COMPETITIONS TODAY

Thursday, November 18, 2010

UGC NET MANAGEMENT PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER

1. OPEC is an example of the type of producer’s

organization known as a:

(a) Marketing Board

(b) Producer’s Cooperative

(d) Cartel

Ans. (d)

2. TQM’s major emphasis is on

(a) Product quality

(b) Company profitability

(d) Employee training

Ans. (a)

3. Assertion (A): Effective motivation is moderated by organizational complexity and conflicts.

Reason (R): An Individual’s motives may be complex and conflicting.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (d)

4. Match the following:

List-I List-II

A Classical 1. Fact-orientation

B Human Relations 2. Environment

C Behavioural 3. Structure

D Systems 4. Informal organization

5. Incentives to work

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 2 1 3

(b) 1 4 3 2

(d) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (d)

5. External environment of business is:

(a) Physical

(b) Demographic

(d) All of these

Ans. (d)

6. ‘Co-ordination’ in an organization means:

1. Complete control of the activities of the employees.

2. To structure harmony among different units of the organization.

3. Removal of conflict and overlapping in the organization.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) l and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

7. Regression coefficient is independent change of:

(a) Origin but not to scale

(b) Both origin and scale

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

8. Assertion (A): E-commerce is an emerging field, which cannot be ignored.

Reason (R): The legal framework relating to E-commerce is yet to be crystallized.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (b)

9. Which of these is marketing research method?

(a) Observation

(b) Questionnaire

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

10. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always posses the minimum gold stock of worth:

(a) Rs. 85 crores

(b) Rs. 115 crores

(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

11. ISO-quants are also known as:

(a) Equal revenue curves.

(b) Equal cost curves

(d) Indifference curves

Ans. (c)

12. Match the following:

List-I List-II

(a) Cardinal approach 1. Margin Utility

(b) Ordinal approach 2. Alfred Marshall

(d) Consumer’s surplus 4. Indifference curve

5. Revealed preference theory

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 1 5 4 2

(d) 1 3 2 4

Ans. (b)

13. The scientific management stressed upon:

1. Rationality

2. Specialization

3. Technical competence

4. Predictability

Select the Correct Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

14. One who does too mu1i work is called:

(a) A rate buster

(b) A chiseller

(d) None pf the above

Ans. (a)

15. Which of the following is not an essential feature of social environment?

(a) Competitiveness

(b) Respect for the individual

(d) Bailment

Ans. (d)

16. Marketing information system help to

(a) Sales Manager

(b) Purchase Manager

(d) Marketing Manager

Ans. (d)

17. Consider the following:

I Measurement

II. Projection

III. Selection

IV. Observation

V. Comparison

VI. Decision making

The correct sequence of the above ingredients of management by exception is:

(a) I, II, III, IV, V, VI

(b) I, II, III, V, IV, VI

(d) I, II, III, IV, VI, V

Ans. (a)

18. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A. Value of any security 1. The real value of any security is determined by the

prior rights to the return of income.

B. Debenture 2. It possesses maximum safety and normally offers

regular and fixed income.

C. Preference Share 3. It offers reasonable safety as well as regular and

fixed income by way of dividend.

D. Equity Shares 4. It invites speculative tendency and the investors.

There is risk of loss in such a share.

Select the correct answer using the codes using the codes given below:

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 3 4

(d) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (a)

19. Normal profits are considered as:

(a) Explicit Costs

(b) Implicit Costs

(d) Private Costs

Ans. (b)

20. Consider the following statements:

1. Quartile deviation is more instructive range as it discards the dispersion of extreme items.

2. Coefficient of quartile deviation cannot be used to compare the degree.

3. There are 10 deciles for a series.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 alone

(d) 1 alone

Ans. (c)

21. Three necessary and sufficient conditions that must be satisfied if traits should be unique determinants of the Leadership Index are —

1. The trait quality should follow a descending order as one traverses from the highest to the lowest levels.

2. There must be a high correlation between the Level of traits and the level of success

3. The achievement trait curve should be convex to the trait axis as one travels from the low to the high trait terminals.

The above conditions have been suggested by:

(a) F. W. Taylor

(b) Elton Mayo

(d) Dorwin Cartwright

Ans. (c)

22. Michigan Leadership studies are based on the following approach to the study of leadership:

(a) Trait approach

(b) Attitude criterion

(d) Situational approach

Ans. (b)

23. Choose the correct facts of the following?

A. Unity of command in no case seriously affected by the increasing number and growing influence of staff and auxiliary agencies.

B. What we are having today in practice, there is no unity of command, not even duality of command, but multiplicity of command.

C. The unity of command has been seriously affected by the increasing number and growing influence of staff and auxiliary agencies.

(a) A only

(b) A and B only

(d) A, B and C

Ans. (c)

24. Find out correct answer:

(a) Heart of co-ordination is unity of actions.

(b) Co-ordination is the basic responsibility of management.

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

25 The definition that Economics is concerned with an enquiry into the nature and causes of wealth of nations is given by

(a) Karl Marx

(b) Adam Smith

(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

26. A long run analysis of production is called:

(a) Economies of scale

(b) Law of variable proportion

(d) Law of returns to scale

Ans. (d)

27. Which of the following persons is engaged in “secondary production”?

1. A brick layer

2. An automobile assembly-line worker

3. An accountant

4. A cinema projectionist

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

28. Rectangular hyperbola is the shape of:

(a) TFC

(b) AFC

(d) MC

Ans. (b)

29. Assertion (A): A tenet of scientific management is co-operation and harmony between workers and managers.

Reason (R): Taylor believed in participative management.

In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (c)

30. Which of the following are the Mechanisms of the Scientific Management?

1. Functional Foremanship

2. One best way of doing a task

3. Differential Piece Rate Plan

4. Scientific Selection of workman

5. Time and Motion study

(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 2, 4 and 5

(d) 2 and 4

Ans. (c)

31. Who described the classical approach as the engineering approach?

(a) Gullick

(b) Fayol

(d) Mooney

Ans. (c)

32. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

A. A store clerk tells the top executive when to buy 1. Leadership by personality

a commodity.

B. A youth rushing to save life and property of a house 2. Leadership by position

on fire commands neighbours to collect water.

C. A newly elected secretary advises members about 3. Leadership by function

their duties.

D. A leader attempts to bend his followers to his will 4. Leadership by situation

in most kind of work.

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 2 4

(b) 2 4 3 1

(d) 3 2 4 1

Ans. (c)

33. Arrange the Maslow’s Need descending order:

1. Social

2. Self-Actualization

3. Physiological

4. Ego

5. Security

(a) 3, 5 1, 4, 2

(b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4

(d) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

Ans. (d)

34. Which of the following, according to Hertzberg, are not the motivators?

1. Responsibility

2. Recognition

3. Interpersonal relations

4. Work itself

5. Working condition

(a) l, 2 and 4

(b) l, 2, and 3

(d) 2, 4 and 5

Ans. (c)

35. The traditional theory of motivation is the theory of:

(a) Path-goal

(b) Participation

(d) Fear and punishment

Ans. (d)

36 The sources of recruitment are:

(a) Internal

(b) External

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

37. The Human Relations Theory rejects:

(a) Formal institutionalization

(b) Informal functioning

(d) People

Ans. (d)

38. The terms speed boss, rout clerks etc., are used in relation to:

(a) Line organization

(b) Line and staff organization

(d) None of the above

Ans. (d)

39. Paid-up value is payable on a life insurance policy:

(a) on the maturity of the policy

(b) when the policy lapses

(d) on maturity or death which ever is earlier

Ans. (d)

40. FICCI was formed in the year:

(a) 1920

(b) 1925

(d) 1951

Ans. (c)

41. Which among the following is the most popular approach for accomplishing the

results?

(a) Management by exception

(b) Reward system

(d) Mentor system

Ans. (c)

42. Techniques of managerial control are useful in:

(a) Selection of plant location

(b) Identifying appropriate technology

(d) Conducting shareholders’ meetings

Ans. (c)

43. Facility location decisions:

(a) Do not affect other capacity decisions

(b) Are intermediate range capacity decisions

(d) All of the above statements are untrue

Ans. (d)

44. Ship building and construction of dams and bridges are typical examples of:

(a) Fixed position layout

(b) Functional layout

(d) Project type layout

Ans. (a)

45. If unit item cost = Rs. 10, monthly carrying charge = 3%, monthly demand = 100 units and ordering cost = Rs.20 per order, the EOQ is:

(a) 11.45

(b) 400

(d) 33.3

Ans. (c)

46. PERT/CPM network analysis can be used for:

(a) Projection appraisal

(b) Project Implementation

(d) All of the above

Ans. (a)

47 Where ‘r’ is equal to zero the regression lines cut each other making an angle of:

(a) 450?

(b) 60?

(d) None of these

Ans. (d)

48. In a moderately asymmetrical distribution

(a) A. M > G.M > H.M

(b) A.M <>

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

49. National Housing is a controlled enterprise of:

(a) NABARD

(b) UTI

(d) LIC of India

Ans. (c)

50. Corporate tax is imposed by:

(a) State Government

(b) Local Government

(d) Both (a) and (c)

Ans. (c)

UGC NET Management 2008 solved paper

1. Data collection terminals gather data for use by the:
(a) Inventory subsystem
(b) Cost subsystem
(c) Production subsystem
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

2. Average inventory level is educed by:
(a) Decreasing the vender lead time
(b) Increasing the usage rate
(c) Decreasing the order quantity
(d) Lowering the reorder point
Ans. (c)

3. Below are given four different theories:
(1) Trait approach
(ii) Attitude criterion
(iii) Behaviour approach
(iv) Situational approach
These are identified with:
(a) Administrative behaviour
(b) Organizational behaviour
(c) Leadership index
(d) Administrative approaches
Ans. (c)

4. The manager of inventory would most likely be found in the:
(a) Finance function
(b) Marketing function
(c) Manufacturing function
(d) Information system function
Ans. (c)

5. Focus on Social Environment is related to:
(a) Unity of Command
(b) Human Relations
(c) Unity of Direction
(d) Delegation
Ans. (b)

6. Section 16 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 prohibits a person:
(a) To be appointed as director of banking company if he is an undischarged insolvent.
(b) To be appointed as director of banking company if he is not of sound financial position.
(c) To be appointed as director of more than one banking company.
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

7. The funds management subsystem attempts to:
(a) Increase cash input
(b) Decrease cash output
(c) Balance cash inflow with outflow
(d) All of the above
Ans. (c)

8. The democratic leadership style goes with:
(a) Theory X
(b) Theory Y
(c) Theory Z
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

9. This type of information overlay indicates the key people who can accomplish something because they know the ropes.
(a) The decision overlay
(b) The power overlay
(c) The communication overlay
(d) The functional overlay
Ans. (b)

10. Delegation of authority results in:
(a) Avoiding responsibility
(b) Centralization of powers at top level
(c) Costliness of decision
(d) Enabling the managers to distribute their work load
Ans. (d)

11. Taylorism:
1. Viewed man as an adjunct of man.
2. Underestimated the meaning of human motivation.
3. Emphasized only a limited number of physiological variables.
4. Completely neglected the psychological aspects.
Select the correct code from the following:
(a) (l)+(2)
(b) (1)+(2)+(3)
(c) (l)+(3)+(4)
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

12. Which of the following markets is associated with short term funds?
(a) Money market
(b) Capital market
(c) Stock market
(d) Chamber of commerce
Ans. (c)

13. In India, the system of decimal coinage introduced on:
(a) 15th August 1947
(b) 26th January 1950
(c) 1st April 1957
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

14. The most structured marketing problems are likely to be those dealing with:
(a) Product
(b) Promotion
(c) Place
(d) Price
Ans. (b)

15. The manager of inventory would most likely be found in the:
(a) Finance, function
(b) Marketing function
(c) Manufacturing function
(d) Information system function
Ans. (d)

16. One who does too much work is called
(a) A squealer
(b) A rate buster
(b) A chiseller
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

17. Companies are required to hold a meeting every year. What is the meeting called?
(a) Extra ordinary meeting
(b) Statutory meeting
(c) Committee meeting .
(d) Annual general meeting
Ans. (a)

18. The management of a company is vested in the hands of:
(a) Shareholders
(b) Directors
(c) Board of directors elected by shareholders
(d) Creditors
Ans. (c)

19. A popular technique for forecasting is:
(a) Correlation analysis
(b) Regression analysis
(c) Linear programming
(d) Month Carlo
Ans. (b)

20. Which of the following is not a component of the new issue market?
(a) Stock exchange
(b) Unit Trust of India
(c) Financial Institution like IFC, IDBI
(d) LIC
Ans. (d)

21. Bank deposits are money when they are:
(a) Lying with Bank
(b) In circulation
(c) Kept with government
(d) Kept with R.B.I.
Ans. (b)

22. Money is:
(a) Consumer goods
(b) Capital goods
(c) Producer goods
(d) Neither of them
Ans. (d)

23. “Papers on the Science of Administration” is written by:
(a) L. Urwick
(b) Gullick
(c) Both combined
(d) M. P. Follett
Ans. (c)

24. Find the correct answer regarding classical theory of organizations?
(i) It throws focus on human beings as such
(ii) It throws focus not on human beings as such but on the role
(iii) It is normally the dominant set of work relationship.
(iv) All of the above
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) (iv) only
Ans. (b)

25. Full delegation is called:
(a) Alter-ego
(b) Shelter-ego
(c) Ego
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)

26. The Modern Theory is also called the:
(a) System Analysis of Organizations
(b) Human Relations Theory
(b) Mechanistic Theory
(d) Structural Theory
Ans. (a)

27. Sales invoicing is a:
(a) Pre-sales activity
(b) Job of finance department
(c) Post-sales activity
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (a)

28. Managerial decision-making refers to:
(a) Programmed decisions
(b) Unprogrammed decisions
(c) Information system
(d) Operation system
Ans. (b)

29. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Authority can not be delegated, but responsibility can be delegated
(b) Both authority and responsibility can be delegated
(c) Authority ca only be delegated
(d) Responsibility can only be delegated
Ans. (a)

30. Dynamic factors in trade theory refer to change in:
(a) Factor endowments
(b) Technology
(c) Tastes
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

31. The classical theory of organizations manifest following certain features which are:
(i) Impersonality
(ii) Division of work
(iii) Hierarchy
(iv) Efficiency
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), iii and (iv) only
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans. (d)

32. The line agency should not have:
(a) Operating unit
(b) Major substantial purpose
(c) Advisory and co-coordinating functions
(d) Independent staff
Ans. (b)

33. The difference between the line and staff units is:
(a) Marginal
(b) Qualitative
(c) Quantitative
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

34. Oral communication in Organisations are:
(a) Formal communication
(b) Information communication
(c) Discretionary communication
(d) All of the above
Ans. (b)

35. Structure variable is synonymous with:
(a) Task
(b) Relation
(c) Style
(d) Attitude
Ans. (a)

36. Effective supervision is an activity of:
(a) Organization function
(b) Staffing function
(c) Direction function
(d) Control function
Ans. (c)

37. Accent of human relation theory is:
(a) Action-Oriented
(b) Hierarchy-Oriented
(c) Organization-Oriented
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

38. Marketing research does not normally:
(a) Gather environmental information
(b) Provide a continuous source of information
(c) Relate to all aspects of. marketing operations
(d) Describe the current situation
Ans. (b)

39. A periodic report can be used to:
(a) Identify the problem
(b) Evaluate solution
(c) Identify solution
(d) Select solution
Ans. (a)

40. Corporate modeling software can be used for:
(a) Cash planning
(b) Operational budding
(c) Capital budgeting
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

41. The overall goal of Scientific Management is:
(a) Maximization of productivity
(b) Maximization of employment
(c) Higher industrial efficiency
(d) Greater profit to producers
Ans. (c)

42. Statutory meeting is needed for:
(a) All companies
(b) For a private company
(c) For a public company only
(d) For a statutory company only
Ans. (c)

43. Central Monetary Authority of the country is:
(a) Union Finance Ministry
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Central Bank of Direct Taxes
Ans. (b)

44. How many nationalized banks are there in our country?
(a) Nineteen
(b) Twenty two
(c) Fourteen
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

45. It is only implies the transfer of function and not of authority. The reference is to:
(a) Decentralization
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Delegation
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

46. The transfer of functions as well as authority is known as:
(a) Delegation
(b) Devolution
(c) Decentralization
(d) Promotion
Ans. (c)

47. Two-factor theory is related to:
(a) Leadership
(b) Motivation
(c) Communication
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

48. The ERG Theory is related to:
(a) Hertzberg
(b) Maslow
(c) Adam
(d) Alderfer
Ans. (d)

49. For McGregor, leadership condition that provides for security is/are:
(a) Knowledge
(b) Consistent discipline
(c) Atmosphere of approval
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

50. Economic analysis in the content of equity stock valuation is concerned with:
(a) Study of fiscal policies
(b) Study of monsoons
(c) Study of economic policies of the government
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

Tuesday, November 9, 2010

PRATIYOGITA DARPAN NOVEMBER 2010 MAGAZINE

FOR PRATIYOGITA DARPAN NOVEMBER 2010 MAGAZINE CLICK HERE

FACTS ABOUT INDIAN NATIONAL FLAG

Every free nation of the world has its own flag. It is a symbol of a free country. The National Flag of India was designed by Pingali Venkayyaand and adopted in its present form during the meeting of Constituent Assembly held on the 22 July 1947, a few days before India's independence from the British on 15 August, 1947. It served as the national flag of the Dominion of India between 15 August 1947 and 26 January 1950 and that of the Republic of India thereafter. In India, the term "tricolour" refers to the Indian national flag.

The National flag of India is a horizontal tricolor of deep saffron (kesari) at the top, white in the middle and dark green at the bottom in equal proportion. The ratio of width of the flag to its length is two to three. In the centre of the white band is a navy blue wheel which represents the chakra. Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Its diameter approximates to the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.

Evolution of the Tricolour

It is really amazing to see the various changes that our National Flag went through since its first inception. It was discovered or recognised during our national struggle for freedom. The evolution of the Indian National Flag sailed through many vicissitudes to arrive at what it is today. In one way it reflects the political developments in the nation. Some of the historical milestones in the evolution of our National Flag involve the following:

Unofficial flag of India
in 1906

The Berlin committee
flag, first raised by
Bhikaiji Cama in 1907

The flag used during the
Home Rule movement
in 1917

The flag unofficially
adopted in 1921

The flag adopted in 1931.
This flag was also the
battle ensign of the
Indian National Army

The present Tricolour
flag of India

The first national flag in India is said to have been hoisted on August 7, 1906, in the Parsee Bagan Square (Green Park) in Calcutta now Kolkata. The flag was composed of three horizontal strips of red, yellow and green.

The second flag was hoisted in Paris by Madame Cama and her band of exiled revolutionaries in 1907 (according to some inl9OS). This was very similar to the first flag except that the top strip had only one lotus but seven stars denoting the Saptarishi. This flag was also exhibited at a socialist conference in Berlin.

The third flag went up in 1917 when our political struggle had taken a definite turn. Dr. Annie Besant and Lokmanya Tilak hoisted it during the Home rule movement. This flag had five red and four green horizontal strips arranged alternately, with seven stars in the saptarishi configuration super-imposed on them. In the left-hand top corner (the pole end) was the Union Jack. There was also a white crescent and star in one corner.

During the session of the All India Congress Committee which met at Bezwada in 1921 (now Vijayawada) an Andhra youth prepared a flag and took it to Gandhiji. It was made up of two colours-red and green-representing the two major communities i.e. Hindus and Muslims. Gandhiji suggested the addition of a white strip to represent the remaining communities of India and the spinning wheel to symbolise progress of the Nation.

The year 1931 was a landmark in the history of the flag. A resolution was passed adopting a tricolor flag as our national flag. This flag, the forbear of the present one, was saffron, white and green with Mahatma Gandhi's spinning wheel at the center. It was, however, clearly stated that it bore no communal significance and was to be interpreted thus.

On July 22, 1947, the Constituent Assembly adopted it as Free India National Flag. After the advent of Independence, the colours and their significance remained the same. Only the Dharma Charkha of Emperor Asoka was adopted in place of the spinning wheel as the emblem on the flag. Thus, the tricolour flag of the Congress Party eventually became the tricolour flag of Independent India.

Colours of the Flag:

In the national flag of India the top band is of Saffron colour, indicating the strength and courage of the country. The white middle band indicates peace and truth with Dharma Chakra. The last band is green in colour shows the fertility, growth and auspiciousness of the land.

The Chakra:

This Dharma Chakra depicted the "wheel of the law" in the Sarnath Lion Capital made by the 3rd-century BC Mauryan Emperor Ashoka. The chakra intends to show that there is life in movement and death in stagnation.

Flag Code

On 26th January 2002, the Indian flag code was modified and after several years of independence, the citizens of India were finally allowed to hoist the Indian flag over their homes, offices and factories on any day and not just National days as was the case earlier. Now Indians can proudly display the national flag any where and any time, as long as the provisions of the Flag Code are strictly followed to avoid any disrespect to the tricolour. For the sake of convenience, Flag Code of India, 2002, has been divided into three parts. Part I of the Code contains general description of the National Flag. Part II of the Code is devoted to the display of the National Flag by members of public, private organizations, educational institutions, etc. Part III of the Code relates to display of the National Flag by Central and State governments and their organisations and agencies.

There are some rules and regulations upon how to fly the flag, based on the 26 January 2002 legislation. These include the following:

The Do's:

The National Flag may be hoisted in educational institutions (schools, colleges, sports camps, scout camps, etc.) to inspire respect for the Flag. An oath of allegiance has been included in the flag hoisting in schools.
A member of public, a private organization or an educational institution may hoist/display the National Flag on all days and occasions, ceremonial or otherwise consistent with the dignity and honour of the National Flag.
Section 2 of the new code accepts the right of all private citizens to fly the flag on their premises.

The Don'ts

The flag cannot be used for communal gains, drapery, or clothes. As far as possible, it should be flown from sunrise to sunset, irrespective of the weather.
The flag cannot be intentionally allowed to touch the ground or the floor or trail in water. It cannot be draped over the hood, top, and sides or back of vehicles, trains, boats or aircraft.
No other flag or bunting can be placed higher than the flag. Also, no object, including flowers or garlands or emblems can be placed on or above the flag. The tricolour cannot be used as a festoon, rosette or bunting.

Friday, November 5, 2010

DEFENCE EMPLOYMENT NOTICE

Thursday, November 4, 2010

Forthcoming Competitive Exam Dates 2010-11

2010

November
● M.P. PSC Assistant District Public Prosecution Officers Exam. (November 14)
● UCO Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (November 14)
● FCI Assistant Grade III Recruitment Exam. (North Zone) (November 14)
● United Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam. (November 14)
● Narmada Malwa Gramin Bank Officers Scale-I Exam. (November 14)
● Recruitment of Postal Assistant, Sorting Assistant in M.P. Postal Circle (November 14)
● National Talent Search Examination/State Level National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Selection Test 2010-11 (November 21)
● Vanrakshakas Direct Recruitment Exam. in Rajasthan Forest Department (November 21)
● SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10 + 2) Exam., 2010 for Recruitment of Data Entry
● Operator and Lower Division Clerks (November 27-28)
● M.P. School Education Department, Principal Higher Secondary School Recruitment Exam. (November 28)
● United Bank of India Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam. (November 28)
● FCI Assistant Grade III Recruitment Exam. (South Zone) (November 28)
● Punjab National Bank Management Trainees Exam. (November 28)
● U.P. Combined State/Upper Subordinate Service (Mains) Exam., 2009 (November 29–December 14)

December
● Assistant Manager Grade ‘A’ Recruitment Exam. in ‘SEBI’. (December 5)
● Federal Bank Clerks and Probationary Officers Recruitment Exam. (December 5)
● Union Bank of India Customer Relation Executive Recruitment Exam. (December 5)
● SSC Junior Translator/Junior Hindi Translator Exam., 2010 (December 5)
● Special Examination for Recruitment of SIs and ASIs in CPOs, 2010 (December12)
● Hadoti Kshetriya Gramin Bank, Kota Clerk-cum-Cashiers Exam. (December12)
● Vijya Bank Specialist/Generalist Officers Recruitment Exam. (December 12)
● CSIR-UGC Test for JRF and Eligibility for Lectureship (December 2010) (December 19)
● Hadoti Kshetriya Gramin Bank, Kota Officer (Scale-I) Exam. (December 19)
● FCI Assistant Grade III Recruitment Exam. (West Zone) (December 19)
● Rashtriya Military School Common Entrance Test (Class VI) (December 19)
● Bank of Maharashtra Probationary Officers Exam. (December 19)
● UPSC Special Class Railway Apprentices Exam., 2010 (December 19)
● Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Exam. (December 26) (Online Closing Date : 10 November, 2010)
● UGC National Eligibility Test (NET) December 2010. (December 26)
● U.P. Combined Lower Subordinate Service Special Selection (Pre.) Exam., 2008 (December 26)

2011
January
● Indian Bank Probationary Officers Exam. (January 2) (Online Closing Date : 11 November, 2010)
● S.S.C. Stenographer (Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’) Re-examination, 2010. (January 9)
● Oriental Bank of Commerce Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam. (January 9) (Online Closing Date : 24 November, 2010)
● Punjab and Sind Bank Probationary Officers Scale-I Exam. (January 16)
● Clerical Recruitment Exam. in State Bank of India’s Associate Banks (January 16)
● Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Officers Scale-I Exam. (January 23) (Closing Date : 18 November, 2010)
● GATE 2011 Online Exam. (Papers : GG and TF, AE and MN) (January 30)
● Punjab and Sind Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (January 30)
● Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Office Assistants Exam. (January 30) (Closing Date : 18 November, 2010)
● U.P. PCS Review Officer/Assistant Review Officer etc. General Selecion (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (January 30)

February
● Reserve Bank of India Grade ‘B’ Officers Exam. (Closing Date : 15 November, 2010) (February 6)
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. (For Class VI) (February 6)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher Preliminary Exam. (February 11) (Closing Date : 30 January, 2011)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT & Liberarian, Primary Teacher (Pre.) Exam. (February 12) (Closing Date : 30 January, 2011)
● UPSC Combined Defence Service Exam. (I), 2011(February 13)
● GATE 2011 Offline Exam. (Papers : AR, BT, CE, CH, CS, ME, PH and PI, AG, CY, EC, EE, IN, MA, XE, MT and XL (February 13)
● Madhya Pradesh State Services (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (February 20) (Online Closing Date : 15 November, 2010)
● Indian Air Force Airman Recruitment Test (Group ‘X’ Technical Trade) (February)

April
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 8)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT & Librarian, Primary Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 9)

POLITICAL SCIENCE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Leo Strauss : Political philosopher
2. Albert Venn Dicey : Constitutional theorist
3. Harold Lasswell : Communication theorist
4. Samuel Finer : Historian of Government
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) l and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

2. Modernization theorists associate which of the following with political modernization?
1. Equal opportunity to participate in politics and compete for government office.
2. Differentiation and specialization of political functions.
3. Secularization of the political sphere.
4. Formation of a federal system of government.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Concept/Theory) (Scholar)
A. Proletarian internationalism 1. Charles Kindleberger
B. Political realism 2. Hans Morgenthau
C. Complex interdependence 3.V. I. Lenin
D. Hegemonic stability theory 4. Keohane and Nye
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans. (d)

4. ‘Sovereignty is the supreme power over citizens and subjects unrestrained by law.’ This understanding of sovereignty today is restricted in practice by which of the following?
(a) Globalization
(b) Acceptance of the declaration of universal human rights by a majority of the states
(c) Rise of global concerns such as ecology and terrorism
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Theme) (Author)
A. State as a class 1. J. Rousseau, G. Hegel and T. H. Green
B. State as ethical life 2. Machiavelli and T. Hobbes
C. State as power 3. Karl Marx and Lenin
D. Minimal state 4. F. Hayek and R. Nozick
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (b)

6. Consider the following statements:
According to the Liberals, rights
1. curtail the power of the state.
2. enable individuals to attain their best selves.
3. empower individuals against the collective.
4. form the basis of a vibrant civil society
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b)
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

7.In accordance to a growing consensus today, which of the
following freedom should be inclusive of?
1. Absence of certain physical and legal impediments.
2. Presence of certain civil and political liberties.
3. Social provisions of income, education and health.
4. Protection of cultural identity
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a)1, 2, 3 and 4
(b)1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) only l
Ans. (a)

8. Consider the following statements:
1. Liberal democratic tradition views equality primarily as “equality of opportunity” and “equality of conditions”.
2. ‘Equality of conditions” seeks to ensure that equality of results are achieved regardless of natural ability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)

9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(Concept) (Thinker)
(a) Public sphere : Thomas Hobbes
(b) Civil associations : A. de Tocqueville
(c) Social capital : Robert Putnam
(d) Non-government, non-party organizations : Rajni Kothari
Ans. (a)

10.. Which one of the following thinkers defended representative democracy against direct democracy?
(a) J. J. Rousseau
(b) Karl Marx
(c) M. A. Bakunin
(d) J. Madison
Ans. (a)

11. Consider the following statements about conservatism:
1. Conservatism is opposed to revolutionary change.
2. For conservatives, traditions, customs and usages are sources of rights.
3. Conservatives are invariably committed to religious practices.
4. Conservatives are opposed to universal adult franchise.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans.(d)

12. Which one of the following statements is not correct.?
(a) The effects of globalization on the lives of women have. been multiple, contradictory, inclusionary and exclusionary.
(b) The gender question can be meaningfully addressed only by ensuring equality, in the private realm.
(c) A democratic solution to gender question lies with more democracy in social, economic and political fields with a commitment to equality.
(d) Feminist political theory from its inception has demanded special and different treatment for women.
Ans. (d)

13. Consider the following statements with respect to deepening of democracy:
1. A system of representation, with well functioning political parties and interest associations.
2. An electoral system that guarantees free and fair elections as well as universal suffrage.
3. A system of checks and balances based on the separation of powers with independent, judicial and legislative branches.
4. A vibrant civil society as well as a free and independent media.
Which of the above statements are required to deepen the democracy?
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

14. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A ‘night watchman/minimal state’ is one which
(a) ensures law and order
(b) cares for its citizens
(c) protects minimum wages for the workers
(d) safeguards the social and economic rights of citizens
Ans. (a)

15. In which of their works did Karl Marx and F. Engels first expound the principles of materialistic dialectics?
(a) Economic and Philosophical Manuscripts
(b) Communist Manifesto’
(c) On the Jewish Question
(d) German Ideology
Ans. (b)

16. In the critique of the Gotha Programme, what is the reason on which Karl Marx. argues that equal wages cannot be paid to the workers in the immediate aftermath of the working class revolution?
(a) The needs and requirements of workers differ.
(b) The productivity of labour varies and it is unfair to pay the same wages to skilled and unskilled labour.
(c) The demands of primitive capital accumulation does not afford e wages to workers.
(d) Militant sections of the working class who have made enormous sacrifices in making the revolution need to be compensated.
Ans.(a)

17. Which one of the following is not correct?
(a) For N. Machiavelli and I. Hegel, State was based on force
(b) For J. S. Mill and T. H. Green, consent was the basis of the state
(c) In Marx’s view, the state was an instrument of class exploitation
(d) In Gandhian philosophy, the propertied classes should be persuaded to employ their resources and to sub serve common good
Ans.(b)

18. Who, among the following, was an author of one of the major books in the area of Games Theory : The Theory of Games and Economic Behaviour?.
(a) John Nash
(b) Von Neumann and Oskar Morgenstern
(c) Anthony Downs
(d) Jeffrey S. Banks
Ans. (b)

19. Consider the following statements:
1. Dependency theory argues that poverty in the Third World (countries, in the periphery) is on account of their not being integrated into the world system.
2. Idealist theory in International Relations maintains that self-interest cannot be muted in order to build national and international norms of, behaviour that foment peace.
3. Realist theory in International Relations is criticized for under-emphasizing the role of international organizations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 2
(d) 3only
Ans. (b)

21. Which one of the following is not associated with game theory in International Relations?
(a) Rationality of actors
(b) Attempt to maximize gains and minimize losses
(c) Inclination of a state to act on the grounds of morality
(d) Awareness about the. possibility of a ‘free rider’
Ans. (d)

22. To who can the idea of ‘Development as Freedom’ be credited?
(a) J. M. Keynes
(b) M. Gorbachev
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Amartya Sen
Ans. (d)

23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Theme) (Scholar)
A. Principal advocate of utilitarian liberalism 1. Robert Dahl
B. The central figure in the American pluralist theory 2. Jeremy Bentham
C. The major contributor to re-thinking citizenship 3. J. Habermas
D. Undertook a major study on the structural 4. T. H. Marshall
transformation of the public sphere
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (a)

24. Which two political thinkers represent the Institutional Approach to Comparative Politics?
(a) Almond and Coleman
(b) Easton and Dahl
(c) Duvergel and Sartori
(d) Leo Strauss and Dicey
Ans. (c)

25. Consider the following statements:
1. Neo-Liberals argue that an unregulated market is the best way to increase economic growth, which will ultimately benefit everyone.
2. Neo-Liberals suggest that free trade should benefit those with better abilities and merit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

26. Which one of the following political theorists first made the conceptual distinction between negative and positive liberty in criticism of positive liberty?
(a) C. B. McPherson
(b) Isaiah Berlin
(c) Robert Dahl
(d) Sydney Webb
Ans. (b)

27. Who, among the following theorists, is associated with neo-realism in international relations?
(a) Kenneth Waltz
(b) Hans Morgenthau
(c) Reinhold Niebuhr
(d) John Ruggie
Ans. (a)

28. Assertion (A): In his colonial thesis, Lenin argued that there is a close bond between national liberation movements and working class movement world wide.
Reason (R) : Both the working class movement and national movements in the colonies are directed against a common enemy i. e. imperia1ism.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d)A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)

29. Assertion (A) : Rule of law is a pre-condition for a free society.
Reason (R) : When those with wielding power can use force in any way they like, everyone is at the mercy of the rulers.
Codes:
(a) Both A and Rare individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (b)

30. Consider the following statements:
Thomas Hobbes argues that
1. without the state; morality, justice, industry and civilization cannot endure.
2. in the state of nature, everyman has the liberty to use his power as he wants.
3. human nature primarily seeks self preservation, power, glory, riches and honour.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

31. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) For Aristotle, state exists to ensure good life for its members
(b) For Jeremy Bentham, state exists to promote the social and economic welfare of its citizens
(c) For Thomas Hobbes, the primary task of the state is to ensure law and order
(d) For John Locke, the state exists to protect the inalienable rights of its citizens
Ans.(b)

32. J. Rousseau’s concept of general will avows which one of the following?
(a) Parliamentary sovereignty
(b) Popular sovereignty
(c) Sovereignty of the constitution
(d) De jure sovereignty
Ans.(b)

33. Consider the following statements:
The ideal of ‘universal citizenship’ implies that
1. all citizens of a country should be treated alike and granted equal rights.
2. individuals should be considered as citizens of the world.
3. all persons living in a country should he treated as citizens.
4. citizenship rights are given to us by nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 4 only
Ans. (d)

34. Consider the following statements about the UN
Declaration of Human Rights:
1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights does not refer to any social or economic rights
2. The Declaration does not uphold such rights as. right to work, protection against unemployment, just remuneration and right to form trade unions.
3. The Declaration recognizes the rights of indigenous populations.
4. The Declaration grants special status to women.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c)1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)

35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Thinker) (Idea)
A. Karl Marx 1. Justice as fairness
B. Jeremy Bentham 2. From each according to his ability to each according to his needs
C. John Rawls 3. Justice as net aggregate satisfaction
D. Robert Nozick 4. From each as they choose to each as they are chosen
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (d)

36.Which one of the following conditions aptly represents Gandhi’s idea of swaraj?
(a) Self-sufficiency in food grains based on large scale irrigation and applications of fertilizers
(b) Self-sufficient rural economy employing local resources and labour-intensive techniques
(c) An economy where men and women are fully employed in professions requiring technical education
(d) Labour intensive agriculture and a modern urban economy
Ans. (b)

37. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Che Guevara : Bolshevik Revolution
(b) George Lukas : Cuban Revolution
(c) Rosa Luxemburg : German Uprising.
(d) Nikolai Bukharin : Hungarian Revolution
Ans. (a)

38. Consider the following statements:
In early 1920s, Gandhi argued that swaraj is impossible without
1. Khadi
2. Hindu-Muslim unity
3. Abolition of untouchabiity
4. Nai Talim (Basic Education).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2, 3and 4
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (b)

39. Why do contemporary liberals persuaded by John Rawls argue for the primacy of rights Over good?
(a) A majority of the people prefer rights over good.
(b) There are plurality of conceptions of good which people uphold and they have their reasons for the same.
(c) Liberal societies, unlike the traditional, uphold rights.
(d) The universal declaration on human rights prefers right over good.
Ans.(c)

40. Which one of the following is the correct combination related to theoretical defense of the welfare state?
(a) John Locke : Treatise on Government
(b) J. S. Mill : Representative Government
(c) F. Engels : Socialism : Utopian and Scientific
(d) L. T. Hobhouse : Liberalism
Ans. (d)

41. Which one of the following thinkers suggests that right to property is the basis of life and liberties?
(a) Thomas Hobbes
(b) J. Rousseau
(c) J. Locke
(d) J. S. Mill
Ans. (c)

42.Who defined the state as a “human community that (successfully) claims the monopoly of the legitimate use of physical force within a given territory”?
(a) Benito Mussolini
(b) Max Weber
(c) Thomas Hobbes
(d) Nicolo Machiavelli
Ans. (b)

43. Assertion (A) : In the Leviathan, Thomas Hobbes argues that through social contract, a sovereign authority is created to whom every man surrendered his authority of governing himself.
Reason (R) : Men found that they cannot collectively regulate their life as they did in the state of nature.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (c)

44. Consider the following statements on the implications of coalition politics in the states
1. Coalition government have weakened the position and influence of Chief Ministers in the states.
2. Coalition government have virtually weakened bureaucracy in state administration.
3. Coalition government adversely affected political homogeneity of the Council of Ministers.
4. The area of coalition politics expanded the scope of the discretionary powers of the Governors.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

45. Where was the First Asian Relations Conference held?
(a) Manila
(b) Tokyo
(c) New Delhi
(d) Colombo
Ans. (c)

46. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) There is a provision in the Constitution of India for readjustment of allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha upon the completion of each census.
(b) If for a period of 60 days, a member of either- house is absent without permission of the house from all meetings thereof, the house may declare his seat vacant.
(c) The Rajya Sabha approves money bill after it has been passed by the Lok Sabha.
(d) The Attorney-General of India has the right to speak in and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament.
Ans. (c)

47. On the basis of the criterion issued by the Election Commission of India, what is the minimum number of states in which a political party must be recognized to be termed as a ‘National Party’ throughout the whole of India?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans. (b)

48. What was/were the most important demands of the J. P. Movement of 1970s?
1. Land reforms
2. Representation for women in the Parliament
3. Workers’ participation in industry
4. Accountability of power
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
Ans. (a)

49. In which one of the following cases was the doctrine of ‘Prospective Overruling’ adopted by the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab
(b) Keshavananda Bharti vs. State of Kerala
(c) Champakam Dorairajan vs. State of Madras
(d) Kehar Singh vs. Union of India
Ans. (b)

50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Indra Sawheny case 1. Power of Parliament to amend Part III of the
Constitution upheld
B. Minerva Mills case 2. Dynamic scope of Right to Equality
C. Royappa case 3. Reservation for Backward Classes
D. Shankari Prasad case 4. Revival of Judicial Review
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans.(c)

SOCIOLOGY QUESTIONS

Q.1. Who amongst the fo1lowing termed community and association as gerneinschaft and gesellschaft?

(a) F. Tonnies

(b) E. Durkheim

(d) M. Ginsberg

Ans. (a)

Q.2. Consider the following statements:

An association differs for the formal groups in it’s:

1. Goals because of limited involvement.

2. Predominance of impersonal relations.

3. Predominance of personal relations.

4. Greater involvement of its member.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and 2

(b) 2 and3

(d) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. (a)

Q.3.Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Characteristics Features) (Concepts)

A. Ad hoc way of dealing with crisis situations 1. Association

B. Established procedures 2. Community

C. Common goal-oriented fellow travelers 3. Institution

D. Task-oriented rational-legal cooperation 4. Mobilization

5. Organization

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 2 5

(b) 4 5 1 3

(d) 4 3 1 5

Ans. (d)

Q.4.The spread of culture traits from group to group is termed as:

(a) Diffusion

(b) Assimilation

(d) Cultural integration

Ans. (a)

Q.5. Which of the following statements serve as instances of ethnocentric thinking?

1. The Hindus think that Shankarachary is the Jagadguru.

2. L. H. Morgan thinks that contemporary western European society alone has reached the state of civilization.

3. The egalitarian think that all are equal in the eye of god.

4. The traditionalist thinks himself alone to be right person.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

Q.6. Role conflict does not arise when a person is given a role:

(a) which one does not like

(b) which is not conductive to one’s environment

(d) when everybody is free to perform the role of one’s choice

Ans. (c)

Q.7. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Commonality is important in a social group because:

(a) it is related to the purpose or goals of the group

(b) it provides the basis for interaction within the group

(d) of all the above three reasons

Ans. (d)

Q.8.Which one of the following is not the characteristic of a primary group?

(a) Intimacy

(b) Face to face association

(d) Physical proximity

Ans. (c)

Q.9. Which one of the following is most forceful argument in respect of sex role differentiation?

(a) Biology determines sex role differentiation

(b) Culture provide seal on sex role differentiation

(d) Neither biology nor culture determines sex role differentiation

Ans. (b)

Q.10. Which of the following statements are correctly associated with Talcott Parsons concept of social system?

1. Social system means action system.

2. Social system is a sub-system of action system.

3. Social system is made up of actin system.

4. Social system is the system of interactive relationships of two or more individual actions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Ans. (c)

Q.11. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and .2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

Ans. (b)

Q.12. Status over which the individual has absolutely no choice is known as:

(a) ascribed status

(b) master status

(d) key status

Ans. (a)

Q.13. Incompatible expectations lead to:

(a) role squeeze

(b) double role

(d) role mix

Ans.(c)

Q.14. Consider the following:

1. Movement of traits through space and time

2. Diffusion of traits can be traced

3. Diffusion can be direct or indirect

Which of the above are the features of diffusion?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 3

(d) l and 2

Ans. (a)

Q.15. Which among the following is not a functional pre-requisite of a society?

(a) Provision for adequate physiological functioning for members

(b) Replacement of members

(d) A system of distribution

Ans. (c)

Q.16. Which one. of the following statements’ is correct in respect of a society a group?

(a) Society is better organized than a group

(b) A group is better organized than society

(d) Both group and society are disorganized

Ans. (b)

Q.17. Who held the view that group size, homogeneity and physical segregation affect the group, behaviour?

(a) Peter M. Blau

(b) G. C. Homans

(d) Orbert K. Merton

Ans. (b)

Q.18. Which one of the following justifies nation as a group?

(a) Transitory interests and temporary groups

(b) Most inclusive rage of interests and possession of a definite territory

(d) Limited range of interests and definite social organization

Ans. (b)

Q.19. The human groups that entertain a subject belief in their common descent is called ethnic group by:

(a) Karl Marx

(b) Talcott Parsons

(d) R. K. Merton

Ans. (d)

Q.20.Who has propounded the relationship between social solidarity and types of law?

(a) E. Durkheim

(b) M. Weber

(d) R. K. Merton

Ans. (a)

Q.21. Speaking of the rules of behaviour in a society, there are some rules which evolve by unconscious growth, whereas there are other ones which are the byproducts of deliberate creation, which one of he following is a product of deliberation?

(a) Mores

(b) Customs

(d) Folkways

Ans. (c)

Q.22. According to Robert Redfield, which one, of following is not true of the folk societies?

(a) They are small

(b) They are isolated

(d) They are orthodox

Ans. (c)

Q.23. Which one is the correct sequence of the given socio-cultural processes?

(a) Cultural contact/assimilation/accommodation/ conflict

(b) Accommodation assimilation/cultural contact/assimilation

(d) Accommodation/conflict cultural/ contact /assimilation

Ans. (c)

Q.24. Which one of the following best defines the term ‘Kinship’?

(a) The grouping of relatives

(b) The socially recognized relationship

(d) The social recognition and expression of genealogical relationship

Ans. (b)

Q.25. Which one of the following statements is correct?

Cultural relativism:

(a) is a recognition that each cultural is judged in terms of its own

(b) is an argument that different parts of culture are inter-related

(d) means that different cultures are related to each other in terms of some universal elements.

Ans. (a)

Q.26. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Paisacha : form of marriage

(b) Sororate : sub caste

(d) Polyandry : religious custom

Ans. (a)

Q.27. Psycho-analytical theory about social behaviour makes us believes that deviant behaviour is due to:

(a) inequality in physical strength

(b) varying degree of socialization

(d) consider the, following statements

Ans. (b)

Q.28. Consider the following statements:

Marriage is an important social institution because:

1. It is a sacred and permanent bond between husband and wife.

2. It aims at procreation and maintenance of children.

3. It is conductive to sex discipline and social harmony.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b)1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Q.29. Consider the following statements:

1. Auguste Comte theorized that progresses from theological to positive stages.

2. According to Hobhouse, there are five stages of social thought from articulate thought in primitive societies to modem scientific thought in modem society.

3. Marx propounded a theory of natural progress of societies from primitive communism to socialism.

4. Toynbee talked of progress of civilization.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

Q.30. Consider the following:

1. Common property

2. Common residence

3. Common ancestors

4. Flexible authority

Which of the above are included in the major feature of a joint family?

(a) land4

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Q.31. Consider the following:

1. Marital

2. Parental

3. Consanguineal

4. Ritualistic

Which of the above are socially. defined specific relationships in the family?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) l, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Q.32. Henry Maine maintained the view that originally families were:

(a) patriarchal, and Patrilineal

(b) matriarchal and matrilineal

(d) exogamous and unilineal

Ans. (a)

Q.33. The jajmani system is:

(a) a mode of reciprocal service and caste interdependence, widespread in traditional village India

(b) a mode of exclusive service and caste interdependence, widespread in India

(d) a mode of reciprocal service and caste interdependence, widespread in modern India

Ans. (a)

Q.34. The system under which mother’s brother prominent place in kinship usage is known as:

(a) couvade

(b) amitate

(d) teknonymy

Ans. (c)

Q.35. The descendants of a common male ancestor are called:

(a) agnates

(b) cognates

(d) collateral kin

Ans. (b)

Q.36.The residence rule that gives choice to the newlyweds to live with the parents of either the groom or the bride is known as:

(a) Avanculocal

(b) Neolocal

(d) Patrilocal

Ans. (c)

Q.37.Who has introduced the word ‘hierarchy’ in the context of caste’ stratification and assumed Indian society to be hierarchical?

(a) L. Dumont

(b) M. N. Srinivas

(d) F. Bailey

Ans. (a)

Q.38. Life chances are facts. They describe the actual material benefits and opportunities of a group, whether or not the member’s of the group recognized these facts. What kind of inequality does difference in life chances imply?

(a) Objective inequalities

(b) Subjective inequalities

(d) Difference in consumption patterns

Ans. (a)

Q.39. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Concepts) (Proponents)

A. Leisure class 1. E. Durkheim

B. Organic solidarity 2. T. Veblen

C. Post-modernization 3. D. Bell

D. Post-industrialization 4. P. Sorokin

5. Jameson

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 5 4 2

(b) 2 1 5 3

(d) 2 5 4 3

Ans. (b)

Q.40. Marriott has discussed the process of transformation. of a god from the scriptural roster by people of a particular locality into a pragmatic and local sprit under which of the following terms?

(a) Universalisation and parochrialisation

(b) Generalization and universalisation

(d) Particularism and pluralism.

Ans. (a)

Q.41. The broad meaning of Sanskritization is:

(a) Horizontal mobility

(b) Cultural upward mobility

(d) Parochrialisation

Ans. (b)

Q.42. Who among the following said, “Stratification system derives from common values”?

(a) Kingsley Davis

(b) Talcott Parsons

(d) Michael Young

Ans. (b)

Q.43. Max Weber’s approach to the study of social stratification is:

(a) one dimensional

(b) two dimensional

(d) four dimensional

Ans. (c)

Q.44. ‘Celebrity status’ is a high status that accrues from;

(a) high family background

(b) high income

(d) high occupational background

Ans. (d)

Q.45.Social stratum, refers to a number of individuals having a relatively similar

(a) status, role or other culturally relevant set of characteristics

(b) role, position or other economically relevant set of characteristics

(d) status,, rank or other socially relevant set of characteristics

Ans. (d)

Q.46. Social stratification, arising ‘either from the actual functions performed by the persons involved or from the superior power and control of resources possessed

by certain individuals, organizations or both, refers to:

(a) inequality

(b) improper distribution

(d) exploitation

Ans. (a)

Q.47.In this book ‘Social Changes In Modern India? M. N. Srinivas has presented the view that:

(a) caste is absolutely closed

(b) caste is absolutely open

(d) caste is just like class

Ans. (c)

Q.48. An economic class:

(a) is based on styles of life, occupations and social activities

(b) involves’ a particular ethnic or family background and other significant

(d) consists of persons having similar levels of prestige symbols in a society

Ans. (c)

Q.49. The objectively structured economic inequalities in society are explained by Marx in terms of:

(a) status

(b) estate

(d) caste

Ans. (c)

LIC AAO 2009 English Question Paper

Directions(1-5): Each sentence has one or two blanks. Choose the word or set pf words that best com¬pletes the sentence meaningfully.
1. He went to the library to……find that it was closed.
(1) seldom
(2) never
(3) only
(4) solely
2. The ties that bind us together in common activity are so….that they can disappear at any moment.
(1) tentative (2) tenuous (3) consistent (4) restrictive
3. Her reaction to his proposal was….. She rejected it…..
(1) inevitable – vehemently’
(2) subtle – Violently
(3) clever – abruptly
(4) sympathetic – angrily

4. His…. direction~ misled us we did not know which of the two roads to take.
(1) complicated
(2) ambiguous
(3) narrow
(4) fantastic
5. It would be difficult for one so ………. to believe that all men are equal irrespective of caste. race and religion,
(1) emotional
(2) democratic
(3) tntolerant
(4) liberal
Directions (116- 120) : In each of the follwing sentences four words or phrases have been bold. Only one bold part in each sentence is not accepted in standard English. Ident that part and mark its number 1. 2. 3 or 4 as your answer.
6. Gaze for a thing /(1) that are not/ (2) available easily /(3) in the county is a universal phenomenon/ (4).
7. It is foolish to be expecting/Ill one person to be like another / . (2) person for/(3) each individual is born/(4) WIth his characteristics traits.
8. The tendency to believe/(l) that/(2) man is inherently dishonest is something that/(3) will decried/(4).
9. I have not come across/(1) very few people/(2) who/(3) think of thing beyond/(4) their daily work.
10. He managed to board/(l) the run¬ning train/(2) but all his luggages/(3) was/(4) left on the station.
Directions (121-125): Select the pair of words which are related in the same way as the capitalised words are related to each other.
11. SCALES: JUSTICE: :
(1) weights: measures
(2) laws: courts
(3) torch : liberty
(4) launch: peace
12. HOBBLE: WALK: :
(1) gallop: run
(2) stammer: speak
(3) stumble: fall
(4) sniff: smell
13. FRAYED: FABRIC: :
(1) watered: lawn
(2) renovated: building
(3) thawed: ice
(4) worn : nerves
14. YOLK: EGG: :
(1) rind.: melon
(2) nucleus: cell
(3) stalk: com
(4) web : spider
15. BAMBOO: SHOOT: :
(1) bean: sprout
(2) pepper : com
(3) oak: tree
(4) holly: sprig
Directions (l26- 130) : For each of the following capitalized words. four words or phrases are given of which only one is synonymou with the given word. Select the synonym.
16. DEFER
(1) respect
(2). dislike
(3) postpone
(4). disrespect
17. DUBIOUS
(1) clear
(2). undoubtedly
(3) hesitant
(4). pmproper
18. COARSE
(1 Impolite
(2). rough
(3) polished
(4). improper
19. PROXIMI1Y
(1) nearness
(2) aloofness
(3) completely’
(4) nearly
20. ABSTAIN
(1) stay
(2) tempt
(3) refrain
(4) pardon
Directions (131- 135) : Fill in the blanks by selecting appropriate alternative.
21.1 met him only a week…..
(1) back
(2) past
(3) ago
(4) previous
22. Lovely asked me .
(1) why are you angry?
(2) why I am angry?
(3) why I was angry.
(4) why was ‘I angry?
23. Even after repeated warnings. he, …….. to office on time.
(1) never come
(2) never comes
(3) is never coming
(4) have never come
24. He lold his wife that….from Gennany.
(1) he will like to visit France
(2) he was liking to visit France
(3) he would like to visil France
(4) he is liking to Visit France
25. Some people can…..even wilh murder.
(1) get on
(2) get out
(3) get off
(4) get away
Directions (136- 140) : Choose the correct antonym from the choic¬es for each of the following capit¬alised words:
26. INDIFFERENT
(1) curious
(3) alike
(2) varied
(4) uniform
27. DISCREET
(1) wise
(3) prudent
(2) diplomatic
(4) careless
28. OBSOLETE
(1) free
(3) current
(2) . ancient
(4) cultured
29. RATIONAL
(1) sound
(3) judicious
(2) insane
(4) sensible
30. SCEPTICAL
(1) doubtful
(2) convinced
(3) questioning
(4) cynic

Answers:
1. 3
2.2
3.3
4.2
5.3
6.2
7.1
8.4
9.2
10.3
11. 1
12. 2
13. 3
14. 2
15. 4
16. 3
17. 4
18. 2
19. 1
20. 3
21. 1
22. 3
23. 2
24. 3
25. 4
26. 1
27. 4
28. 3
29. 2
30. 2

Friday, October 29, 2010

ESIC LDC EXAM PAPER

(English)

Q. (1-7) Select the one word which is most similar to the given word

Q.1. Abysmal
(1) sickening
(2) gloomy
(3) sad
(4) bottomless

Q.2. Salient
(1) valiant
(2) variant
(3) prudent
(4) prominent

Q.3. Decamp
(1) move
(2) encamp
(3) flee
(4) hide

Q.4. Philanthropist
(1) benefactor
(2) beneficiary
(3) matron
(4) sponsor

Q.5. Exotic
(1) alien
(2) strange
(3) rare
(4) grand

Q.6. Incapacitate
(1) cripple
(2) strengthen
(3) imprison
(4) invent

Q.7. Congregation
(1) concentration
(2) meeting
(3) discussion
(4) judgment

Directions (8 -17): In the following questions. choose the words opposite in meaning to the given word.

Q.8. Suppress
(1) stir up
(2) rouse
(3) urge
(4) incite

Q.9. Loosen
(1) fasten
(2) accelerate
(3) delay
(4) paste

Q.10. Rebellion
(1) forgiveness
(2) retribution
(3) submission
(4) domination

Q.11. Idiosyncrasy
(1) insanity
(2) sanity
(3) generality
(4) singularity

Q.12. Sanguine
(1) diffident
(2) hopeless
(3) cynical
(4) 'morose

Q.13. Sobriety
(1) moderation
(2) drunkenness
(3) dizziness
(4) stupidity

Q.14. Extinct
(1) recent
(2) distinct
(3) alive
(4) ancient

Q.15. Fiendish
(1) diabolical
(2) devilish
(3) angelic
(4) friendly

Q.16. Subsequent
(1) eventual
(2) succeeding
(3) prior
(4) comparative

Q.17. Orthodox
(1) revolutionaxy
(2) heretical
(3) anarchist
(4) generous

Directions (18-27) : In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group. one word is wrongly spelt. Find the· misspelt word.

Q.18. (1) prioratise
(2) picturise
(3) visualise
(4) individualise

Q.19. (1) mendacious
(2) obnoxcious
(3) pernicious
(4) ferocious .

Q.20. (1) pennetrate
(2) irritate
(3) hesitate
(4) perforate

Q.21. (1) passagway
(2) causeway
(3) subway
(4) straightway

Q.22. (1) rapport
(2) support
(3) reppo
(4) purport

Q.23. (1) stationery
(2) 9ictionery
(3) revolutionaxy
(4) voluntary

Q.24. (1) temperature
(2) temperament
(3) tempastuous
(4) temptation

Q.25. (1) whether
(2) weathere
(3) whither
(4) wither

Q.26. (1) legible
(2) communiceble
(3) Incorrigible
(4) eligible

Q.27. (1) audapous
(2) auspicious
(3) caprisious
(4) credulous Directions

(141-150): In the following questions. four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase,

Q.28. Don't worry about the silly row. lt was just a storm in a tea cup .
(1) important matter' dealt with ease
(2) hot tea being served
(3) commotion over a trivial matter

Q.29. The Rajput warriors set their face against the invader.
(1) became enemies
(2) turned away from
(3) faced difficulty
(4) opposed strongly

Q.30. Syria is now currying favor with America.
(1) pleasing
(2) favoring
(3) obliging
(4) ingratiating itself with'

Q.31. Our Principal is not a man to mince matters.
(1) to confuse issues
(2) to say something mildly
(3) to mix everything together
(4) to be very modest

Q.32. We tend to take for granted the conveniences of modern life.
(1) to consider
(2) to admit
(3) to accept readily
(4) to care for

Q.33. The prodigal son was left high and dry by his friends, when he lost all his money.
(1) wounded
(2) alone
(3) depressed
(4) neglected

Q.34. The success of his first novel completely turned his head.
(1) made him vain
(2) made him look back
(3) changed him completely
(4) made him think

Q.35. She turns up her nose at this kind of dress.
(1) despises
(2) loves
(3) sees no harm in
(4) can just tolerate

Q.36. At last the rioters fell back.
(1) fell on the ground
(2) yielded
(3) ran back
(4) turned back

Q.37. The Madagascar Coup attempt ended in a fiasco.
(1) had no effect
(2) was an utter failure
(3) resulted in blood-shed
(4) was a disaster

Q.38-41. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions based on it.

Many organizations are concerned at the sustained increase in food prices, as indicated by recent data releases. Inflation in food articles has remained in double digits for six months in a row and has risen to 20% in the first week of December 2009. It is also apparent that the main driver of inflation is the increase in food prices, as WPI inflation outside the food and food products universe continues to be subdued and in some cases negative. This unprecedented increase in food prices has been caused primarily by supply side factors primarily due to decline in the kharif output. The price increase has been particularly severe in the case of products such as cereals (rice), pulses, vegetables (potatoes) and sugar. “The rise in the price of essential commodities will put pressure on the disposable income of the common people and may restrict the monetary and fiscal space for maneuverability”, said Mr. Chandrajit Banerjee, Director General, CII. CII suggests the some measures to respond to food price inflation. In the Short term, CII strongly feels that the government needs to urgently respond by offloading its stock of grains, which are currently far in excess of the buffer norms. State governments, in particular, need to put in place mechanisms for the widespread distribution of wheat and rice in order to check the shortages.

Q.38. Why state government needs to put its widespread distribution of wheat and rice in place?
1. As the are the main suppliers of main commodities.
2. Lack of communication between state and centre governmenent has led to unprecedented rise in food items.
3. Both 1 and 2 are applicable
4. None of these

Q.39. what has trigerred food items price to never before level?
1. Lack of good rain for two consecutives years
2. Illegal stock piling for food grains
3. Farmers inclination towards other high yield crops
4. None of these

Q.40. What is the true indication of rising food items cost?
a. WPI
b. YoY data
c. Media
d. Cant be determined from the passage

Q.41. The price increase has been particularly severe in the case of products except
1. cereals
2. vegetables
3. sugar
4. dirt products

Wednesday, October 27, 2010

27000 candidates selected as Clerks in SBI

The final results of SBI clerical recruitment were out last week amidst high expectations. According to reports, around 27000 candidates have been shortlisted through the selection process.

More engineers: As per ToI report, the number of candidates selected for clerk posts in SBI clerks recruitment is 27000, while approximately 88000 were called for personal interview held in the months of April/ May 2010.It is mentioned that 4000 engineering graduates, 8200 women & 2000 ex-servicemen are part of this final list of 27,000

The country`s largest public sector bank – State bank of India (SBI) announced recruitment of clerks during November 2009, for which over 35 lakh applied. Although the initial advertisement was made only for 11,000 posts, it seems SBI had to increase that number considering the delay in announcing the results, as more retirements would have taken place during those months.

Trend to continue? This news is no surprise as BE graduates were looking for a more secure jobs, since IT companies – one of the top recruiters of engg. graduates in India had to go slow on hiring last year.

Monday, October 25, 2010

Competitive Examinations Success Plan

Knowledge of previous years' questions is indispensable for channelising your studies in the right direction. Otherwise, you will simply grope in the dark.

The examiner is given a copy of the preceding years' question papers when he is asked to set the question paper for the current year.

If it is important for the examiner, you can appreciate how far more important it should be to you, the examinee.

Luckily, previous years' question papers, whether in solved or unsolved form, can be readily had.

In this respect, Competition Success Review and General Knowledge Today can certainly help you.

Once you have assessed the general scope and background of the subject as a whole, the next course to be followed is to analyse it in the light of the questions that have been asked in the past.

This will show you the important topics which, perhaps, attract a question every year, alternate year, and so on.

In the end, this will help you to determine the importance of topics in the order of priority and to work out a guess paper with reasonable accuracy, based on logical reasoning.

A comprehensive study of the previous years' question papers will give you an idea of the topics that recur.

It will also indicate the priority you should accord to different constituents of the syllabus.

Concentration on the subject of your study is extremely essential to get the maximum benefit in the minimum time.

Since you have drawn a time table, you have to make full use of your time by developing the ability to concentrate while you study your books or notes.

Concentration is not an ability we are born with. It can be easily acquired by some effort on your part. It springs from the emotional drive generated when you have an intense and burning desire to achieve something.

In short, it is related to the interest you have developed in the activity on which you wish to concentrate. The more the interest, the greater becomes your concentration. It comes as a by-product of interest.

Once you are interested in something, you can concentrate on it easily. You have, therefore, to find ways to develop and increase interest in the subject of study. Interest, in turn, is closely related to knowledge.

The greater the knowledge, the deeper becomes the interest. You can also develop and sustain interest through theprocess of motivation. Remind yourself often as to why you must succeed at the competitive examination in which you are appearing.

Think of the gains, power, position, prestige and status. Think of the bright and prosperous future you will have. Use your imagination and visualise the benefits. Whenever your interest slackens, obtain a fresh dose of enthusiasm and interest by thinking about your ultimate goal and by imagining how topping the list in this competitive examination is essential and how it will help you to attain that goal.

Isolation, calm and quiet environment help to build up concentration. Try and minimise the distracting factors. Concentration is also made easier with your time table.

If you plan your day and your week and if you perform each activity at the right time, you will find concentration coming to you automatically. Your plan, your daily programme and the habit of doing each task at its appointed hour will soon extend the time during which you can concentrate.

When you concentrate,you can understand and remember faster and better.

It is important that you remember what you read in order to write the best answers in the competitive examination. A study that leads to no lasting impression on the mind is all wasted.

Memory is, again, principally a question of interest. You will have no difficulty in remembering things which really interest you. You are emotionally involved with them.

Therefore, by various methods discussed here, you must create the necessary interest and involvement in the subjects of your study.

We learn the general rule that the more we know about anything, the more interesting it becomes. The cure for lack of interest is to keep learning more.

As your study develops, your wish to continue it strengthens. Next to interest, your memory depends on understanding.

It is much easier to remember something clearly understood than something which goes over your head. What you understand is easily remembered.

What you don't understand is an intolerable burden on the mind. Finally, concentration itself leads to absorption and retention.

You are likely to remember anything which you have studied with undivided attention or deep concentration.

Word-by-word memorisation is not the right answer, as the material and facts to be remembered are considerable. You should, therefore, remember the points to be covered under each paragraph.

When you think of answering a question, you must know in advance how many pages you are going to write and how many paragraphs are likely to be there.

The length of your answer is conditioned by the time factor and the marks allotted to the question. For the essay-type answers, you must remember the para headings.

In fact, para headings can be selected by you according to the facts you are going to write about in that paragraph.

Then, by arranging the first or second letters of the para headings, you can coin suitable catchwords which could be readily remembered.

For instance, if the first para is "Introduction", the first letter of the catchword can be T. If the title of the second para is "Nationalisation", 'N' becomes the second letter of the catchword.

By this process, you can coin words like "India", etc. In order to ensure that the significance of the catchwords stays in your memory, you must reduce them to writing. Besides, the writing should be repeated as often as possible so that there is no mix-up among many such catchwords you may have coined.

While preparing for a competitive examination you must rigidly follow a time-table. The earlier you begin, the better it is. Start with your difficult subjects first. You can give a total of three months for the entire study.

For intensive study and preparation of guess paper, allot ten days for each subject. Thus, in two months you would have covered all the six subjects. Next, the intensive revision should start.

Now give three days to each subject, which means a total of 18 days. Then the third revision can be done with two days for each subject. Finally, revise each subject before the examination according to the examination schedule.

CURRENT AFFAIRS PREPARATION PLAN

“Current Affairs” and “General Knowledge” cover many topics like from economy to sports or education to politics, or even technology to automobiles. In every second some issues are happening around the world in these sectors, and to accumulate the excerpt of some highlighted news, and memorize it is a good plan to prepare current affairs and GK.

Some Important Tips to Follow:

Read Newspapers regularly

We all know that “Old is Gold”, same thing applies here too. We need to make a habit of reading newspapers regularly. I’ll suggest you to read more than one newspaper. It will be better if you read one newspaper of your mother language, and other of English. Some useful newspapers are “The Times of India”, “The Hindu”, “The Telegraph” etc. You need to start this habit at least 6 months before the actual exam that will help you to get access to all the important events of that period of time.

You need to keep an eye on what’s happening around you in your country and world as well. Trust me guys, you will surely find it interesting after several days. We all know that staying updated is always a good idea, as it will stand you apart from the rest.

Read Magazines thoroughly

This is another great option to prepare the subject we are talking about. There are many leading magazines that focus on current affairs and General Knowledge. You need to buy it from your local magazine seller, and start reading it thoroughly. These magazines beautifully categorize the articles with its genres to make it interesting to read on. Some of the useful magazines are Pratiyogita Darpan andManorma.

Try to read some business magazines and sports magazines too along with a general magazine. This will increase your chances of cracking the competitive exams with ease. Some useful business magazines areBusiness Today, Business Line etc.

Follow News Channels

You will need to follow news channels at least once a day. Now most of the leading news channels are active for 24*7. You need to pick up a suitable time for yourself to watch any favorite news channel of yours. You can watch ABP News, NDTV, Times Now, ET Now, Zee News etc. Try to go through all the breaking and highlighted news, and make it a habit.

I know that watching news channels for long will bore you, so I’ll suggest you to allocate only 30 minutes for it in a whole day. All the leading ones shows the glimpses of all important events of the day quite frequently, so 30 minutes will be enough for you to boost up your current affairs and GK knowledge.

Maintain a Diary

My teacher used to tell me that whenever you learn something try to write it down in your diary, as it will help you to memorize it in a better manner. He is so right, as this method helped me a lot to score good marks in every exam that I appeared for. As I already mentioned before that a lot of events are occurring in the country and around the world, so it is easily understandable that it is not easy to remember everything. It’s always a superb idea to maintain a diary of current events.

You need to update this diary on a daily basis with all the events that you consider as important ones. This diary will become quite useful for the revision part, as it will provide you information about all the important events at a place. You should keep revising the diary frequently, as it will help you to memorize important names, dates, awards etc.

Channelize your Preparation Accordingly

All the competitive exams are not same, as all of them have different pattern, even when it comes to the same topic as ‘Current Affairs’ or ‘GK’. For example for civil services exam, you need to give importance on events of National value. On the other scenario, in matter of bank job exam, the focus should be on the news on banking sectors, and economic and business news.

Thus I’ll suggest you to prepare as per the exams you are appearing for, as channelizing your preparation according to the pattern of the exam will accelerate your chance of getting selected.

Use Internet Resources

“Google, YouTube and Wikipedia are my favorite teachers’; one of my friends told me this once. This is quite true indeed, so you should use all the available online resources to study current affairs and GK for exams. For example this blog is all about “Current Affairs”, so you can check this blog regularly by subscribing to us (check the sidebar for subscription options). You can actively take part some forums that are focusing on current events. The good part is you can follow the websites of all leadingnewspapers online if you don’t have enough time to read newspapers.

Use Social Networking Sites for Good

Believe me or not you can surely use social networking sites to your benefits. Especially to prepare current affairs and General knowledge Facebook, Twitter, LinkedIn and StumbleUpon may help you a lot. You can join some Facebook pages, or follow some twitter accounts that are related to current affairs. You can join our Facebook Page too for this matter, or connect with me at LinkedIn or circle me in Google Plus for all the information on recent happenings to boost up your General Knowledgeability.

Give Priority to your Strength

We usually find difficulties when we try to learn everything at once. In that process basically we study a lot, but remember a little. We need to first select our strength areas for our preparation. Try to givepriority to your strength areas. It may be Sports, economy, Government Affairs or technology. Suppose you are applying for Bank exams, then you should prepare industry related news. Along with that you may pick any 2-3 areas of your strength like sports or technology. You need to prepare these sections to the utmost level. I can assure you that these strategies will help you to score much better in Current Affairs section.

Participate in Online Quizzes

You should participate in some free quizzes that are available online to evaluate yourself. For this matter you can easily access our “Quiz Section”. This will give you proper idea whether you are ready for the big exam day or not. As an added factor it will also provide you confidence i.e. very much essential. You can download Monthly-wise current affairs questions from Here.

ENTRANCE EXAMS

Engineering Entrance Exams

JEE - Joint Entrance Examination
AIEEE - All India Engineering/Pharmacy/Architecture Entrance Examination
PET - Engineering entrance tests of Indian states
MHT-CET - Maharashtra Common Entrance Test for Engineering
GATE - Entrance Exam for M. Tech. colleges in IITs.
KIITEE - Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology Entrance Examination
KEAM - Kerala Engineering Architecture Medical Entrance Examination
NATA - National Aptitude Test in Architecture
GUJCET - Gujarat Common Entrance Test
VITEEE - Vellore Institute of Technology Engineering Entrance Exam
SLIET - Sant Longowal Institute of Engineering and Technology
BITSAT - Birla Institute of Technology and Science
CEE - Combined Entrance Examination
Orissa JEE - Orissa Joint Entrance Exam
JNU-EEE - Jawaharlal Nehru University Engineering Entrance Exam
PTU-CET - Punjab Technical University Combined Entrance Test
NSIT - Netaji Subhas Inst. of Technology

Medical Entrance Exams

All India Pre-Medical/Pre-Dental Entrance Exam
AICEE - All India Common Entrance Examination
PMT - Medical entrance tests of Indian states
MHT-CET - Maharashtra Common Entrance Test for Medical
AFMC - Armed Forces Medical College Entrance Exam
BHU- Banaras Hindu University

Management Entrance Exams

CAT - Common Admission Test
MAT - Management Aptitude Test
RMAT - Rajasthan Management Aptitude Test
SNAP - Symbiosis National Aptitude Test
CWAT - Combine Written Admission Test
XAT - Xavier Admission Test
RMCAAT - Rajasthan Masters of Computer Application Admission Test
PLMECWA PGCET - Pondicherry Linguistic Minority Engg. Colleges Welfare Asso.
TANCET - Tamil Nadu Common Entrance Test
UKSEE - Uttarakhand State Entrance Exam
DCMS -Divine College of Management Studies

Law Entrance Exams

NALSAR - The National Academy of Legal Studies and Research
CLAT - Common Law Admission Test
AMU - Aligarh Muslim University
KLEE - Kerala Law Entrance Exam
NLSIU - National Law School of India University
ILI CAT - Indian Law Institute Common Admission Test
CNLU - Chanakya National Law University
GLC - Government Law College
HNLU - Hidayatullah National Law University
GNLU - Gujrat National Law University
ILS - Indian Law Society
SLS - Symbiosis Law School
TNDALU - Tamil Nadu Dr. Ambedkar Law University
NUALS - National University of Advanced Legal Studies
PULCET - Punjab University Law Common Entrance Test
RMLNLU - Ram Manohar Lohiya National Law University
ALS - Amity Law School
BHU Law - Banaras Hindu University
DU- University of Delhi
KU - Kurukshetra University
NLIU - National Law Institute University Entrance Examination
NUJS - West Bengal National University Of Juridical Sciences
RGNUL - Rajiv Gandhi National University Of Law
OUCL - Osmania University College of Law
JGLS - Jindal Global Law School
AIL - Army Institute of Law
MATS - MATS Law School

Fashion & Technology Entrance Exam

CEED - Common Entrance Exam for Design
NID - National Institute of Design
NIFT - National Institute of Fashion Technology
PAF - Pearl Academy of Fashion Entrance Exam

Art/Drama Entrance Exams

NSD - National School of Drama
FTII - Film and Television Institute Of India
RKFMA - R. K. Films and Media Academy
DAFS - Digital Academy Film School
WWI - Whistling Woods International Institute for Film
ZIMA - Zee Institute Of Media Arts Mumbai
AAFT - Asian Academy Of Film and Television
SRFTI - Satyajit Ray Film and Television Institute
MFI - Mindscreen Film Institute
Srishti School - Srishti School of Art Design and Technology
AJK MCRC - AJK Mass Communication Research Centre
Media Minds - Institute for Film and Video Editing
Mad Arts - Jaspal Bhatti Film School
CRAFT - Center for Research in Art of Film & Television
RFS - Ramanaidu Film School
PAC - Picasso Animation College
AP - Actor Prepares
CFIS - Chennai Film Industrial School
ISMM - International School of Mass Media
KPA - Kerala Press Academy
RTFPA - Rohan Taneja Foundation for Performing Arts
DCSMAT - School of Media And Business
KCCMS - KC College of Management Studies
DFM - Digital Film Making
AIMC - Apeejay Institute of Mass Communication
AIMS - Anhad Institute of Media Studies
JM - Journalism Mentor

SNAP SOLVED PREVIOUS QUESTION PAPERS

SNAP SOLVED PREVIOUS QUESTION PAPERS
SNAP 2009 SOLVED QUESTION PAPER DOWNLOAD PAPER –\|– KEY
SNAP 2008 SOLVED QUESTION PAPER DOWNLOAD PAPER –\|– KEY
SNAP 2007 SOLVED QUESTION PAPER DOWNLOAD
SNAP 2006 SOLVED QUESTION PAPER DOWNLOAD

XAT PREVIOUS QUESTION PAPERS

GENERAL INTEREST ENCYCLOPEDIA’S

Banglapedia
Encyclopædia Britannica
Interpedia
Wikipedia
World Book Encyclopedia
Wikinfo
Biography Encyclopedia’s
MyWikiBiz
Arts, and literature Encyclopedia’s
SIKART
Mathematics Encyclopedia’s
MathWorld
PlanetMath
Music Encyclopedia’s
LyricWiki
MusicBrainz
MusicMight
Science Encyclopedia
Encyclopedia of Earth

	Academics
	• University Grants Commission - www.ugc.ac.in • Central Board Of Secondary Education - www.cbse.nic.in • Delhi University - www.du.ac.in • Jawaharlal Nehru University - www.jnu.ac.in • National Council for Teacher Education - www.ncte-in.org • National Council for Educational Research & Training - www.ncert.nic.in • Ministry of HRD (Education) - www.education.nic.in
	Aviation
	• Directorate General of Civil Aviation - www.dgca.nic.in • IATA training - www.iata.org • Ministry of Civil Aviation - www.civilaviation.nic.in • Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Uran Akademi - www.igrua.gov.in
	Banking
	• Reserve Bank of India - www.rbi.org.in • State Bank of India - www.statebankofindia.com • Panjab National Bank - www.pnbindia.com • Corporation Bank - www.corpbank.com
	Civil - Services
	• Union Public Service Commission - www.upsc.gov.in/ • Staff Selection Commission - ssc.nic.in • Department of Personal & Training - www.dopt.nic.in
	Defence
	• National Defence Academy - www.nda.nic.in • Indian Army - www.indianarmy.nic.in • Join Indian Army - www.joinindianarmy.nic.in • Indian Air Force - www.indianairforce.nic.in • Indian Navy - www.indiannavy.nic.in
	Engineering
	• All India Council of Technical Education - www.aicte.ernet.in • The Institutions of Engineers (India) - http://www.ieindia.org • IIT-Kharagpur - www.iitkgp.ac.in • Bureau of Energy Efficiency - www.bee.gov.in • Distance Education Council for distance education in Engineering - www.dec.ac.in • Joint Entrance Examination (Orissa) - www.jeeorissa.com
	Finance
	• The Institute Of Chartered Accountant – www.icai.org • The Institute Of Company Secretaries of India – www.icsi.edu • National Stock exchange of India - www.nseindia.com • Bombay Stock exchange - www.bseindia.com • Indian Institute of Banking & Finance – www.iibf.org.in • Indian Institute of Statistical Institute - www.isical.ac.in
	Hospitality
	• Incredible India - www.incredibleindia.org • Ministry of Tourism - www.tourisminindia.com
	IT
	• Ministry of IT - www.mit.gov.in • DOEACC - www.doeacc.edu.in • Centre For Development of Advance Computing - www.cdac.in • Indian Institute of Technology Madras - www.iitm.ac.in
	Law
	• Supreme Court of India - www.supremecourtofindia.nic.in • Ministry of Law & Justice - www.lawmin.nic.in • National Commission for Women - www.ncw.nic.in • Central Administrative Tribunal - www.cgat.gov.in
	Library Science
	• Raja Rammohun Roy Library foundation - www.rrrlf.nic.in • National Archives Of India - www.nationalarchives.gov.in
	Management
	• Indian Institute of Management, Calcutta - www.iimcal.ac.in • Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad - www.iimahd.ernet.in
	Media
	• Indian Institute of Mass Commission - www.iimc.nic.in • Publications Division - www.publicationsdivision.nic.in • DoorDarshan - www.ddindia.gov.in/ • Directorate Of Advertising and Visual Publicity - www.davp.nic.in • Press Information Bureau - www.pib.nic.in
	Medicine
	• Ministry of Health & Welfare - www.mohwf.nic.in • Department of Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy (AYUSH) - www.indianmedicine.nic.in • National Aids Control Organisation - www.nacoonline.org • Armed Forces Medical College - www.armedforces.nic.in
	Railways
	• Indian Railways - www.indianrail.gov.in • Indian Railways - www.indianrailways.gov.in • Ministry of Railways - www.railnet.gov.in • IRCON - www.ircon.org • Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation Ltd. - www.irctc.co.in
	Retail
	• Indian Institute of Social Welfare and Business Management, Kolkata - www.iiswbm.edu • CII Institute of Logistics, Chennai - www.ciilogistics.com • Gobind Ballabh Pant University - www.gbpuat.ac.in • Annamalai University - www.annauniv.edu • Indian Institute of Foreign Trade, - www.iift.edu
	Science
	• Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University - www.jntu.ac.in • IIT Bombay - www.iitb.ac.in • Mumbai University - www.mu.ac.in • Indian School of Mines, Dhanbad - www.ismdhanbad.ac.in • CSIR-UGC (NET) - www.csirhrdg.res.in • Indian Council of Medical Research, - www.icmr.nic.in • Birla Institute of Technology, Ranchi - www.bitmesra.ac.in • Madurai Kamaraj University, Madurai - www.mkudde.org • Indian Institute of Technology, Kharagpur - www.iitkgp.ernet.in • Central Institute of Fisheries Nautical and Engineering Training - www.cifnet.nic.in • Bioinformatics Institute of India - www.bioinformaticscentre.org
	Science-IPR/PATENTS
	• Patent Office, Govt of India - www.ipindia.nic.in • Institute of Intellectual Property Studies, Mumbai - www.iips.ac.in • National Law School of India University, Nagarbhavi - www.nls.ac.in • Indian Institute of Information Technology, Allahabad (Deemed University) - www.iiita.ac.in
	Self Entrepreneurship
	• Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute, Kochi - www.cmfri.com • Tata Institute of Social Sciences, Mumbai - www.tiss.edu • Ministry of Labour & Employment (Directorate General of Employment & Training) ADVANCED TRAINING INSTITUTE - http://dget.nic.in/atikanpur
	Pharmacy
	• Academy for Clinical Excellence (ACE) - www.aceindia.org • Institute of Clinical Research (ICRI) - www.icriindia.com • Bombay College of Pharmacy - www.bcpindia.org • Jamia Hamdarad Islamia - www.jmi.ac.in • National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education & Research (NIPER). S.A.S. Nagar, Punjab - www.niper.nic.in • Guru Jambeshwar University, Hisar - www.gju.ernet.in

Paper – I
	1. Elementary Teacher	Download
	2. Master/Mistress	Download
	3. Lecturer	Download
	4. Headmaster	Download
Paper- II
1. Elementary Teacher
	1. Elementary Teacher	Download
2. Master/Mistress
	1. Home Science	Download
	2. Maths	Download
	3. Science & Technology	Download
	4. Social Science	Download
3. Lecturer
	1. Lecturer Chemistry	Download
	2. Lecturer Psychology	Download
	3. Lecturer Political Science	Download
	4. Lecturer Sociology	Download
	5. Lecturer Commerce	Download
	6. Lecturer Physics	Download
	7. Lecturer English	Download
	8. Lecturer Home Science	Download
4. Headmaster
	1. Headmaster	Download

Statistics Phd. Entrance Test Paper	M.A. Panjabi
M.Sc. Microbiology	M.Sc. Forensic Science
M.Sc. Zoology	M.Sc. Genomics
M.Sc. Sustainable Development	B.Lib. & Information Science
M.Sc. Financial Computing	Ph. D. Entrance Test Sociology
M.Sc. Banking & Finance	M.Sc. Statistics
M.A. Economics	M.A. Social Work
M.Sc. Bioinformatics	M.A. Political Science
M.Sc. Biochemistry	M.A. Public Administration
M.Tech.(Microelectronics & VLSI Design)	M.Phil. Public Administration
M.Sc. Electronic Science	M.A. Women’s Studies
M.Tech. Nano Sc. & Technology	M.Sc. Computer Science(S/W)
M.Tech. Applied Geology	M.A. Education
M.Sc. Applied Geology	M.Sc. Physics
M.Sc. Mathematics	M.Sc. Chemistry
M.Sc. Geography	M.Sc. Foods & Nutrition
M.Tech. Applied geophysics	M.Sc. Human Development
M.Com.	M.Sc. Clothing & Textile
M.A.Sanskrit	M.A.Psychology
M.A.English

Subject Code	Subject
00	General Paper on Teaching & Research Aptitude (Paper -I)
01	Economics / Rural Economics /Co-operation / Demography / Development Planning/ Development Studies/Econometrics/ Applied Economics/Development Eco./Business Economics
02	Political Science
03	Philosophy
04	Psychology
05	Sociology
06	History
07	Anthropology
08	Commerce
09	Education
10	Social Work
11	Defence and Strategic Studies
12	Home Science
14	Public Administration
15	Population Studies
16	Music
17	Management (including Business Admn. Mgt./Marketing/ Marketing Mgt./Industrial Relations and Personnel Mgt./ Personnel Mgt./Financial Mgt./Co-operative Management)
18	Maithili
19	Bengali
20	Hindi
21	Kannada
22	Malayalam
23	Oriya
24	Punjabi
25	Sanskrit
26	Tamil
27	Telugu
28	Urdu
29	Arabic
30	English
31	Linguistics
32	Chinese
33	Dogri
34	Nepali
35	Manipuri
36	Assamese
37	Gujarati
38	Marathi
39	French (English Version)
40	Spanish
41	Russian
42	Persian
43	Rajasthani
44	German
45	Japanese
46	Adult Education/ Continuing Education/ Andragogy/ Non Formal Education.
47	Physical Education
49	Arab Culture and Islamic Studies
50	Indian Culture
55	Labour Welfare/Personnel Management/Industrial Relations/ Labour and Social Welfare/Human Resource Management
58	Law
59	Library and Information Science
60	Buddhist, Jaina, Gandhian and Peace Studies
62	Comparative Study of Religions
63	Mass Communication and Journalism
65	Performing Art – Dance/Drama/Theatre
66	Museology & Conservation
67	Archaeology
68	Criminology
70	Tribal and Regional Language/Literature
71	Folk Literature
72	Comparative Literature
73	Sanskrit traditional subjects (including) Jyotisha/Sidhanta Jyotish/ Navya Vyakarna/ Vyakarna/ Mimansa/ Navya Nyaya/ Sankhya Yoga/ Tulanatmaka Darsan/ Shukla Yajurveda/ Madhav Vedant/ Dharmasasta/ Sahitya/ Puranotihasa /Agama).
74	Women Studies
79	Visual Art (including Drawing & Painting/Sculpture Graphics/Applied Art/History of Art)
80	Geography
81	Social Medicine & Community Health
82	Forensic Science
83	Pali
84	Kashmiri
85	Konkani
87	Computer Science and Applications
88	Electronic Science
89	Environmental Sciences
90	Politics including International Relations/International Studies including Defence/Strategic Studies, West Asian Studies, South East Asian Studies, African Studies, South Asian Studies, Soviet Studies, American Studies.
91	Prakrit
92	Human Rights and Duties
93	Tourism Administration and Management.

Pages

Thursday, November 18, 2010

Tuesday, November 9, 2010

Evolution of the Tricolour

Colours of the Flag:

The Chakra:

Flag Code

The Do's:

The Don'ts

Friday, November 5, 2010

Thursday, November 4, 2010

Saturday, October 30, 2010

Friday, October 29, 2010

(English)

Wednesday, October 27, 2010

Monday, October 25, 2010

CURRENT AFFAIRS PREPARATION PLAN

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