in class
(C) to take care of children
(D) to evaluate the students
2. A teacher should be—
(A) Honest
(B) Dilligent
(C) Dutiful
(D) Punctual
3. Environmental education should be taught in schools because—
(A) it will affect environmental pollution
(B) it is important part of life
(C) it will provide job to teachers
(D) we cannot escape from environment
4. Navodaya Schools have been established to—
(A) increase number of school in rural areas
(B) provide good education in rural areas
(C) complete ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’
(D) check wastage of education in rural areas
5. At primary level, it is better to teach in mother language because—
(A) it develops self-confidence in children
(B) it makes learning easy
(C) it is helpful in intellectual development
(D) it helps children in learning in natural atmosphere
6. Women are better teacher at primary level because—
(A) they behave more patiently with children
(B) they are ready to work with low salary
(C) higher qualification is not needed in this profession
(D) they have less chances in other profession
7. You have been selected in all the four professions given below. Where would you like to go ?
(A) Teacher
(B) Police
(C) Army
(D) Bank
8. What is most important while writing on blackboard ?
(A) Good writing
(B) Clarity in writing
(C) Writing in big letters
(D) Writing in small letters
9. Some students send a greeting card to you on teacher’s day. What will you do ? You will—
(A) do nothing
(B) say thanks to them
(C) ask them to not to waste money
(D) reciprocate the good wishes to them
10. A student comes late in your class. Then you will—
(A) inform to parents
(B) punish him
(C) try to know the reason
(D) not pay attention there
11. When the students become failed, it can be understood that—
(A) The system has failed
(B) The teachers failure
(C) The text-books failure
(D) The individual student’s failure
12. It is advantage of giving home work that students—
(A) remain busy at home
(B) study at home
(C) may be checked for their progress
(D) may develop habit of self study
13. In computers, the length of a word is measured in—
(A) Bit
(B) Byte
(C) Millimeter
(D) None of these
14. Who is known as ‘father of computer’ ?
(A) B. Pascal
(B) H. Hollerith
(C) Charles Babbage
(D) J. V. Neumann
15. A teacher has serious defect is he/she—
(A) is physically handicapped
(B) belongs to low socio-economic status
(C) has weak personality
(D) has immature mental development
116. The success of teacher is—
(A) high achievement of students
(B) good traits of his/her personality
(C) his/her good teaching
(D) his/her good character
17. A Deepawali fair is being organized in your school. What would you like to do ?
(A) only to visit the fair
(B) to take part in function
(C) to take a shop to sell something
(D) to distribute free water to visitors
18. The most important trait of a student is—
(A) sense of responsibility
(B) to speak truth
(C) co-operation
(D) obedience
19. The purpose of basic education scheme is—
(A) universalization of primary education
(B) to vocationalise the eduction
(C) to fulfil basic need of persons through education
(D) to make education compulsory for all
20. You are teaching a topic in class and a student ask a question unrelated to the topic. What will you do ?
(A) you will allow him to ask unrelated question
(B) you will not allow him to ask unrealated question
(C) you will consider it indiscipline and punish him
(D) you will answer the question after the class
21. If you are unable to get a job of teacher, then you will—
(A) start giving tuition at home
(B) remain at home till you get a job
(C) take some another job
(D) continue applying for teaching
22. A teacher can motivate the students by—
(A) giving suitable prizes
(B) giving proper guidance
(C) giving examples
(D) delivering speech in class
23. If a student does not pay any respect to you, then you will—
(A) ignore him
(B) award less marks in examination
(C) talk to his/her parents
(D) rebuke him
24. National Literacy Mission was established in—
(A) 1996
(B) 1988
(C) 1999
(D) 2000
25. The aim of National Council for teacher education is—
(A) to open college of education
(B) to promote research in education
(C) to maintain standards in colleges of education
(D) to provide grant to colleges of education
26. Kindergarten system of education was contributed by—
(A) T. P. Nunn
(B) Spencer
(C) Froebel
(D) Montessori
27. ‘National Council of Educational Research and Training’ was established in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
28. Essay type test are not reliable because—
(A) their answers are different
(B) their results are different
(C) their checking is affected by examiner’s mood
(D) their responding styles are different
29. A guardian never comes to see you in school.
You will—
(A) ignore the child
(B) write to the guardian
(C) go to meet him youself
(D) start punishing the child
30. To maintain interest among students in class, a teacher should—
(A) use blackboard
(B) discuss
(C) tell stories
(D) ask question
31. The purpose of new education policy is—
(A) to provide equal opportunity of education to all
(B) to improve the whole education system
(C) to link the education with employment
(D) to delink the degree with education
32. To raise the standard of education, it is necessary—
(A) to evaluate students continuously
(B) to give high salary to teachers
(C) to revise curriculum
(D) to make good school building
33. What is most important for a teacher ?
(A) to maintain discipline in class
(B) to be punctual in class
(C) to remove difficulties of students
(D) to be good orator
34. Why students should play games in school ?
(A) It makes them physically strong
(B) It makes work easier for teachers
(C) It helps in passing time
(D) It develops co-operation and physical balance
35. Family is a means of—
(A) Informal education
(B) Formal education
(C) Non-formal education
(D) Distance education
36. There is tension among villagers and you are teacher there. What will you do ?
(A) You will inform “Gram Pradhan”
(B) You will try to pacify them
(C) You will report to police
(D) You will keep distance from them
37. A teacher can develop social values among students by—
(A) telling them about great people
(B) developing sense of discipline
(C) behaving ideally
(D) telling them good stories
38. What will you do in leisure time in school ?
You will—
(A) take rest in teacher’s room
(B) read magazines in library
(C) talk to clerks in office
(D) check home work of students
39. A teacher asks the questions in the class to—
(A) keep students busy
(B) maintain discipline
(C) attract student’s attention
(D) teach
40. You like teaching profession because—
(A) it has less responsibility
(B) you are interested in it
(C) it is easy
(D) it provide you more holidays
41. How the students should be motivated to get success in life ?
(A) Selected study
(B) Incidental study
(C) Intensive study
(D) Learning by recitation
42. In context of the habit of Absenteeism of student—
(A) The principal and parents should get worried
(B) The officials of the schools should take action against them as per school’s discipline
(C) The teachers should take it as a serious problem
(D) They should be given less priority in the class room in relation to regular students
43. To whom the responsibility of organisation of curricular activities should be stored with ?
(A) The principal
(B) The teacher who is appointed for this work
(C) The teachers who take interest in it
(D) All the teachers
44. When the students try to solve the questions in some different way as taught by the teacher from prescribed books, then these students should be—
(A) Discouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(B) Encouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(C) Suggested to talk with their teacher after the period
(D) Suggested to follow the class room notes in order to get good mark in the examination
45. The experienced teachers do not require the detailed lesson plan of a topic because—
(A) They can teach in a good manner without its help
(B) The number of curious students is very poor in the class
(C) When they commit some mistake, they do not face any challange from their students
(D) They can equip themselves with brief outline as they gain specialisation in it through experience
46. The problem of drop-out in which students leave their schooling in early years can be tackled in a better way through—
(A) Reduction of the weight of curriculum
(B) Sympathy of teachers
(C) Attractive environment of the school
(D) Encouragement of the students
47. The ideal teacher—
(A) Teaches the whole curriculum
(B) Helps his students in learning
(C) Is a friend, philosopher and guide
(D) Maintains good discipline
48. The aim of education should be—
(A) To develop vocational skills in the students
(B) To develop social awareness in the students
(C) To prepare the students for examination
(D) To prepare the students for practical life
49. The best method of checking student’s homework is—
(A) To assign it to intelligent students of the class
(B) To check the answers in the class in group manner
(C) To check them with the help of specimen answer
(D) To check by the teacher himself in a regular way
50. A time bound testing programme for a students should be implemented in Shools so that—
(A) The progress of the students should be informed to their parents
(B) A regular practice can be carried out
(C) The students can be trained for final examinations
(D) The remedial programme can be adopted on the basis of the feedback from the results
51. The essential element of the syllabus for the children remained out of school should be—
(A) Literacy competencies
(B) Life-skills
(C) Numerical competencies
(D) Vocational competencies
52. The contribution of taxpayers in Primary education is in the form of—
(A) Income Tax
(B) Tuition Fee
(C) Paying money for individual tution
(D) Educational cess
53. The priority to girls education should be given because—
(A) The girls are more intelligent in comparison than the boys
(B) The girls are lesser in number than boys
(C) The girls were badly discriminated in favour of boys in the past
(D) Only girls are capable of leading for social change
54. The success of integrated education depends on—
(A) The support of community
(B) The excellence of text-books
(C) The highest quality of teaching-learning material
(D) The attitudinal changes in teachers
55. The quality of schools education is exclusively depending upon—
(A) Infrastructural facilities
(B) Financial provisions
(C) International support
(D) The quality of teacher education
56. The idea of Basic Education is propounded by—
(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Rabindranath Tagore
57. The most important indicator of quality of education in a school is—
(A) Infrastructural facilities of a school
(B) Classroom system
(C) Text-books and Teaching-learning material
(D) Student Achievement level
58. The best remedy of the student’s problems related with learning is—
(A) Suggestion for hard work
(B) Supervised study in Library
(C) Suggestion for private tuition
(D) Diagnostic teaching
59. The in-service teacher’ training can be made more effective by—
(A) Using training package which in wellprepared in advance
(B) Making it a residential programme
(C) Using co-operative approach
(D) Practising training followup procedures
60. Child Labour Prohibition Act (1986)—
(A) Prohibits all types of child labour upto 14 years of age of child
(B) Prohibits child labour in risk-taking works only
(C) Prohibits child labour during school hours only
(D) Prohibits child labour by imposing the responsibility of children’s education on the employers
Answers:
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (D)
51. (D) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (A)
IRDA Exam Solved Question Paper
1) Insurance works on the principle of
a Trust
b Sharing
c Randomness
d All of the above
2 Insurance is legitimate
a when an adverse happening is likely
b When an adverse happening is unlikely
c When an adverse happening is certain
d In all the above three situations
3 Insurance benefits replace
a All physical losses, in full
b All physical losses, partly
c All monetary losses, in full
d The monetary losses, but only to some extent
4 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a People hesitate to buy life insurance because they are not aware of their needs
b People hesitate to buy life insurance because they prefer to enjoy the present
c Both the statements are correct
d Both the statements are wrong
5 Which is the right time for taking life insurance?
a When you are about to get married
b Soon after you have got married
c Just when you are joined a new job
d All the three ‘times’ are right
6 Retention of risk may be done conveniently by
a Large corporations
b Small companies
c Single individuals
d None of the three
7 A valuation is done by a life insurer because
a It is a statutory requirement
b It is necessary to be able to declare dividends to shareholders
c It tells the insurer how well it is managing the business
d All of the above
8 The reason for charging level premiums is
a Risk increases as age increases
b It is convenient to the policyholder
c It is convenient to the insurer
d All the above reasons
9 What does a premium depend upon?
a The place of worship visited by the person to be insured
b The state of health of the policyholder
c The decision of the underwriter
d The report of the agent
10 State which one of the following statements is correct?
a In group insurance, a single policy is issued covering many persons
b A master policy covers servants of a master
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
11 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the SA
b In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the term
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct
12 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?
a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct
13 Which of the following could be the basis of the cover in a group policy?
a Height of the life insured
b Age of the life insured
c Size of the insured’s family
d All the three above
14 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?
a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct
15 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Every plan of insurance is a combination of two basic plans
b The name given to a plan indicates the benefits available under the plan
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statement s above are wrong
16 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Underwriting is done only when there is a medical examination
b Medical examination is necessary before a policy can be issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
17 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a The underwriter determines the premium to be charged
b The underwriter is an employee of the insurer
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
18 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he will accept at OR
b If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he may impose a lien
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
19 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a The schedule of a policy is not altered after the policy is issued
b Changes in the terms of the policy are made through endorsements
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
20 The date of issue of the FPR indicates
a The date when the risk effectively begins
b The date when the next premium falls due
c The date when the policy will commence
d None of the above
21 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a In the case of SSS policies, renewal premium receipts are issued
b In the case of SSS policies, FPRs are issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
22 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Assignee is free from the assignor’s obligations under the policy
b A nomination is automatically cancelled when a loan is taken under the policy
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
23 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
24 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Foreclosure can be done only with the consent of the policyholder
b Foreclosure can be done only after informing the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
25 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Revivals are not done unless the entire outstanding premium is paid
b Revivals are not done unless the underwriter agrees
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
26 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Foreclosure action cannot be taken till a notice is served on the policyholder
b When a foreclosure action is taken, nothing is payable to the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
27 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
28 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a A presumption of death is not the same as proof of death
b Presumption of death allows inheritance of property
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
29 When does a claim arise under an insurance policy?
a Whenever the policyholder feels the need for money
b When the insured events happen
c When a premium is not paid
d Whenever any of the three things mentioned above happen
30 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a Maturity claim cheques are paid to the trustees in a MWP Act case
b Maturity claim cheques are paid to the beneficiaries in a MWP Act case
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
31 If a claim is made in January 2007 under a policy, which commenced in May 2002, stating that the life insured had died in April 2004,
a Section 45 of the Act will not apply
b The claim can be treated as an early claim
c Foul play must be suspected
d All the three statements above are correct
32 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a A policy reported to be lost, may actually have been assigned
b A policy has no value after the payment of survival benefits
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
33 Which one of the following statements is correct?
a The foreign exchange regulations apply if the life insured is a non-resident
b The foreign exchange regulations apply if the claimant is a non-resident
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
34 State which of the following statements is correct
a ULIPs provide for flexibility
b ULIPs are better than traditional policies
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong
35 State which of the following statements is correct
a In ULIPs, the offer bid spread is the difference between the two prices
b In ULIPs, the offer bid spread, will in some cases be zero
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong
36 State which of the following statements is correct
a In ULIPs the insurance cover must be a minimum multiple of the premium
b ULIPs can be surrendered after two years
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong
37 State which one of the following statements is correct
a Life insurance is the best savings scheme for all persons
b Life insurance is the best investment scheme for young persons
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
38 Which of the following statements is correct?
a An insurance agent has fixed working hours
b An insurance agent has to mark his attendance in office every day
c An insurance agent works according to his schedule
d An insurance agent cannot do any other work
39 State which one of the following statements is correct
a When vital information is not disclosed, the policyholder is benefited
b When a claim is repudiated, the agent’s trustworthiness is affected
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
40 State which one of the following statements is correct?
a The social sector is not only in the urban areas
b The social sector includes the unorganized sector
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
41 State which one of the following statements is correct?
a The Ombudsman’s authority is limited to claims matters only
b The Ombudsman is not a judicial authority
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
42 State which one of the following statements is correct?
a The tax provisions are the same for all kinds of savings
b The tax provisions are included in the Constitution
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong
43 A proposal for SA of Rs. 10 lakhs with DAB for monthly mode under SSS.
Proposer had a previous policy of Rs. 5 lakhs with DAB. Proposal was
accepted with health extra of Rs. 2.75 per thousand SA premium for DAB Re 1 per
thousand. 5% extra for monthly mode. large SA rebate of Rs 2/- per thousand for
1 lakh and above. Tabular premium Rs. 48.20 maximum total SA on which DAB is allowed is Rs. 10/- lakhs.
Find monthly (SSS) premium, rounded off to the next higher rupee
a 4102
b 4121
c 4183
d 4195
44 Find out surrender value on the basis of following data (the answer to
be rounded off to the next lower rupee). SA Rs.30, 000 DOC- 15.6.1992,
Endowment with profit – 30 years
Due date of last premium paid 15-06-2007 mode half yearly
Accrued bonus Rs.750/- per thousand SA. SV factor 23%
a 3670
b 3765
c 8740
d None of these
45 A money back policy for SA. of Rs.50,000/- Matured after 25 years.
Survival benefits of 15% each had been paid at the end of 5th, 10th, 15th,
and 20th years. Bonus had accrued at Rs.965/- per Rs.1000/- SA. Interim bonus
@ Rs.25/- per thousand SA is payable. What is the maturity claim amount?
a 68250
b 69500
c 98250
d 99500
Correct Answers
1 d 16 d 31 d
2 a 17 c 32 a
3 d 18 b 33 c
4 c 19 c 34 a
5 d 20 a 35 c
6 a 21 b 36 a
7 d 22 d 37 d
8 d 23 d 38 c
9 c 24 b 39 b
10 a 25 d 40 c
11 c 26 a 41 b
12 c 27 d 42 d
13 b 28 c 43 b
14 c 29 b 44 c
15 a 30 a 45 b
ESIC LDC SOLVED PAPER
EMPLOYEES STATE INSURANCE CORPORATION
(ESIC) 2008 SOLVED PAPER
(Held on 01-06-2008)
1. A prepaid service 'TRUMP' was launched by
(A) VSNL
(B) MTNL
(C) Bharati Cellular Ltd.
(D) None of these
ANS- B
2. Which of the following countries won highest gold medals in 27th Olympics ?
(A) Russia
(B) USA
(C) aUSTRALIA
(D) china
ANS- B
3. Which of the following languages belong to the Austric Group ?
(A) Marathi
(B) Laddakhi
(C) Khasi
(D) Tamil
ANS- C
4. Who did not oppose the attack of the USA and her allies on Iraq in March 2003 ?
(A) France
(B) India
(C) Turkey
(D) Pakistan
ANS- A
5. SMS is a service associated with :
(A) E-Mail
(B) Cellular Phones
(C) Internet Surfing
(D) Fax Transmission
ANS- B
6. What was the original Nationality of Annie Besant ?
(A) British
(B) Irish
(C) French
(D) American
ANS- B
7. Which foreign country is closest to Andman Island ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Myanmar
(C) Indonesia
(D) Bangladesh
ANS- B
8. Which country is not a member of G-8 ?
(A) Italy
(B) Canada
(C) Germany
(D) Australia
ANS- D
9. The language spoken by the largest number of people in the world is :
(A) Spanish
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Mandaren
ANS- D
10. Wich of the following is not a Negotiable Instrument ?
(A) Cheque
(B) Promissory note
(C) Bill of exchange
(D) Receipt of fixed deposit
ANS- D
11. Which of the following is nat a part of the exportable item from India ?
(A) Tea
(B) Shoes
(C) Steel
(D) Milk
ANS- D
12. GATT was founded in the year :
(A) 1940
(B) 1942
(C) 1947
(D) 1960
ANS- C
13. Who among the following has not been awarded death sentence in the case of attack on the Indian Parliament ?
(A) Mohammed Afzal
(B) SAR Geelani
(C) Shaukat Hussain Guru
(D) Afshan Guru
ANS- D
14. Stock Market are regulated by :
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) The ministry of finance
(D) None of these
ANS- B
15. No smoking is a :
(A) Rule
(B) Procedure
(C) Plan
(D) Policy
ANS- A
16. In raw Jute and Jute goods production, India ranks at number :
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
ANS- A
17. National bird is observed on :
(A) October 12
(B) November 12
(C) December 13
(D) December 18
ANS- B
18. Famous Food and Drug store "JUSCO" belongs to :
(A) Britain
(B) Netherland
(C) Japan
(D) Switzerland
ANS- C
19. The words "Satyamave Jayate" are taken from :
(A) Gita
(B) Garur Puran
(C) Mundaka Upnishad
(D) Mahabharat
ANS- C
20. Which of the following is not a component of revenue expenditure :
(A) Interest
(B) Public Administration
(C) Subsidies
(D) Buying of capital equipment
ANS- B
21. Sweat Glands occure in greatest niumber in the skin of :
(A) Forehead
(B) Armpits
(C) Back
(D) Plam of hand
ANS- B
22. Which of the following is a flightless bird ?
(A) Emu
(B) Hen
(C) Swan
(D) None of these
ANS- A
23. The bats are able to fly in dark since their wings produce :
(A) Sound waves
(B) Ultrasonic Waves
(C) Infra red rays
(D) Ultraviolet rays
ANS- B
24. Which of the following diseases is inheritable ?
(A) Leukemia
(B) Colour Blindness
(C) Maligency
(D) Hepatites
ANS- B
25. Honey has the largest percentage of :
(A) Water
(B) Starch
(C) Glucose
(D) Sucrose
ANS- D
26 Which of the following is a mixed fertilizer ?
(A) Urea
(B) Ammonium
(C) CAM
(D) NPK
ANS- D
27. Which of the following is an exception to cell theory ?
(A) Bacteria
(B) Fungi
(C) Virus
(D) Lichens
ANS- C
28. Light emmited by sun reaches Earth in :
(A) 1 second
(B) 10 seconds
(C) 13 seconds
(D) 8 seconds
ANS - D
29. Which of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution ?
(A) Diesel
(B) Kerosene
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Coal
ANS- C
30. The average salt content of sea water is :
(A) 1.0 %
(B) 3.5 %
(C) 10.0 %
(D) 12.3 %
ANS- B
31. Blood grouping was discovered by :
(A) William Harvey
(B) Landsteinar
(C) Robert Coach
(D) Luis Pasteur
ANS- B
32. The extreme form of Ahinsa or non-violence is practiced is :
(A) Buddhism
(B) Hinduism
(C) Jainism
(D) None of these
ANS- C
33. The great Hindu Law giver was :
(A) Kapil
(B) Banbatta
(C) Kautilya
(D) Mnau
ANS- D
34. Chandragupta Maurya spent his last days at :
(A) Ujjain
(B) Nalanda
(C) Shravanbela gola
(D) Patna
ANS- C
35. The court language of Mughals was :
(A) Arabic
(B) Hindi
(C) Persian
(D) Urdu
ANS- C
36. The Dutch first established their hold in India in 1605 at :
(A) Goa
(B) Surat
(C) Gujarat
(D) Masulipatnam
ANS- D
37. The English weekly edited by :
(A) Kesari
(B) Comrade
(C) Bombay Chronicle
(D) Young India
ANS- D
38. Who among the following was a prominent officer of Azad Hind Fauz ?
(A) Aruna Asaf Ali
(B) Shahnawaz Khan
(C) Dr. M.A.A nsari
(D) Ghaffar Khan
ANS- B
39. Who is the longest serving Chief Minister in India ?
(A) Bhajan Lal
(B) Chimanbhai Patel
(C) Jyoti Basu
(D) Hiteshwar Saikia
ANS- C
40. Among the following which is the largest Island in the world ?
(A) England
(B) Japan
(C) Borneo
(D) New Guinea
ANS- B
41. Which of the following is the Black Mountain ?
(A) Andes
(B) Alps
(C) Rocky Mountain
(D) Vosges
ANS- C
42. Which of the following is a deepest lake ?
(A) Lake Victoria
(B) Lake Caspian
(C) Lake Superior
(D) Lake Baikal
ANS- D
43. The original home of the Gyosies was :
(A) Russia
(B) Persia
(C) India
(D) Egypt
ANS- D
44. Dry farming in India is extensively practised in :
(A) Kanara plains
(B) Deccan region
(C) Coromandel Plains
(D) Punjab Plains
ANS- B
45. Deepest mine in India is located at ?
(A) Anantpur
(B) Bellary
(C) Kolar
(D) Hspet
ANS- C
46. At present India's largest mineral resource is
(A) Copper
(B) Coal
(C) Iron-ore
(D) None of these
ANS- B
47. The length of the Konkan Railway is :
(A) 560 kms
(B) 660 kms
(C) 760 kms
(D) 860 kms
ANS- C
48. Which of the following is known as Queen of Arabian Sea ?
(A) Cochin
(B) Trivendrum
(C) Aalleppey
(D) Mangalore
ANS- A
49. Who wrote the famous book "We The People" ?
(A) JRD TATA
(B) Khushwant Singh
(C) T.N.Kaul
(D) Nana Palkhivala
ANS- D
50. MS Kim Campbell is the first woman prime minister of :
(A) Congo
(B) Portugal
(C) Philippines
(D) Canada
ANS- D
Havildar in Army Education Corps Exam
GK For Havildar in Army Education Corps
1. ‘Lucknow Pact’ was signed between the Congress and the
Muslim League in the year?
(A)1913
(B) 1914
(C)1915
(D) 1916
Ans : D
2. Buddhist, Hindu and Jain rock- cut caves exist at?
(A)Ajanta
(B) Elephanta
(C)Ellora
(D) Nasik
Ans : C
3. Palk Strait makes maritime boundary between India and?
(A) Bangladesh
(B)Maldives
(C)Pakistan
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans : D
4. Trans-border trade through Nathu La is done between India
and—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) China
(D) Nepal
Ans : C
5. Which one of the following is not a Siva temple?
(A) Kedarnath temple
(B) Jagannath temple
(C) Mahakaleswar temple
(D) Viswanath temple
Ans : B
6. Light from the Sun reaches Earth in about?
(A) 2 minutes
(B) 4 minutes
(C) 8 minutes
(D) 16 minutes
Ans : C
7. In which of the following crops,Uttar Pradesh is the largest
producer in the country?
(A) Barley
(B) Maize
(C) Potato
(D) Rice
Ans : C
8. The number of members nominated by the President to the Council of States is?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
Ans : D
9. Light year is a unit of?
(A) Light
(B) Time
(C) Distance
(D) Intensity of light
Ans : C
10. The three primary colours are
(A) Violet, Black, Blue
(B) Yellow, Orange, Red
(C) Blue, Yellow, Red
(D) Blue, Green,Red
Ans : D
11. Akbar has been called the ‘First national King, mainly because he
(A) was a great administrator.
(B) established a new religion ‘Din -i-Ilahi
(C) provided an efficient government to the people.
(D) was highly tolerant and secular in his out look,
Ans: D
12. Sher Shah’s real name was
(A) Hemu
(B) Faizi
(C) Bahadur
(D) Farid
Ans: D
13. By conquering most parts of the Indian subcontinent and giving it one of the best systems of administration then known to the world, he perpetuated the name of his forebears and of the Mughal dynasty in the land, This statement aptly refers to
(A)Akbar
(B) Jehangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb
Ans: A
14. The ‘Misl’ of which Ranjit Singh was the leader, was
(A) Sukerchakia
(B) Ahluwalia
(C) Phulkia
(D) Ramgarhia
Ans: A
15. Aurangzeb attacked Bijapur and Golconda because
(A) Aurangzeb was an orthodox Sunni and the rulers of Bijapur and Golconda were Shia Muslims.
(B) of Aurangzeb’s policy of expansion and to consolidate his supremacy.
(C) Bijapur and Golconda were supporting Marathas.
(D) Rulers of Bijapur and Golconda were weak and as such it offered easy takeover.
Ans: B
16. If water tax is increased by 10% and the consumption of water is decreased by 10%, the difference in expenditure will be?
(A) 0%
(B) 1%
(C) 2%
(D) 5%
ANS : C
17.. A 100 m long train is going at a speed of 60 km/hr. It will cross a 140 m long railway bridge in—
(A) 36 sec
(B) 72 sec
(C) 144 sec
(D) 216 sec
ANS : C
18. Which of the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi are true?
1. He received his early education in Rajkot.
2. He was married to Kasturba at the age of 13.
3. He studied law at the Inner Temple, London.
4. He was most influenced by Ruskin’s book ‘Unto the last’
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes:
(A) l and 2
(B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 1,3 and 4
(D) 1,2,3and 4
ANS : C
19. Liberhan Commission report relates to?
(A) Administrative reforms
(B) Demolition of Babri Mosque
(C) Godhra incident in Gujarat in 2002
(D) Tax reforms
Ans : B
20. Somdev Devbarman is associated with?
(A) Hockey
(B) Football
(C) Lawn Tennis
(D) Cricket
Ans : C
21. ‘Vande Matram’ song was much in news recently. It is related to?
(A) Arvind Chosh
(B) Bankim Chandra
(C) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(D) Sharat Chandra
Ans : B
22. Consider the following statements about Barack Obama—
1. Barrack Obama is the 44th President of America.
2. He is the second non-white President of Amaica.
3. He is of African origin.
Select the correct answer from
the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3only
(D) l and 3
Ans : D
23. Who among the following rulers are reported to have performed
Asvamedha sacrifice?
1. Pushyamitra
2. Pravarasena I
3. Pulakesin
4. Samudra Gupta
Indicate the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A)l and 2 (B) 3 and 4
(C)l and 4 (D) 12,3 and 4
Ans : C
24. What was the amount of ‘Sardeshmukhi’ charged by
Shivaji?
(A) One-third
(B) One-fifth
(C) One-eighth
(D) One-tenth
Ans : D
25. Which of the following Union Territories have a State
assembly?
1. Chandigarh
2. Delhi
3. Pondicherry
4. Lakshdweep
Select the correct answer from
the Codes given below:
Codes:
(A)l and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 2,3 and 4
Ans : B
26. ‘Economic and Social Planning’is a subject in the?
(A) Union list
(B) State list
(C) Concurrent list
(D) None of the above
Ans : C
27. The Vice-President is elected by?
(A) The people
(B) The electoral college which elects the President
(C) The members of both Houses of Parliament
(D) By the members of the State Legislatures
Ans : C
28. Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of?
(A) Vitamin E
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin B
Ans : C
29. India’s largest ship breaking yard is located in Gujarat at?
(A)Alang
(B) Kandla
(C)Okha
(D) Porbander
Ans : A
30. Who amongst the following was the first recipient of Bharat
Ratna?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) S. Radhakrishnan
Ans : A
31. Which of the following gurus founded the ‘Khalsa’?
(A) Nanak
(B) Har Kishan
(C) Teg Bahadur
(D) Govind Singh
Ans : D
32. Who of the following got the Moti Masjid, Agra constructed during his reign?
(A) Akbar
(B) Aurangzeb
(C) Jahangir
(D) Shahjahan
Ans : D
33 Who built the famous Dilwara temple at Mount Abu in the 13th century?
(A)Mahendrapala
(B) Mahipala
(C) Rajyapala
(D) Tejapala
Ans : D
34. Akbar’s land revenue system was known as
(A) Bandob system
(B) Zabti system
(C) Todarmal’s revenue system
(D) All of these
Ans : B
35. Sikh Gum Arjun Dev was killed during the reign of
(A)Humayun
(B) Akbar
(C) Jahangir
(D) Shah Jahan
Ans: C
Intelligence Bureau Assistant Central Intelligence Officer (Executive) Exam
Intelligence Bureau Assistant Central Intelligence Officer
(Executive) Grade-II Exam., 2010(Held on 24-1-2010)
Part-II
English Language & Comprehension : Solved Paper
Directions—(Q. 1–5) Some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [¦] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error, blacken the rectangle [¦] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.
1. Though there is hourly bus service on this route (A) / a number of people are still suffering (B) / as there is no bus shelter here. (C) No error. (D)
2. The boss took strict measures (A) / with a view to ensuring punctuality (B) / on the part of his subordinates. (C) No error. (D)
3. People prefer to be identified (A) /by their caste community or religion first (B) / rather to be known as Indians first. (C) No error. (D)
4. Mrs. Dorai would rather (A) / spend a quiet evening (B) / than attending a party. (C) No error. (D)
5. Being idle sometimes is agreeable (A) / but being idle all the times (B) / might become monotonous. (C) No error. (D)
Directions—(Q. 6–10) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.
6. HERETICAL—
(A) Contradictory
(B) Doubtful
(C) Impious
(D) Orthodox
7. PHILISTINE—
(A) Cultured
(B) Libertine
(C) Sober
(D) Educated
8. LACERATION—
(A) Convalescence
(B) Recouperation
(C) Healing
(D) Palpitation
9. IMPLICATE—
(A) Disentangle
(B) Impersonate
(C) Complicate
(D) Impose
10. INGEST—
(A) Disrupt
(B) Disgorge
(C) Dismiss
(D) Display
Directions—(Q. 11–15) Groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer sheet.
11. (A) Clientele
(B) Clientale
(C) Cleintele
(D) Clientelle
12. (A) Punctileous
(B) Punctilious
(C) Punctillious
(D) Punctileus
13. (A) Haemorrage
(B) Hemorhage
(C) Hemmorage
(D) Haemorrhage
14. (A) Fascimile
(B) Facsimele
(C) Facsimile
(D) Facksimile
15. (A) Hoseire
(B) Hosier
(C) Hosair
(D) Hasier
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Four alternatives are given for the idiom/ phrase printed bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase and mark it in the Answer sheet.
16. We know that he is the one responsible for the discord but as he is well-connected all we can do is send him to Coventry.(A) transfer him
(B) commend him
(C) boycott him
(D) dismiss him
17. A Prime Minister cannot ride rough shod over his ministerial colleagues for long.
(A) deal unkindly with
(B) take for granted
(C) be hamhanded with
(D) exploit wilfully
18. The say, join the Army to drink life to the lees.
(A) to have the best of fun and fortune
(B) to enjoy a life of drinking and dancing
(C) to have a life full of adventures
(D) to have the best of life
19. He was down in the mouth as he was defeated in the elections.
(A) unable to speak
(B) very depressed
(C) very angry
(D) very confused
20. The noble man gave up the ghost.
(A) left the ghost
(B) lived like a ghost
(C) invited ghost
(D) died
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [¦] in the Answer sheet.
21. The time between midnight and noon—
(A) Afternoon
(B) Antipodes
(C) Ante-meridiem
(D) Antenatal
22. One who is a dabbler in arts, science or literature—
(A) Dilettante
(B) Aesthete
(C) Maestro
(D) Connoisseur
23. Fear of height—
(A) Agoraphobia
(B) Hydrophobia
(C) Acrophobia
(D) Pyrophobia
24. Still existing and known—
(A) Extent
(B) Extant
(C) Eternal
(D) Immanent
25. A remedy for all ills—
(A) Narcotic
(B) Panacea
(C) Medicine
(D) Quack
Directions—(Q. 26–30) The Ist and the last sentences of the passage are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S.
These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer and indicate it in the Answer sheet.
26. 1. There are some places that experience heavy rains throughout the year.
P. So, the local administration should take steps to provide a proper drainage system to clear the stagnant water.
Q. If water stagnates on the road sides, it leads to the spread of infectious diseases.
R. Additionally, measures should be taken to spray disinfectants.
S. In such places, people adapt themselves to moist weather.
6. By taking such steps, spread of diseases can be checked.
(A) QPSR
(B) SQPR
(C) RSQP
(D) PQSR
27. 1. Addiction to alcoholic drinks affects the social life of the people.
P. Gradually drinking becomes a habit.
Q. The person becomes an addict.
R. When once it becomes a habit, it is difficult to give up.
S. A person begins to drink just for the fun of it.
6. If he doesn’t have his bottle of drink, he becomes restless.
(A) SPRQ
(B) SRQP
(C) QRPS
(D) QPRS
28. 1. Braille lost his eyesight accidentally as a child.
P. In his days, the few books that were available for blind people were printed in big, raised type.
Q. After that he became a teacher.
R. The letters used were t hose of the ordinary alphabet.
S. Nevertheless, he was able to complete his education at a school for the blind in Paris.
6. Braille’s idea was to use raised dots instead of raised letters.
(A) PQRS
(B) SQPR
(C) SRPQ
(D) QPRS
29. 1. What are the strategies to strengthen reading habits among early literates, school dropouts and even adults ?
P. Normally, subtitles for a film, say in Hindi, will be in some other language, say, English.
Q. According to a research survey, SLS ‘‘doubles and even triples the role of reading improvement that children may be achieving through formal education.’’
R. But SLS harps on the argument that since the film viewers are familiar with the script, they can read the
words in their favourite dialogues and films.
S. One of the novel and effective strategies is Same Language Subtitles (SLS), which was introduced in Ahmedabad in 1996.
6. Since, a huge number of children and adults watch TV for entertainment even in the rural
areas of India, why not use this resource to get an educational benefit out of it ?
(A) PQSR
(B) PRQS
(C) SPRQ
(D) SQRP
30. 1. Disappointment doesn’t equal failure.
P. When you feel disappointed, you can either seek comfort or seek a solution.
Q. First, step back, stop what you’re doing, and try to obtain some comfort-but don’t get
trapped into staying comfortable.
R. The best approach includes some of both.
S. Seen in a positive light, it can stimulate learning and growth.
6. Having licked your wounds, prepare for another effort based on a new solution to the
problem.
(A) SRQP
(B) RSPQ
(C) SPRQ
(D) PRSQ
Directions—(Q. 31–35) A sentence has been given in Active Voice/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer in the Answer sheet.
(A) By whom the Gramophone record has been broken ?
(B) By whom have the Gramophone record been broken ?
(C) By whom will have the Gramophone record been broken ?
(D) By whom has the Gramophone record been broken ?
32. People once believed that the sun was a God—
(A) The sun is once being believed to be a God
(B) The sun has once been believed to be a God
(C) It was once believed that the sun was a God
(D) It is once believed that the sun is a God
33. Can we send this parcel by air mail ?
(A) By air mail, can this parcel be sent ?
(B) Can this parcel be send by air mail ?
(C) Can this parcel be sent by air mail ?
(D) Can by air mail, this parcel be sent ?
34. People ought not to speak about such things in public—
(A) Such things ought to be not spoken about in public by people
(B) Such things ought not to be spoken about in public
(C) Such things ought to be spoken about not in public
(D) Let such things not be spoken about in public by people
35. I shall be complimented by all when I win the game—
(A) Everyone will compliment me when the game is won by me
(B) All shall compliment me when I win the game
(C) All are complimenting me when the game is won
(D) All will have complimented me when I win the game
Directions—(Q. 36–40) You have one brief passage with 5 questions. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [¦] in the Answer sheet.
Passage:
A rat’s thick, furry body brushed his cheek, its whiskered nose sniffing at his mouth. Quivering with revulsion, Kunta snapped his teeth together desperately and the rat ran away. In rage, Kunta snatched and kicked against the shackles that bound his wrists and ankles. Instantly, angry exclamations and jerking came back from whomever he was shackled to. The shock and pain adding to his fury, Kunta lunged upward, his head bumping hard against wood-right on the spot where he had been clubbed by the ‘toubol’ back in the woods.
Gasping the snarling, he and the unseen man next to him battered their iron cuffs at each other until both slumped back in exhaustion. Kunta felt himself starting to vomit again, and he tried to force it back, hut couldn’t. His already emptied belly squeezed up a thin, sour fluid that drained from the side of his mouth as he lay wishing that he might die.
He told himself that he mustn’t lose control again if he wanted to save his strength and his sanity. After a while, when he felt he could move again, he very slowly and carefully explored his shackled right wrist and ankle with his left hand. They were bleeding. He pulled lightly on the the left ankle and wrist of the man he had fought with. On Kunta’s left, chained to him by the ankles, lay some other man, someone who kept up a steady moaning and they were all so close that their shoulders, arms, and legs touched if any of them moved even a little.
36. How many people are there definitely with Kunta ?
(A) No one else
(B) One other person
(C) Two other persons
(D) Many others
37. In the passage, Kunta vomited again because he—
(A) was not keeping well
(B) was very hungry
(C) was angry with someone
(D) had fought with someone
38. The man is referred to as ‘unseen’ because—
(A) Kunta didn’t know him
(B) Kunta wouldn’t turn his head to see him
(C) It was dark
(D) Kunta was tied
39. Where is Kunta ?
(A) In the open air
(B) In a prison
(C) In a confined space
(D) Not mentioned in the text
40. Kunta was desperate when a rat came near him because—
(A) he quivered with revulsion
(B) he was angry and hungry
(C) he was shackled and helpless
(D) he was tied to someone else
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer sheet.
A modern example of the process of evolution by natural selection in action is provided by the peppered moth. The moth is …41… pale in colour, a mottled grey which …42… the moth to settle, wings outstret-ched, …43… the bark of lichen covered trees and …44… unnoticed. It can thus save itself from many …45… birds. However, many years ago some British …46… found that there does exist a second…47… of this moth, with dark sooty wings. Research has …48… established that both belong to the …49… species, but the dark moth lives in …50… surroundings, where the trunks of the trees on which they live are dark with industrial grime.
41. (A) only
(B) normally
(C) really
(D) obviously
42. (A) permits
(B) allows
(C) enables
(D) obstructs
43. (A) in
(B) on
(C) about
(D) under
44. (A) be
(B) hide
(C) run
(D) come
45. (A) ordinary
(B) circulatory
(C) predatory
(D) stationary
46. (A) naturalists
(B) ornithologists
(C) excavators
(D) scholars
47. (A) group
(B) section
(C) variety
(D) society
48. (A) however
(B) now
(C) then
(D) since
49. (A) same
(B) similar
(C) like
(D) one
50. (A) rural
(B) mechanical
(C) agricultural
(D) urban
Answers:
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (D)
31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (A) 50. (D)
Wednesday, October 20, 2010
POSTAL / SORTING ASSISTANTS MODEL PAPER
(A) cleaned his chest
(B) fought for
(C) faced bravely
(D) confessed without hiding anything
2. The mother of the victim left………. in her efforts to get the culprit convicted.
The blank can be filled by.
(A) resigned to her fate
(B) home
(C) no stone unturned
(D) right
3. Complete the following proverb
“Rome was not built in a
(A) day
(B) week
(C) month
(D) year
4. ‘Phobia’ means
(A) hobby
(B) payment made before using a service
(B) study of something
C) fear of something
(D) craze
5. ‘Post-Paid’ means
(A) a post office term
(B) payment made before using a service
(C) payment made after using a service
(D) payment made at the time of using the service
6. Complete the phrase : “As faithful as a
(A) cat
(B) donkey
(C) dog
(D) fox
7. A doctor who specializes in the treatment of children is called?
(A)pedestrain
(B)pediatrician
(C)pedologist
(D) pedigree
8 The police are ………………….the theft in the office. The blank can be filled by.
(A) instigating
(B)interrogating
(C)investigating
(D)introspecting
(A)pair
(B) pear
(C)pare
(D) twin
10. The collective noun for a group of elephants is?
(A)group
(B) gang
(C)pack
(D) herd
11. How many minutes before 12 Noon is it when it is 10:35 a.m.?
(A)86
(B) 87
(C)85
(D) 84
12. Statements:
All scientists are fools.
All fools are intelligent.
Conclusions:
I. All scientists are intelligent.
II. All intelligent people are scientists.
III. All intelligent people are fools.
IV. Some intelligent people would be scientists.
(A) Only I is correct
(B) Only IV is correct
(C) Only I and IV are correct
(D) Only II and IV are correct
13. Ramesh walked 10 metres towards north, took a left turn and walked 75 metres, again took a left turn and walked 100 metres and stopped walking.
What direction was he facing when he stopped walking?
(A) north
(B) south
(C) north-west
(D) south-east
14. Pick the odd one out
(A)fruit
(B) flower
(C)leaf
(D) petal
15. Pick the odd one out
(A)cuckoo
(B) crow
(C)bat
(D) parrot
16. Pick the odd one out
(A)gold
(B) copper
(C)silver
(D) brass
17. Identify the city which is the odd one out?
(A) Patna
(B) Ranchi
(C) Raipur
(D) Jamshedpur
18.The leading producer of tin in the world is?
(A) Bolivia
(B) Brazil
(C)Indonesia
(D) Malaysia
19. Which is the odd one out in the following?
(A) Triangle
(C) Circle
(B) Rectangle
(D) Sphere
20. If we are viewing an angle of 3° through a magnifying glass capable of magnifying 3 times, how big would the angle look?
(A)9°
(B) 30°
(C)6°
(D) 12°
21. 300 bananas were purchased at As. 128 a hundred. What should be the selling price per dozen, if a profit of Rs. 66 is to be made?
(A)Rs. 15
(B) Rs.18
(C)Rs. 20
(D) Rs 21
22. Choose the correct algebraic statement for the following
“A number is equal to 3 less than three times another number.”
(A) y=3x—3
(B) y=3x/3
(C) y=3x+5
(D) 3y=3x—3
23. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 18 (remainder 0)?
(A) 245678
(B) 2456789
(C) 2445678
(D) 2455678
24. A 4 cm x 4 cm x 4 cm brick weights 64 kg. What would be the weight of a brick of size 1 cm x 1 cm x 1 cm?
(A)32 kg
(B)8 kg
(C)16kg
(D) 1 kg
25. What is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand at 6.30 p.m.?
(A)0°
(B)15°
(C)30°
(D)195°
26. Mr. Dhoni has 5 pairs Of white gloves and 5 pairs of black gloves, which he keeps in a box. If he picks 3 gloves at random, what is the probability that he will get a matching pair?
(A)0.5
(B) 0.75
(C)0.9
(D)1
27. If the length and breadth of a room are 48 feet and 24 feet respectively, and the space diagonal (one corner on ceiling to opposite corner on floor) is 56 feet, what is the height of the room?
(A)l4 feet
(B) 15 feet
(C)16 feet
(D) l7 feet
28. What is the next number in the following sequence?
0,1,1,2,3,5,8,13,21,34
(A)50
(B) 55
(C)53
(D) 51
29. ‘34’ is related to 12’ in the same way as ‘59’ is related to?
(A)95
(B) 54
(C)45
(D) 17
30.If 20 x X = 20 + X, what is the
value of X?
(A) 19/20
(B)18/20
(C) 18/19
(D)20/19
31. Which neighboring country of India embraced democracy recently to become the world’s youngest democracy?
(A)Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Pakistan
(D) Sri Lanka
32. Which of the following took over the Anglo Dutch Steel Company Corus?
(A) Arcelor Mittal
(B) Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(C) Tata Steel
(D) Jindal Steel
33. For International payments Indian currency is linked to?
(A) Gold Standard
(B) International Oil Price
(C) American Dollars
(D) Pound Sterling
34. Which organization, headed by Indian environmentalist Dr. A. K. Pachauri has been awarded
Nobel Peace Prize in 2007?
(A) International Global Warming
(B) International Environment Panel
(C) International Panel on Pollution Control
(D) International Panel on Climate change
35. Which day is observed as the World Habitat Day?
(A) March27
(B) September 30
(C) October 5
(0) October 2
36. Which game will be played for the first time in 2010 Asian Games?
(A) Twenty-20 Cricket
(B) Kabaddi
(C) Kho-Kho
(D) Gilli Danda
37. Reserve Bank of India is a?
(A) Private Bank
(B) Commercial Bank
(C) Foreign Bank
(D) Central Bank
38.Which of the following rivers have almost the same point of origin?
(A) Brahmaputra and Indus
(B) Brahmaputra and Ganga
(C) Godavari and Krishna
(0) Indus and Gangs
39. What is the main advantage of transplantation method of sowing rice?
(A) It helps in early harvesting
(B) The draining of water from the field before harvesting is made easy
(C) It is helpful in achieving an economical use of water and a higher yield of grain
(D) It ensures maximum utilization of land
40.All of the following rivers flow into or join the Ganges on its left side except?
(A)Gomti
(B) Gandak
(C)Son
(0) Kosi
41. As the height above sea level increases, the temperature?
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) First decreases and then increases
(D) Change of height has no effect on temperature
42. Which of the two planets listed below are closer to the sun than the earth?
(A) Mercury and Mars
(B) Mercury and Venus
(C) Venus and Mars
(D) Jupiter and Saturn
43. Which of the following countries is not in the continent of Asia?
(A)Lebanon
(B) Libya
(C)Japan
(D) Singapore
44.The land masses of India and Sri Lanka are connected by which of the following straits?
(A) Bass Strait
(B) Bering Strait
(C) Malacca Strait
(D) Palk Strait
45. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Manipur—Imphal
(B) Meghalaya—Shillong
(C) Mizoram—Agartala
(0) Nagaland—Kohima
46. From North to South, the correct sequence of the following sea ports is?
(A) Chennai, Tuticorin, Vishakapatnam, Paradip
(B) Paradip, Chennai, Vishakapatnam, Tuticorin
(C) Paradip, Vishakapatnarn, Tuticorin, Chennai
(D) Paradip, Vishakapatnam, Chennai, Tuticorin
47. The International Date Line is located in the?
(A) Pacific Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean
48. Which Bank has recently changed its name to Axis Bank?
(A) HDFC Bank
(B) Citi Bank
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) UTI Bank
49. What is the expanded form of MICA?
(A) Magnetic ink Character Recognition
(B) Magnetic Ink Code Reader
(C) Magnetic Inline Character Reader
(D) Magnetic Inline Code Reader
50. Which sector contributes most towards the GDP of India?
(A) Iron and Steel Industry
(B) Railway
(C) Cotton Textile industry
(D) Service Sector
Answers:
| 1 | D |
| 2 | C |
| 3 | A |
| 4 | C |
| 5 | C |
| 6 | C |
| 7 | B |
| 8 | C |
| 9 | A |
| 10 | D |
| 11 | C |
| 12 | C |
| 13 | B |
| 14 | A |
| 15 | C |
| 16 | D |
| 17 | D |
| 18 | D |
| 19 | D |
| 20 | B |
| 21 | B |
| 22 | A |
| 23 | C |
| 24 | D |
| 25 | B |
| 26 | D |
| 27 | C |
| 28 | B |
| 29 | C |
| 30 | D |
| 31 | A |
| 32 | C |
| 33 | C |
| 34 | D |
| 35 | C |
| 36 | C |
| 37 | D |
| 38 | A |
| 39 | C |
| 40 | C |
| 41 | A |
| 42 | B |
| 43 | B |
| 44 | D |
| 45 | C |
| 46 | D |
| 47 | A |
| 48 | D |
| 49 | A |
| 50 | D |