Wednesday, December 22, 2010

Postal Assistant/Sorting Assistant Recruitment Exam., 2010


Postal Assistant/Sorting Assistant Recruitment Exam., 2010

Solved Paper
(Exam Held On 25-7-2010)

1. Jatak stories are written in ancient …… language.
(A) Sanskrit
(B) Brahmi
(C) Greek
(D) Pali
Ans : (D)

2. Who among the following is the Head of Indian Republic ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President
Ans : (B)

3. On which of the following dates was the Indian Constitution approved by the Constituent Assembly ?
(A) November 26, 1949
(B) January 26, 1950
(C) August 15, 1947
(D) January 30, 1948
Ans : (A)

4. Which countries take part in Commonwealth games ?
(A) All the countries of the world
(B) The countries which had been under British rule
(C) Countries of Asian-Pacific region
(D) Developing nations
Ans : (B)

5. Vishwanathan Anand is associated with which of the following games ?
(A) Snooker
(B) Billiards
(C) Chess
(D) Ice-Hockey
Ans : (C)


6. What is the full form of ‘http’ ?
(A) Hypo Test Transfer Protocol
(B) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(C) Hyper Test Transfer Proxy
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. The following generates and spreads polio—
(A) Parasite
(B) Bacteria
(C) Virus
(D) Protozoa
Ans : (C)

8. Naphthoquinone is the chemical name of which of the following ?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin K
(D) Vitamin D
Ans : (C)

9. Who is honoured as the best Member of Parliament of 2009 ?
(A) Hema Malini
(B) Jaipal Reddy
(C) M. M. Joshi
(D) Manmohan Singh
Ans : (C)

10. According to some archaeologists, the structure of Lothal indicates to be which of the following ?
(A) Fort
(B) Dockyard
(C) Public building
(D) Great tank
Ans : (B)

11. Consultants of liquefied petroleum gas are—
(A) Butane and Propane
(B) Ethane and Hexane
(C) Ethane and Nonane
(D) Butane and Nonane
Ans : (A)

12. What is the name of the hobby of collecting postal stamps ?
(A) Philanthrophy
(B) Numismatics
(C) Philately
(D) Philology
Ans : (C)

13. Symbolic sign of rupees is the combination of Roman and …… scripts.
(A) Devnagari
(B) Tamil
(C) Telugu
(D) Gurumukhi
Ans : (A)

14. Who was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize, 2009 ?
(A) Barack Obama
(B) Bil Clinton
(C) Mekhyl Gorbachev
(D) Nicolus Sarkozy
Ans : (A)

15. ‘Rajtarangini’ is considered as an authentic book on history of India. The author of this book was—
(A) Banbhatta
(B) Ravikirti
(C) Pushpadanta
(D) Kalhan
Ans : (D)

16. Twitter, facebook and orkut are the examples of …… websites.
(A) E-mail
(B) Social networking
(C) Search engine
(D) Internet telephony
Ans : (B)

17. H1N1 virus causes which of the following diseases ?
(A) Swine flue
(B) Chikungunia
(C) Dengue
(D) Avian flue
Ans : (A)

18. Biological pigment, that gives colour to human skin, is called—
(A) Protein
(B) Melanin
(C) Vitamin
(D) Toxin
Ans : (B)

19. Which of the following dances belongs originally to Kerala ?
(A) Odissi
(B) Kathak
(C) Kuchipudi
(D) Kathkali
Ans : (D)

20. Nathu-La is located in Himalayas. What does ‘La’ mean ?
(A) Glacier
(B) Pass
(C) Hillock
(D) Crevasse
Ans : (B)

21. My school is situated in east side of my home. My father’s office is located in south-west side of my school. There is a park in south side of my school. My house is located in which side of the park ?
(A) East
(B) North-west
(C) South-east
(D) South
Ans : (B)

22. Which of the following is an odd one ?
(A) Calf
(B) Colt
(C) Cat
(D) Puppy
Ans : (C)

23. Father’s age is five times to that of the son. After 20 years, the father is of 40 years. Then what would be the age of the son ?
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 21
(D) 24
Ans : (D)

24. An examine had to score 40% to pass in question paper-I, but he scored only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What had been the maximum marks for question paper-I ?
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 150
(D) 180
Ans : (C)

25. Six times of an unknown number is 13 less than 55. That unknown number would be—
(A) 10
(B) 7
(C) 11
(D) 5
Ans : (B)

26. A shopkeeper of sports goods bought 2000 hockey sticks. The cost price of each stick is Rs. 350. 10% of the sticks were faulty and not worth-selling. To gain 8% profit, at what price should, each of the rest sticks, be sold ?
(A) 360
(B) 400
(C) 420
(D) 450
Ans : (C)

27. Population of a colony of ants is increasing by 20% per day. If the population on Monday was 3000, on which day of that week the population would be 5184 ?
(A) Wednesday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Friday
Ans : (C)

28. Three racers, Ajay, Bharat and Charan, took part in a race, Ajay completed his race, 20 metres ahead of Bharat and 34 metres ahead of Charan, while Bharat completed his race 21 metres ahead of Charan. While running, no racer could change his speed. What was the distance of race ?
(A) 40 metre
(B) 50 metre
(C) 60 metre
(D) 70 metre
Ans : (C)

29. 20 persons assemble 8 machines in a day. How many persons will be required to assemble 12 machines in a day ?
(A) 40
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 42
Ans : (C)

30. Length and circumference o f a football ground are 120 metres and 400 metres, respectively. What will be its area ?
(A) 6500 sq metre
(B) 9600 sq metre
(C) 6800 sq metre
(D) 4800 sq metre
Ans : (B)

31. At the close of a night feast, all the 8 participants shook hands with each other. How many times did the shake hand took place ?
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 28
(D) 64
Ans : (C)

32. Out of given options, choose the correct one—
BDFH, CBID, DZLZ, EXOV, ……
(A) FVRS
(B) FVQR
(C) FVRR
(D) FVSR
Ans : (C)

33. Fill up the blank—
8, 40, 20, 100, 50, ……, 125
(A) 225
(B) 250
(C) 200
(D) 150
Ans : (B)

34. If the digits of the number 86435192 are written in ascending order, what would be the difference between the second digit from right and fourth digit from left of the new number ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 3
Ans : (C)

35. Out of these four numbers, three have similar characteristic and fall under a group. Choose this fourth odd number which is not a member of this group—
(A) 145
(B) 325
(C) 257
(D) 399
Ans : (D)

36. In a code language SECTOR is written as CESROT. How will OPPOSITION be written in the same code language ?
(A) SOPPONOITI
(B) NOITISOPPO
(C) SOPOPNOITI
(D) SOPPONOTIT
Ans : (A)

37. If it was Friday on June 30, 1989, what was the day on September 17, 1993 ?
(A) Wednesday
(B) Thursday
(C) Friday
(D) Saturday
Ans : (B)

38. Complete the series—
18, 27, 6, 9, 2, 3, ?
(A) 1
(B) 2/3
(C) 1/3
(D) 1/2
Ans : (B)

39. A train of 350 metres long is running at a speed of 32 km/hr. A man from the opposite direction is coming at a speed of 3 km/hr. How long will the train take to cross this man ?
(A) 28 sec
(B) 24 sec
(C) 36 sec
(D) 32 sec
Ans : (C)

40. 0•45 / 0•005 + 0•2 50 = ?
(A) 10
(B) 90
(C) 100
(D) 90•1
Ans : (C)

41. “A speech delivered without any previous preparation” can be expressed in one word only out of the following—
(A) Extempore
(B) Maiden
(C) Spinster
(D) Empiric
Ans : (A)

42. The garden is very dry today. Fetch me a …… of water.
(A) pale
(B) pail
(C) pile
(D) pill
Ans : (B)

43. Please, may I have……oranges ?
(A) a few
(B) some
(C) little
(D) less
Ans : (B)

44. Delhi is …… than Nagpur.
(A) more bigger
(B) so bigger
(C) very bigger
(D) much bigger
Ans : (D)

45. Use proper conjunction in the sentence given below—
“Give me……poverty……riches.”
(A) is/was
(B) nor/neither
(C) neither/nor
(D) here/there
Ans : (C)

46. We need to……our appointment.
(A) reconnect
(B) reschedule
(C) reorganize
(D) regret
Ans : (B)

47. SCEPTICAL is exactly opposite to—
(A) Convinced
(B) Doubtful
(C) Questioning
(D) Cynic
Ans : (A)

48. Choose the wrongly spelt word—
(A) Relevent
(B) Poignant
(C) Prevalent
(D) Malignant
Ans : (A)

49. A person who hates the institution of marriage—
(A) Misologist
(B) Misogamist
(C) Misogynist
(D) Philogynist
Ans : (C)

50. We have been friends for ages. I …… her since we were children.
(A) am knowing
(B) are known
(C) have known
(D) is known
Ans : (C)

Tuesday, December 21, 2010

LIC Assistant Administrative Officers Exam., 2009 Solved Paper



English Language
(Held on 7-6-2009)

Directions—(Q. 1–5) Each sentence has one or two blanks. Choose the word or set of words that best completes the sentence meaningfully.

1. He went to the library ……… to find that it was closed.
(A) seldom
(B) never
(C) only
(D) solely
Ans : (C)

2. The ties that bind us together in common activity are so ………that they can disappear at any moment.
(A) tentative
(B) tenuous
(C) consistent
(D) restrictive
Ans : (B)

3. Her reaction to his proposal was ………. She rejected it ……….
(A) inevitable–vehemently
(B) subtle–violently
(C) clever–abruptly
(D) sympathetic–angrily
Ans : (A)


4. His ……… directions misled us we did not know which of the two roads to take.
(A) complicated
(B) ambiguous
(C) narrow
(D) fantastic
Ans : (B)

5. It would be difficult for one so ……… to believe that all men are equal irrespective of caste, race and religion.
(A) emotional
(B) democratic
(C) intolerant
(D) liberal
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 6–10) In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been bold. Only one bold part in each sentence is not accepted in standard English. Identify that part and mark its letter (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your as answer.

6. Gaze for a thing (A) that are not (B) available easily (C) in the country is a universal phenomenon. (D)
Ans : (B)

7. It is foolish to be expecting (A) one person to be like another (B) person, for (C) each individual is born (D) with his characteristics traits.
Ans : (A)

8. The tendency to believe (A) that (B) man is inherently dishonest is something (C) that will be decried. (D)
Ans : (D)

9. I have not come across very (A) few (B) people who (C) think of thing beyond (D) their daily work.
Ans : (B)

10. He managed to board (A) the running train (B) but all his luggages (C) was (D) left on the station.
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Select the pair of words which are related in the same way as the capitalised words are related to each other.

11. SCALES : JUSTICE : :
(A) Weights : Measures
(B) Laws : Courts
(C) Torch : Liberty
(D) Launch : Peace
Ans : (C)

12. HOBBLE : WALK : :
(A) Gallop : Run
(B) Stammer : Speak
(C) Stumble : Fall
(D) Sniff : Smell
Ans : (B)

13. FRAYED : FABRIC : :
(A) Watered : Lawn
(B) Renovated : Building
(C) Thawed : Ice
(D) Worn : Nerves
Ans : (D)

14. YOLK : EGG : :
(A) Rind : Melon
(B) Nucleus : Cell
(C) Stalk : Corn
(D) Web : Spider
Ans : (B)

15. BAMBOO : SHOOT : :
(A) Bean : Sprout
(B) Pepper : Corn
(C) Oak : Tree
(D) Holly : Sprig
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) For each of the following capitalized words, four words or phrases are given of which only one is synonymous with the given word. Select the synonym.

16. DEFER
(A) Respect
(B) Dislike
(C) Postpone
(D) Disrespect
Ans : (C)

17. DUBIOUS
(A) Clear
(B) Undoubtedly
(C) Hesitant
(D) Doubtful
Ans : (D)

18. COARSE
(A) Impolite
(B) Rough
(C) Polished
(D) Improper
Ans : (B)

19. PROXIMITY
(A) Nearness
(B) Aloofness
(C) Completely
(D) Nearly
Ans : (A)

20. ABSTAIN
(A) Stay
(B) Tempt
(C) Refrain
(D) Pardon
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Fill in blanks by selecting appropriate alternative.

21. I met him only a week ……….
(A) back
(B) past
(C) ago
(D) previous
Ans : (C)

22. Lovey asked me ……….
(A) why are you angry ?
(B) why I am angry ?
(C) why I was angry ?
(D) why was I angry ?
Ans : (C)

23. Even after repeated warnings, he ……… to office on time.
(A) never come
(B) never comes
(C) is never coming
(D) have never come
Ans : (B)

24. He told his wife that ……… from Germany.
(A) he will like to visit France
(B) he was liking to visit France
(C) he would like to visit France
(D) he is liking to visit France
Ans : (C)

25. Some people can ……… even with murder.
(A) get on
(B) get out
(C) get off
(D) get away
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Choose the correct antonym from the choises for each of the following capitalised words—

26. INDIFFERENT
(A) Curious
(B) Varied
(C) Alike
(D) Uniform
Ans : (A)

27. DISCREET
(A) Wise
(B) Diplomatic
(C) Prudent
(D) Careless
Ans : (D)

28. OBSOLETE
(A) Free
(B) Ancient
(C) Current
(D) Cultured
Ans : (C)

29. RATIONAL
(A) Sound
(B) Insane
(C) Judicious
(D) Sensible
Ans : (B)

30. SCEPTICAL
(A) Doubtful
(B) Convinced
(C) Questioning
(D) Cinic
Ans : (B)

LIC Assistant Administrative Officers Exam., 2009 Solved Paper

Reasoning Ability
(Exam Held on 07-06-2009)

Directions—(Q. 1–5) The President of a club is appointing nine officials A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I to serve on three committees to study three different aspects of activities of the club. There will be a Games Committee, a Food Service Committee and an Entertainment Committee. The appointments must respect the following—
>> Each committee must have exactly three members.
>> No person can serve on more than one committee.
>> H must serve on the Entertainment Committee.
>> C and D must serve on the same committee.
>> A and B cannot serve on the same committee.
>> E cannot serve on the same committee as I.
>> F must serve on the same committee as B or H or both B and H.

1. If B and G serve on the Games Committee, which of the following must serve on the Food Service Committee ?
(A) A
(B) D
(C) E
(D) F
Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following groups could constitute the Games Committee ?
(A) A, B, E
(B) A, D, G
(C) C, H, E
(D) F, I, B
Ans : (D)

3. If A is assigned to the Food Service Committee and C is appointed to Entertainment Committee, then which of the following must be true ?
1. G is appointed to the Food Service Committee.
2. E is appointed to the Games Committee.
3. I is appointed to the Entertainment Committee.
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
Ans : (A)


4. If F serves on the Food Service Committee and C serves on the same committee as H, then which of the following must serve on the Games Committee ?
1. A 2. G 3. I
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
Ans : (C)

5. If I is on the Entertainment Committee and B is on the Food Service Committee, then which of the following must be true ?
(A) F is on the Entertainment Committee
(B) C is on the Games Committee
(C) G is on the Food Service Committee
(D) F is on the Games Committee
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 6–10) Letters of certain words have been rearranged and the jumbled spellings have been given below. Out of the choices given below each question, choose the last letter of the correct word—

6. AYDOT
(A) A
(B) D
(C) T
(D) Y
Ans : (D)

7. ILCEOP
(A) C
(B) E
(C) L
(D) O
Ans : (B)

8. CAPCET
(A) A
(B) C
(C) P
(D) T
Ans : (D)

9. VISERL
(A) E
(B) L
(C) R
(D) S
Ans : (C)

10. ERVSECI
(A) E
(B) I
(C) R
(D) S
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Find out the correct answer out of the four alternatives given below each question and then mark it in your answer sheet.

11. Ice : Coolness : : Earth : ?
(A) Forest
(B) Weight
(C) Gravitation
(D) Ocean
Ans : (C)

12. Coconut : Shell : : Letter : ?
(A) Mail
(B) Letter-box
(C) Stamp
(D) Envelope
Ans : (D)

13. Income is related to profit in the same way as expenditure is related to—
(A) Loss
(B) Surplus
(C) Balance
(D) Sale
Ans : (A)

14. Much is related to many in the same way as measure is related to—
(A) Calculate
(B) Count
(C) Weigh
(D) Measurement
Ans : (B)

15. Clue is related to Mystery in the same way as warning is related to—
(A) Precaution
(B) Disaster
(C) Risk
(D) Danger
Ans : (D)

16. Find the oddman out—
(A) MOndAy
(B) tUESdAy
(C) WEdNESdAy
(D) thUrSdAy
Ans : (B)

17. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) CUSTOMER : SGPSYYBK
(B) INTEREST : UUHVJYUQ
(C) OVERSEAS : TCHWWKCW
(D) BANKING : HPLOSGI
Ans : (B)

18. Three of the following four have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?
(A) PROFIT : RPQCKR
(B) OTHERS : QRJCTQ
(C) LEGUME : NCISOC
(D) CANKER : EYPIGP
Ans : (A)

19. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
(A) GWOURV
(B) LZKMSU
(C) JOEHNP
(D) SFXPMG
Ans : (D)

20. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
(A) IW
(B) MS
(C) FT
(D) JU
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Find out the missing term in the following letternumber series—

21. H 4 W, I 18 V, K 48 T, N 100 Q, ?, W 294 H
(A) P 1485 S
(B) R 180 M
(C) S 198 I
(D) T 206 K
Ans : (B)

22. 1 ED, 2 FD, 3 KH, ?, 15 KG, 48 KF
(A) 12 PX
(B) 6 RI
(C) 9 LV
(D) 8 TQ
Ans : (B)

23. M 4, T 7, P 7, Q 10, S 10, N 13, ?, K 16
(A) V 4
(B) K 7
(C) T 13
(D) G 15
Ans : (C)

24. R 5 P, T 6 M, V 9 J, X 15 G, ?
(A) A 12 L
(B) I 18 X
(C) Z 25 D
(D) U 20 Q
Ans : (C)

25. DGK 0, GKP 3, ?, PVC 15
(A) GKV 5
(B) KPV 8
(C) PVZ 9
(D) KPU 11
Ans : (B)

26. If the first 6 letters of the English Alphabet series are written in reversed order, then the next 6 letters are written in reversed order and so on, and at the end Y is interchanged by Z, then which letter is fourth letter to the right of 13th letter from the left ?
(A) M
(B) N
(C) Q
(D) P
Ans : (B)

27. If the English Alphabet series is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting from Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the Alphabet series ?
(A) L
(B) O
(C) M
(D) N
Ans : (D)

28. If the letters in each of the following five groups of letters are first rearranged in the alphabetical order and then the groups of letters so formed are rearranged as in a dictionary, which letter group would have its group of letters in the MIDDLE among the five letter-groups ?
MEET, DEAF, ROAD, CODE, LACK
(A) LACK
(B) MEET
(C) ROAD
(D) DEAF
Ans : (C)

29. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
(A) HKNGSW
(B) EIMQVZ
(C) SUXADF
(D) RVZDHL
Ans : (D)

30. Select the series in which the letters skipped in between adjacent letters do not decrease in order—
(A) MGVFK
(B) PJXHM
(C) EQZFI
(D) GWIQU
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) These questions are based on code language which utilizes letters in the English Alphabet. In each question, there is a word written in capital letters, with one letter underlined. For each letter in that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (A), (B), (C), or (D), not in the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The letter of the that code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word(s) may be coded differently.

31. D U E L
(A) g
(B) i
(C) p
(D) j
Ans : (C)

32. P I T Y
(A) g
(B) b
(C) r
(D) k
Ans : (B)

33. R I N G
(A) it
(B) rk
(C) mp
(D) ti
Ans : (A)

34. G O A L
(A) c
(B) q
(C) e
(D) j
Ans : (C)

35. S L A P
(A) dx
(B) ms
(C) vp
(D) io
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Study the following arrangements carefully and answer the questions given below—
Series I. MNLqd fuw2UFOKP6hs (14) SHV 7gc8RIE(13)xtk
Series II. azj14GJBopir5v9TQY(10) emn(11) DACby(12)xWZ

36. How many capital letters are in Series I and in Series II each of which is either followed by or preceded by the same positioned capital letter of English alphabet from the other end ?
(A) 4, 3
(B) 6, 2
(C) 8, 1
(D) 10, 0
Ans : (A)

37. If the positions of the first twelve elements of Series I are reversed, and similarly the positions of the last twelve elements of Series II are reversed, then the third element to the right of the seventh element from the left end of Series I will be ……, whereas the third element to the left of the seventh element from the right end of Series II will be ……
(A) L, x
(B) j, x
(C) U, (11)
(D) x, L
Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following pairs of elements shows the elements of Series I and Series II respectively, which are exactly in the middle of the seventh element from the left end and the sixth element from the right end in Series I and II ?
(A) hy
(B) Hy
(C) sQ
(D) Sq
Ans : (C)

39. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above series. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) azj
(B) emb
(C) qdf
(D) xtk
Ans : (B)

40. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangements, each of which is immediately preceded by a digit and immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41– 44) In the following coded arithmetic equations certain symbols are used with the following meaning—
I. P @ Q means add P to Q;
II. P & Q means subtract Q from P;
III. P # Q means multiply P with Q; and
IV. P $ Q means divide P by Q.
Now study the given information and answer the question following it—
Three persons A, B and C complete a work in 20 days. B and C together are 4/3 times as efficient as A and B together. On the other hand A and C together are 5/4 times as efficient as B and C together.

41. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A alone can finish the same work ?
(A) 24 # 20 $ (24 & 20)
(B) 30 # 20 & (30 @ 20)
(C) 30 # 20 $ (30 & 20)
(D) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
Ans : (C)

42. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which B and C together can finish the same work ?
(A) 24 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
(C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(D) 30 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
Ans : (D)

43. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and B working together can finish the same work ?
(A) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(B) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
(C) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
Ans : (B)

44. Which of the following equations represents the number of days in which A and C working together can finish the same work ?
(A) 40 # 20 $ (40 & 20)
(B) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 5
(C) 20 # (3 @ 3) $ 4
(D) 20 # (12 & 6) $ 3
Ans : (B)

45. A travel towards East. B travels towards North. C and D travel in opposite directions. D travels towards right of A. Which of the following is definitely true ?
(A) B and C travel in opposite directions
(B) C travels towards West
(C) D travels towards North
(D) B and C travel in the same direction
Ans : (D)

46. A cow runs 20 metres towards East and turns to right, runs 10 metres and turns to right, runs 9 metres and again turns to left, runs 5 metres and then turns to left, runs 12 metres and finally turns to left and runs 6 metres. Now which direction is the cow facing ?
(A) North
(B) East
(C) South
(D) West
Ans : (A)

47. A boy started walking positioning his back towards the sun. After sometimes, he turned left, then turned right and then towards the left again. In which direction is he going now ?
(A) East or West
(B) North or West
(C) South or West
(D) North or South
Ans : (D)

48. If Thursday was the day after the day before yesterday five days ago, what is the least number of days ago when Sunday was three days before the day after tomorrow ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (D)

49. In a row of boys facing North, a boy is thirteen from the left. When shifted to his right by three places, he becomes seventeenth from right end of the row. How many boys are there in the row ?
(A) 32
(B) 31
(C) 33
(D) 30
Ans : (A)

50. 136 vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car there is one scooter. After the second car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three scooters and so on. Work out the number of scooters in the second half of the row—
(A) 61
(B) 62
(C) 63
(D) 64
Ans : (C)

51. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group ?
(A) 7
(B) 9
(C) 17
(D) 33
Ans : (B)

52. Choose the odd numeral pair in the following—
(A) 140 – 45
(B) 120 – 35
(C) 110 – 35
(D) 80 – 25
Ans : (B)

53. Choose that set of numbers from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given set—
Given set — (246, 257, 358)
(A) (145, 235, 325)
(B) (143, 253, 246)
(C) (273, 365, 367)
(D) (233, 343, 345)
Ans : (A)

54. Choose the one which is different from the rest—
(A) 248
(B) 326
(C) 392
(D) 414
Ans : (C)

55. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 156
(B) 152
(C) 72
(D) 42
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 56–60) In each question below, is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Give answer—
(A) If only assumption I is implicit;
(B) If only assumption II is implicit;
(C) If neither I nor II is implicit; and
(D) If both I and II are implicit.

56. Statement—To achieve economic development, people should work hard.
Assumptions :
I. Achieving economic development is desirable.
II. Working hard is not impossible.
Ans : (D)

57. Statement—He is too industrious to be poor.
Assumptions :I. Very industrious people also can be poor.
II. Very lazy people also can be rich.
Ans : (C)

58. Statement—Visitors may use lift at their own risk.
Assumptions :I. Using lift is not always safe.
II. Visitors do not want to use lift.
Ans : (A)

59. Statement—This book is so designed that even a layman can easily learn science in the absence of a teacher.
Assumptions :I. Learning science by everybody is desirable.
II. A layman generally finds it difficult to learn science on his own.
Ans : (B)

60. Statement—Although the rates of this hotel are comparable with other hotels, the amenities provided here are far superior.
Assumptions :I. Rates are independent of amenities provided.
II. Rates are dependent on amenities provided.
Ans : (C)

LIC AAO GENERAL KNOWLEDGE MODEL PAPER

1. Permanent Settlement in Bengal and Bihar was introduced by:

(1) Cornwallis

(2) Minto

(3) Warren Hastings

(4) We1lesley

Ans. (1)

2. The first split of Indian National Congress took place in 1907 at

(1) Bombay Session

(2) Calcutta. Session

(3) Lahore Session

(4) Surat Session

Ans. (4)

3. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I (Newspaper) List-II (Person who started it)

A. Bombay Chronicle 1. Annie Besant

B. Commonweal 2. Madan Mohan Malaviya

C. Leader 3. Feroz Shah Mehata

D. Searchlight 4. Sachchidanand Sinha.

Code:

A B C D

(1) 1 3 2

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 3 1 2 4

(4) 4 2 1 3

Ans. (3)

4. The ‘Khalsa Panth’ was established by:

(1) Guru Arjun

(2) Guru Gobind Singh

(3) Guru Nanak

(4) Guru Teg Bahadur

Ans. (2)

5. Gandhiji started his first Satyagrah against:

(1) British attack on Turkey

(2) Government of India Act 1935

(3) Payment of low wages to workers

(4) Rowlatt Act

Ans. (3)

6. Swaraj Party was formed by:

(1) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahatma Gandhi

(2) Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai

(3) C. R. Das and Moti Lal Nehru

(4) Sardar Patel and Rajendra Prasad

Ans. (3)

7. The evergreen rain forests are found in:

(1) Australia

(2) Brazil

(3) Canada

(4) France

Ans. (2)

8. When the duration of the day and the night is equal, the rays of the Sun fall directly

on:

(1) North Pole

(2) Equator

(3) South Pole

(4) Tropic of Cancer

Ans. (2)

9. Water of which one of the following seas is most saline?

(1) Baltic Sea

(2) Black Sea

(3) Dead Sea

(4) Red Sear

Ans. (3)

10. Where was the first power plant established in the world?

(1) Britain

(2) Germany

(3) Russia

(4) U.S.A.

Ans. (4)

11. The Vice President of India is elected by:

(1) The People

(2) The Electoral College which elects the President

(3) The members of both the Houses of Parliament

(4) The State legislatures

Ans. (3)

12. The provisions relating to fundamental duties in the Constitution of India was added on the recommendation of:

(1) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(2) Iyengar Committee

(3) Swaran Singh Committee

(4) Thakkar Commission

Ans. (3)

13. In accordance with the Table of Precedence (Government of India), select the correct sequence in the decreasing order of precedence:

(1) Chief Justice of India— Chief Election Commissioner—Chief Ministers of States within their respective States—Governors of States within their respective States

(2) Governors of States within their respective States— Chief Justice of India-Chief

Minister of States within their respective State Chief Election Commissioner

(3) Governors of States within their respective States— Chief Ministers of States within their respective State—Chief Justice of India—Chief Election Commissioner

(4) Chief1Justice of India— Governors of States within their respective States— Chief Election Commissioner—Chief Ministers of States within their respective States

Ans. (4)

14. Hypo, used in photography is chemically

(1) sodium bicarbonate

(2) sodium cyanate

(3) sodium nitrate

(4) sodium thiosulphate

Ans. (4)

15. Which one of the following groups of crops is grown In India during the Rabi season? (1) Wheat, barley, gram

(2) Rice, maize, wheat

(3) Barley, maize, rice

(4) Millet, gram. Rice

Ans. (1)

16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

List-I (Minerals) List-II (Major producer)

A. Mineral Oil 1. Zambia

B. Copper 2. Guyana

C. Manganese 3. Venezuela

D. Bauxite 4. Gabon

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 1 4 2

(2) 3 1 2 4

(3) 1 3 2 4

(4) 1 3 4 2

Ans. (3)

17. The part of the human brain that retains memory is the:

(1) hypothalamus

(2) cerebellum

(3) cerebral cortex

(4) brainstem

Ans. (3)

18. Consider the following statements about the mega cities of India:

1. Population of each mega city is more than 5 million.

2. All the mega cities are important sea ports.

3. Mega cities are either national or state capitals.

Which of these statements are correct?

(1) 1, 2 and 3

(2) 1 and 2

(3) 2 and 3

(4) 1 and 3

Ans. (4)

19. Match List-I with List -II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list:

List-I (Publisher) List-II (Publication)

A. Ministry of Industry 1. Report of Currency and Finance

B. Central Statistical Organization 2. Economic Survey

C. Reserve Bank of India 3. Wholesale Price Index

D. Ministry of Finance 4. National Accounts Statistics

Code:

A B C D

(1) 4 3 2 1

(2) 3 4 1 2

(3) 4 3 1 2

(4) 3 4 2 1

Ans. (2)

20. Consider the following statements regarding environmental issues of India:

1. Gulf of Mannar is one of the biosphere reserves.

2. The Ganga Action Plan, phase II has been merged with the National River

Conservation Plan.

3. The National Museum of Natural History at New Delhi imparts non-formal

education in environment and conservation.

4. Environmental information System (E.N.V.I.S.) acts as a decentralized information network for environmental information.

Which of these statements are correct?

(1) l, 2 and 4

(2) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(3) 2 and 2

(4) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. (2)

21. From which part of the cinchona plant is quinine extracted?

(1) Bark of the stem

(2) Flower

(3) Fruit

(4) Leaf

Ans. (1)

22. Molasses is an excellent raw material for:

(1) Acetic acid

(2) Glycerin

(3) Power alcohol

(4) Urea

Ans. (1)

23. The correct sequence in decreasing order of the four sugarcane producing States in India is:

(1) Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.

(2) U. P, Maharashtra, Tami Nadu, Andhra Pradesh.

(3) Maharashtra, U. P, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu

(4) U. P, Maharashtra. Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu

Ans. (2)

24. Tehri Dam being constructed in Uttranchal is on the river:

(1) Alaknanda and Mandakini

(2) Bhagirathi and Bhahlangana

(3) Bhaghathi and Alaknanda

(4) Yamuna and Ganga

Ans. (2)

25. Which of the following are more numerous in the district of Dehradun?

(1) Bhotias

(2) Buksas

(3) Janissaries.

(4) Tharus

Ans. (3)

26. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for Implementing International treaties

(1) with the consent of all the States

(2) with the consent of the majority of States

(3) with the consent of the States concerned

(4) without the consent of any State

Ans. (4)

27. In an open economy, the national income (Y) of the economy is:

(C, I, G, X, M stand for Consumption, Investment, Govt. Expenditure, total Exports and total Imports respectively).

(1) Y = C + I + G + X.

(2) Y = C + I + G— X + M

(3) Y = C + I + G + (X – M)

(4) Y = C + I – G + X – M

Ans. (3)

28. The first woman to climb Mount Everest was:

(1) Marie Jose Perec

(2) Florence Griffith Joyner

(3) Junko Tabei

(4) Jackie Joyner Kersee

Ans. (3)

29. The largest contribution to the export earnings of India comes from the export of:

(1) Agricultural products

(2) Gems and Jewellery

(3) Machinery

(4) Textiles and ready-made garments

Ans. (4)

30. The oldest large scale industry of India is

(1) Cotton textiles

(2) Iron and steel

(3) Jute

(4) Paper

Ans. (1)

31. The World Trade Organization came into being in

(1) 1990

(2) 1995

(3) 1998

(4) 2000

Ans. (1)

32. Self sustained growth was adopted as an objective for the first time In Indla’Iñ the:

(1) Third Five Year Plan

(2) Fourth Five Year Plan

(3) Fifth five Year Plan

(4) Sixth Five Year Plan

Ans. (2)

33. Match List-I (Oceanic Trench) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Oceanic Trench) List-II (Location)

A. Aleutian 1. Indian Ocean

B. Kermadec 2. North Pacific Ocean

C. Sunda 3. South Pacific Ocean

D. S. Sandwich 4. South Atlantic Ocean

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 1 3

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 1 3 2 4

(4) 1 4 2 3

Ans. (2)

34. Which one of the following gases is used by plants in photosynthesis?

(1) Ammonia

(2) Carbon dioxide

(3) Chlorine

(4) Sulphur dioxide

Ans. (2)

35. Pascal is a unit of measuring:

(1) Humidity

(2) Pressure

(3) Rainfall

(4) Temperature

Ans. (2)

36. Which among the following grains has maximum protein content?

(1) Cowpea

(2) Lentil

(3) Pigeon pea

(4) Soybean

Ans. (4)

37. “Ranikhet disease” is related to:

(1) Chicken

(2) Cows

(3) Goats

(4) Horse

Ans. (1)

38. With reference to the blood in a normal person, which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) Compared to arteries, veins are less numerous and hold less of the body’s blood at any given time

(2) Blood cells constitute about 70 percent of the total volume of the blood

(3) White Blood Cells (W. Bc.) are made by lymph nodes only

(4) The blood has more platelets than W.Bc.

Ans. (4)

39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Institute) List-II (Location)

A. Central Institute of Higher Tibetan Studies 1. Hyderabad

B. Indira Gandhi Institute of Development Research 2. Mumbai

C. National. Institute of Mental Health and Neuro-sciences 3. Bangalore

D. Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages 4. Dharamshala

5. Varanasi

Code:

A B C D

(1) 5 3 4 1

(2) 5 2 3 1

(3) 3 2 4 5

(4) 4 5 1 2

Ans. (4)

40. Match List-I (Saint-poets) with List-II (Language of their Compositions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Saint-poets) List-II (Language of their Compositions)

A. Mirabai 1. Malayalam

B. Tyagaraja 2. Bengali

C. Chandidas 3. Hindi

D. Purandardasa 4. Telugu

5. Kannada

Code:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 1 5

(2) 3 4 2 5

(3) 2 5 1 4

(4) 3 5 2 4

Ans. (4)

41. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing order of molecular weight of the hydrocarbons?

(1) Methane, ethane, propane and butane

(2) Propane, butane, ethane and methane

(3) Butane, ethane, propane and methane

(4) Butane, propane. ethane and methane

Ans. (1)

42. Which organelles in the Cell, other than nucleus, contains D.N.A.?

(1) Centriole

(2) Golgi apparatus

(3) Lysosome

(4) Mitochondria

Ans. (4)

43. Brass is an alloy of:

(1) Aluminum and Copper

(2) Copper and Tin

(3) Copper and Zinc

(4) Zinc and Iron

Ans. (3)

44. Tear gas is:

(1) Ammonia

(2) Chlorine

(3) Hydrogen Carbide

(4) Hydrogen Sulphide

Ans. (1)

45. 1 kg/cm2 pressure is equivalent to

(1) 0.1 bar

(2) 1.0 bar

(3) 10.0 bar

(4) 100.00 bar

Ans. (2)

46 Match the two list- I and list- II with regard to bird sanctuaries in Uttar Pradesh and

find the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I

A. Nawabgànj bird sanctuary

B. Ohkla bird sanctuary

C. Samaspur bird sanctuary

D. Parvati Aranga birds sanctuary

List-II

1. Gonda

2. Unnao

3. Ghaziabad

4. Rae Bareli

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 3 1

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 4 3 1 2

(4) 3 4 2 1

Ans. (2)

47. India’s population’s growth during the 20th century can be classified into four distinct phases. Match list –I (Period) with List-II (Phase) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Period) List-II (Phase)

A. 1901 – 1921 1. Steady growth

B. 1921 – 1951 2. Rapid high growth

C. 1951 – 1981 3. Stagnant growth

D. 1981 – 2001 4. High growth with definite signs of slowdown

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 3 1 4 2

(2) 1 3 2 4

(3) 3 1 2 4

(4) 1 3 4 2

Ans. (3)

48. Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

(1) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India

(2) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Fund and Public Accounts

(3) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss account

(4) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer

Ans. (3)

49. “Metastasis” is the process by which:

(1) cells divide rapidly under the influence of drugs

(2) cancer cells spread through the blood or lymphatic system to other sites or organs

(3) the chromosomes in cell nuclear are attached to the spindle before moving to the anaphase poles

(4) cancer cells are successfully inhibited to divide any further

Ans. (2)

50. The Balkan Plan for fragmentation of India was the brain child of:

(1) W. Churchill

(2) M. Jinnah

(3) Lord Mountbatten

(4) V. P. Menon

Ans. (3)

Monday, December 13, 2010

C-SAT Sample Exam Paper

Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability

1. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters AMRE using each letter only once in each word ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

2. How many such digits are there in the number 42519673 each of which is as far away from the beginning in the number as when the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

3. In a certain code MODERN is written as 5% 38#@ and WIN is written as 6©@. How is RIDE written in that code ?
(a) #©38
(b) #@38
(c) #©83
(d) ©@38
(e) None of these

4. What should come next in the following number series ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6 7 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 9
(d) 7
(e) None of these

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(a) Sodium
(b) Chlorine
(c) Magnesium
(d) Nitrogen
(e) Glucose

6. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BAROMETER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(a) Radish
(b) Carrot
(c) Garlic
(d) Gourd
(e) Ginger

8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(a) 39
(b) 69
(c) 57
(d) 129
(e) 117

9. In a certain code HEALING is written as BRFIKHOJ. How is BEDTIME written in that code ?
(a) EFCSJNF
(b) EFCSFNJ
(c) EFCUFNS
(d) CFESFNJ
(e) None of these

10. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eleventh letters of the word STAKEHOLDER, which of the following will be the third letter of that word? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
(a) T
(b) R
(c) E
(d) X
(e) Y

Directions (Q. 11-15) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer (a) : If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
Give answer (b) : If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (c) : If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
Give answer (d) : if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question
Give answer (e) : If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

11. What does ‘Pe’ mean in a code language ?
I. ‘Na Si La Lo’ means ‘you may go now’ and ‘Ne Si Na Pe’ means ‘he may go there’ in that code language.
II. ‘Ki Se Pe Bo’ means ‘come there and See’ and ‘Se Ni Bo Ki’ means ‘come here and see’ in that code language.

12. What is Keshav’s rank in a class of 50 ?
I. Amit, ranking 18th in the class from the top, is 7 ranks below Vivek, who is 5 Ranks above Keshav.
II. Saurav, the 10th from the bottom, is 20 ranks below Suresh, who is 5 ranks below Keshav.

13. How is Ram related to Nitin ?
I. Revati, Nitin’s Mother, is cousin of Sukesh, the uncle of Ram.
II. Pravin, Ram’s father-in-law, is the grandfather of Sachin, the nephew of Nitin.

14. Who among M, N, O, P and Q is the youngest ?
I. N, the 2nd youngest, is younger than Q, O and M.
II. O, the 2nd oldest, is older than N.

15. Who among P,Q, R, S and T is the shortest ?
I. R, though not the shortest, is shorter than only Q.
II. S, though not as tall as P, is not the shortest.

Directions (Q. 16-20) : In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

16. Statements : Some desks are mirrors. Some mirrors are combs. Some combs are pins.
Conclusions :

I. Some pins are desks.
II. Some combs are desks.
III. Some pins are mirrors.
IV. Some pins are either desks or mirrors.
(a) None follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only I follows
(d) Only IV follows
(e) Only III follows

17. Statements : All blades are hammers. All hammers are rods. All rods are buckets.
Conclusions :
I. Some buckets are hammers.
II. Some rods are blades.
III. All hammers are buckets.
IV. All blades are rods.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Only I, II and III follow
(d) Only II, III and IV follow
(e) All follow

18. Statements : All trees are chairs. No chair is flower. Some flowers are bangles.
Conclusions :

I. No tree is bangle.
II. No chair is bangle.
III. Some flowers are trees.
IV. Some bangles are trees.
(a) None follows
(b) Only either I or IV follows
(c) Only either II or III follows
(d) Only I and II follow
(e) Only III and IV follow

19. Statements : All rocks are balls. Some balls are rings. All rings are stones.
Conclusions :
I. Some stones are rocks.
II. Some rings are rocks.
III. Some balls are rocks.
IV. No stone is rocks.
(a) Only I and III follow
(b) Only III and IV follows
(c) Only either I or IV and III follow
(d) Only either I or IV follows
(e) None of these

20. Statements : All books are papers. All pencils are papers. All tables are papers.
Conclusions :
I. Some books are pencils.
II. Some pencils are tables.
III. Some tables are books.
IV. Some papers are tables.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only III follows
(c) Only III follows (d) Only IV follows
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 21-25) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :
M4PA3%R#EJ2$DF1UHB@9TWI8KN6©V7ZQ

21. If all the symbols in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the seventeenth from the left end ?
(a) 1
(b) F
(c) 9
(d) B
(e) None of these

22. Which of the following is the eighth to the right of the twentieth from the right end of the above arrangement ?
(a) T
(b) %
(c) 2
(d) 6
(e) None of these

23. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by another consonant ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(a) R#J
(b) 9BW
(c) PM3
(d) 6VK
(e) 2DU

25. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol ?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

Directions (Q. 26-30) : In the following questions, the symbols @,©,%, $ and ¬ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P *Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P©Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P$Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P%Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

26. Statements : R @ V, V $J, J* K
Conclusions :
I. K % R
II. J @ R
III. K % V
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Only I and II are true
(d) Only III is true
(e) None of these

27. Statements : D % H, H @ V, V $ W
Conclusion :
I. H % W
II. D % V
III. D % W
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Only III is true
(d) All are true
(e) None of these

28. Statements : M $ T, T * J, J © N
Conclusions :
I. N % M
II. J % M
III. M $ N
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Only I and II are true
(d) All are true
(e) None of these

29. Statements : N $ R, R © D, D*K
Conclusions :
I. K % R
II. D % R
III. D @ R
(a) Only either II or III and I are true
(b) Only either II or III is true
(c) Only III is true
(d) All are true
(e) None of these

30. Statements : F © K, K % M, M ©T
Conclusion :
I. T*K II. F % M
III. T*F
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Only I and II are true
(d) Only II and III are true
(e) All are true

Directions ( Q. 31-35) : In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/ Symbols numbered 1,2,3 and 4 You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the digit/symbol code of each letter and the conditions those follow and mark your answer accordingly. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters mark answer (e) i.e. none of these
Letter : M K A D E T R J I W U B F H Q
Digit/symbol Code :
7 % $ 6 5 8 1 9 2 @ # © * 3 4
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as the code for the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, the codes for the first and the last letters are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the third letter is a vowel it is to be coded as ‘S’.

31. WHIMTD
(a) @3d786
(b) @32786
(c) 63273@
(d) @3278@
(d) None of these

32. WEMKUD
(a) @5d %#6
(b) @d7%#6
(c) 657%#@
(d) @57%#@
(e) None of these

34. KMDFHE
(a) %76*35
(b) 576*35
(c) 576*3%
(d) %76*3%
(e) None of these

35. QTRUJE
(a) 48d#95
(b) 481#95
(c) 581#94
(d) 581#95
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 36-40) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Z are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. R is third to the right of Z, who is second to the right of P.S is not an immediate neighbour of Z and R.T is third to the left of S. Q is third to the right of W, who is not an immediate neighbour of S.

36. Which of the pairs of persons are the immediate neighbours of P ?
(a) VQ
(b) VW
(c) VS
(d) SR
(e) None of these

37. What is Q’s position with respect to Z ?
(a) Fourth to the right
(b) Fourth to the left
(c) Third to the right
(a) Only (A)
(b) Only (B)
(c) Only (C)
(d) Either (A) or (B)
(e) None of these

38. Who is second to the right of T ?
(a) Z
(b) Q
(c) W
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

39. In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting on the immediate left of the first person ?
(a) RT
(b) TW
(c) QR
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 41-45): In Making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between “strong” arguments and “weak” arguments. “Strong” arguments must be both important and directly related to the questions. “Weak” arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the questions.

Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a “Strong” arguments and which is a “weak” argument.

41. Should smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol by the actors be completely banned in the movies in India ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, this will significantly reduce the trend of smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol among the youth in India.
II. No, there should be no such ban on the creative pursuits of the filmmaker.
III. No, the films portray the society and hence such scenes should be an integral part of the movie if the story line demands so.
(a) None is strong
(b) Only I and II are strong
(c) Only II and III are strong
(d) Only I and III are strong
(e) All are strong

42. Should sale of vital human organs be made legal in India ?
Arguments :
I No, it goes against our culture.
II No, this will lead to unhealthy practices.
III Yes, this will bring an end to the illegal trading of human organs.
(a) None is strong
(b) Only I and II are strong
(c) Only III is strong
(d) Only II and III are strong
(e) All are strong

43. Should the conscription of citizens for defence services be made compulsory in India ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, this is the only way to tackle the serious shortage of manpower in defence services.
II. No, instead the compensation package be made comparable to other job sectors to attract people to join defence services.
III. Yes, many other countries have made this compulsory.
(a) Only I is strong
(b) Only II is strong
(c) Only I and II are strong
(d) Only either I or II is strong
(e) None of these

44. Should the salary and perquisites of public sector undertaking employees be made equivalent to those in the private sector ?
Arguments :
I Yes, this will help the public sector under takings to attract and retain competent workforce.
II No, public sector undertakings cannot afford to pay salaries to the level of private sector.
III Yes, otherwise the public sector undertakings will not be able to compete with the private sector organisations.
(a) None is strong
(b) Only III is strong
(c) Only I is strong
(d) Only II is strong
(e) Only I and III are strong

45. Should there be a complete ban on registration of new cars for a few months in the big cities in India.
Arguments :
I. Yes, this will significantly reduce the number of cars on the already overcrowded roads of the big cities in India.
II Yes, the existing car owners will be very happy as they will face less traffic snarls in peak hours.
III No, this is highly discriminatory against those who decide to buy cars now and hence should not be enforced.
(a) Only I strong
(b) Only and III are strong
(c) Only III is strong
(d) All are strong
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 46-50) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : Word 32 73 verb 26 new desk 19
Step I : 73 word 32 verb 26 new desk 19
Step II : 73 desk word 32 verb 26 new desk 19
Step III : 73 desk 32 word verb 26 new 19
Step IV : 73 desk 32 new word verb 2619
Step V : 73 desk 32 new 26 word verb 19
Step VI : 73 desk 32 new 26 verb word 19
Step VII : 73 desk 32 new 26 verb 19 word and Step VII is the last step of the
above input. As per the rules followed in the above
steps, find out in each of the following questions
the appropriate step for the given input.

46. Step II of an input is : 51 brown 22 36 49 cloud sky red. How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
(e) None of these

47. Step III of an input is : 58 dine 43 18 tower silver mat 24,
(a) 58 dine 43 mat 24 silver 18 tower
(b) 58 dine 43 mat 24 18 tower silver
(c) 58 dine 43 mat 18 tower silver 24
(d) there will be no such step.
(e) None of these

48. Input : 85 23 96 case over for 42 win.
How many steps will be required to complete the re-arrangement ?

(a) Four
(b) Seven
(c) Five
(d) Six
(e) None of these

49. Step IV of an input is : 63 car 51 eyes 25 36 store lane. Which of the following is definitely the input ?
(a) eyes car 25 63 36 51 store lane
(b) eyes 25 car 63 51 36 store lane
(c) eyes car 51 63 36 Store lane
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these

50. Input : field eyes 94 32 house rent 49 27 Which of the following steps will be the last but one ?
(a) VI
(b) V
(c) VII
(d) VIII
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 51-55) : In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action in regard to the problem policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow (s) for pursuing.
Give answer (a) : If only I follows.
Give answer (b) : If only II follows.
Give answer (c) : If either I or II follows.
Give answer (d) : If neither I nor II follows.
Give answer (e) : If both I and II follow.

51. Statement : There has been a spurt of robbery and house breaking incidents in one locality during the past fortnight.
Courses of action :
I The local police station personnel should start patrolling the locality at regular intervals.
II The residents in the locality should be asked by the police authority not to leave their houses during the night.

52. Statement : Money has become more important than the game itself in the case of India cricket.
Courses of action :
I Govt. should put a cap on the earnings from different sources of the Indian cricket board.
II Govt. should cap on the earnings from different sources of Indian cricket players.

53. Statement : Very large numbers of people from northern part of the city are suffering from water-borne diseases.
Courses of action :
I The municipal authority should advise people living in the area not to use water supplied through pipeline for drinking purpose.
II The local hospitals should be put on high alert to tackle the emerging crisis situation.

54. Statement : The quality of foodgrains being distributed in some parts of the country through Public Distribution System is very poor and not fit for human consumption.
Courses of action :
I The entire stock of foodgrains should immediately be withdrawn from the distribution system.
II People should be advised to return the food grains purchased from the system and take their money back.

55. Statement : A large number of people gathered on the high way, blocking the traffic movement to protest the killing of five locals by a speeding vehicle.
Courses of action :
I The police should fire teargas shells to disperse the crowd.
II The police authority should calm down the sentiment of the crowd, assuring action against the culprit and deploy police personnel at the spot.

Directions (Q. 56-60) : In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operation of numbers progresses from left to right. Rules :
(i) If and odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be multiplied.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number, they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is a perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number,
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the second one is to be subtracted from the first one.

56. 58 17 5      85 5 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row what is the resultant of the second raw?
(a) 225
(b) 32
(c) 49
(d) 4
(e) None of these
57. 24 64 15      m 11 15
If m is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(a) 165
(b) 75
(c) 20
(d) 3
(e) None of these
58. 7 21 3      d 7 33

If d is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row?
(a) 40
(b) 138
(c) 231
(d) 80
(e) None of these

59. 73 34 13      32 P 15

If P is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row?
(a) 713
(b) 50
(c) 20
(d) 525
(e) None of these

60. 14 5 9      24 w 88

If w is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row?
(a) 171
(b) 283
(c) 195
(d) 165
(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 61-65) : Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each in inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth of falsity.
Mark answer (a) : If the inference is “definitely true”, i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
Mark answer (b) : If the inference is “probably true’ though not definitely true” in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (c) : If the “data are inadequate”, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
Mark answer (d) : If the inference is “probably false” though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (e) : If the inference is definitely false”, i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
In an era of globalisation we need to find appropriate tools to confront the challenges facing agriculture. Commodity futures market can play a major role in addressing some of these challenges. In order to improve agricultural productivity, we need to encourage private investment including that from individual farmers, and reasonable returns for agri produce is a prerequisite for this. The price appreciation in agri commodities has failed to match the increase in price of inputs or the price rise of other commodities, indicating deterioration terms of trade for agriculture. Our spot markets are fragmented and, being dominated by a large chain of intermediaries, can hardly ensure a fair return for the farmers. Spot transactions, being mostly offline, lack audit trail. Different prices for the same commodity in different parts of the country give rise to arbitrage opportunities for traders. Further, driven by the need for immediate cash, most farmers engage in distress sale after harvest when supply exceeds demand and price is at its lowest.

61. Private are largely benefited due to distress sale of agriculture produces.

62. Traders are largely benefited due to distress sale of agriculture produces.

63. Prices of agricultural produces are comparable throughout the country.

64. The prices of agricultural produce do not generate expected return at present.

65. Traders are at a disadvantage for lack of organised trade practices of agricultural produces.

Directions (Q. 66-70) : In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

Directions (71-75) : In each of the following questions a series begins with an unnumbered figure on the extreme left. One and only one of the five numbered figures in the series does not fit into the series. The two unnumbered figures, one each on the extreme left and the extreme right, fit into the series. You have to take as many aspects into account as possible of the figures in the series and find out the one and only one of the five numbered figures which does not fit into the series. The number of that figure is the answer.

Answers:- 1. c 2. d 3. a 4. b 5. e 6. d 7. d 8. e 9. b 10. e 11. b 12. c 13. c 14. a 15. e 16. a 17. e 18. b 19. c 20. d 21. c 22. a 23. b 24. e 25. d 26. d 27. b 28. c 29. e 30. e 31. a 32. e 33. c 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. d 38. b 39. * 40. a 41. d 42. a 43. e 44. e 45. c 46. b 47. a 48. c 49. d 50. e 51. a 52. b 53. b 54. e 55. b 56. a 57. b 58. c 59. d 60. e 61. b 62. a 63. e 64. a 65. e 66. c 67. d 68. a 69. b 70. a 71. d 72. b 73. c 74. a 75. e

UPSC OFFICAL SAMPLE PAPERS FOR CSAT 2011

UPSC Declares Official Sample Papers For Prelims 2011 & CSAT

The syllabus and pattern of Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination (CS(P)) has undergone significant changes with effect from 2011. These changes have already been intimated to the public vide Press Note on 22nd October, 2010, which is available on UPSC website. The Commission had also indicated in the Press Note that a set of sample questions for both the papers would be put up on the UPSC website, in due course, for reference of the prospective candidates.

A set of 14 sample questions for Paper-I and Paper-II of the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, on the revised syllabus and pattern, are given below. These questions are indicative of the type of questions that may be constructed and used by UPSC in Paper-I and Paper II of CS (P) examination, 2011. However, neither the content nor the structure/type of questions may be construed as being exhaustive or limiting the freedom of UPSC to set questions based on the syllabus prescribed for the examination.

It may be noted that as per the existing practice, both the question papers would be bilingual (English and Hindi), except for some questions specifically intended to test English Language Comprehension skills, which would be in English only. Some more sample questions may be put up subsequently. Hindi version of the sample questions would follow.

CS (P) Examination - Sample Paper
(Based on Revised Syllabus & Pattern Effective From CS (P) Examination, 2011)

PAPER-I

1. With reference to Simon Commission’s recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces.
(b) It proposed the setting up of inter-provincial council under the Home Department.
(c) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre
(d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits.

2. A geographic area with an altitude of 400 metres has following characteristics:

http://static.upscportal.com/images/csat-1.jpg

it most likely be?
(a) Moist temperate coniferous forest
(b) Montane subtropical forest
(c) Temperate forest
(d) Tropical rain forest

3. Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option for the production of bio-diesel in India?
1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India.
2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which nearly half of oleic acid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not. This is because:
(a) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose
(b) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves
(c) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water
(d) Potato is a fresh organic material whereas paper is a dead organic material

5. With reference to India, consider the following:
1. Nationalization of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches
Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the ‘financial inclusion” in India?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

6. Consider the following actions by the Government:
1. Cutting the tax rates
2. Increasing the government spending
3. Abolishing the subsidies
In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be considered a part of the “ fiscal stimulus” package?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

PAPER-II

Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Your answers should be drawn from the content of given passage only. The economy of contemporary India is a great paradox. It is a strange combination of outstanding achievements as well as grave failures. Since independence, India has achieved remarkable progress in overcoming its economic backwardness. From being a very poor country in the 1950s and a ‘basket case’ in the mid 1960s, it has emerged as the fourth largest economy in the world (in terms of purchasing power parity). Our economy has become one of the fastest growing economies in the world. Now the country is one of the leading players in the world knowledge economy with vast intellectual capital and booming software and information technology services. While our country has joined the league of the world’s top five fastest growing economies, we are in the bottom 20 among all countries in terms of the Human Development Index. While the country is celebrating its growth rate and technological wonders, it is witnessing social contradictions and the paradox and ironies of development. Thus, there are ‘two Indias’ in contemporary India.

1. Why is the Indian economy considered ‘a great paradox’?
(a) It is a leading player in information technology services with low levels of literacy.
(b) There is poverty amidst plenty in agricultural produce.
(c) It is one of the largest economies with low human development.
(d) It has scientific achievements with social contradictions.

2. Why is India being referred to as a leading player in the world knowledge economy?
(a) India’s knowledge base in science and technology is one of the world’s best.
(b) India has huge reserves of human intellectual capitals and information technology services.
(c) India is among the World’s five fastest growing economics and technology reserves.
(d) India has a huge reservoir of human capital and scientific knowledge export potential.

3. What does the author imply by the phrase ‘two Indias’ ?
(a) There is the India that has vast intellectual capital and the other that is largely illiterate.
(b)There is the India of burgeoning growth and the India of widespread want and misery.
(c) There is the India of progressive mindsets and the other who are socially conservative.
(d)There is an India of outstanding achievements combined with gigantic failures.

4. Consider the following statement and also the conclusions. Answer the question that follows:
Statement :
Education is in the Concurrent List. The State government cannot bring reforms in education without the consent of Central Government.
Conclusion I : For bringing about quick reforms in education, it should be in the State List .
Conclusion II: States are not willing to bring about quick reforms in Education.

Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Conclusion –I only follows from the statement.
(b) Conclusion –II only follows from the statement.
(c) Both conclusions I & II follow from the statement
(d) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow from the statement

5. Five persons P, Q, R, S, T are sitting in a row. Q is between P and T. To find who among them is in the middle, which of the information given in the following statements is/are sufficient?
1. P is left of Q and right of S.
2. R is at the right end.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Either 1 or 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

6. Which one among 2 , 33 , 66 , 1212 is the smallest one?
(a) 2
(b) 33
(c) 66
(d) 1212

7. The following pie charts show that a man spends 10% on clothes, 20% on rent, 30% on food and rest on miscellaneous items in the month of January and spends 15% on clothes, 25% on rent, 35% on food and rest on miscellaneous items in the month of February.

http://static.upscportal.com/images/csat-2.jpg
Consider the following statements:
1. The money spent on food over rent in the month of January is same as the money spent on food over rent in the month of February.
2. The money spent on rent over clothes is same as money spent on food over rent in the month of January.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Note: The following question would be in English Language only to test English Language Comprehension.

8. Whenever I had occasion to indulge in these surreptitious feasts, dinner at home was out of question. My mother would naturally ask me to come and take my food and want to know the reason why I did not wish to eat. I would say to her, ‘I have no appetite today; there is something wrong with my digestion.’ It was not without compunction that I devised these pretexts. I knew I was lying, and lying to my mother. l also knew that, if my mother and father came to know of my having become a meateater, they would be deeply shocked. This knowledge was gnawing at my heart.

Why did the author devise some pretexts not without compunction ?
(a)He wanted to keep away from home some times.
(b) Surreptitious feasts thrilled him.
(c)Dinners outside were better than at home.
(d) He wanted to eat meat.

Friday, December 10, 2010

RBI GRADE B EXAM 2010 ENGLISH LANGUAGE SOLVED PAPER

Direction (Qs. 1 to 5): Which of a phrases (1), (2), (3) as well as (4) since subsequent any judgment should reinstate a word printed in confidant in a since judgment to have it grammatically correct? If a judgment is scold as it is as well as no improvement is required, afterwards symbol your answer as (5) :

Q.1. Ultimately he viewed a honour he deserve.
(1) Gained a honour he deserve
(2) Received a honour he deserves
(3) Received a honour he deserved
(4) Bags a honour he deserve
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (3)Received a honour he deserved

Q.2. we am all conflicting in a matter of a little of a Managers.
(1) Totally dispute to the
(2) Absolutely dispute by the
(3) Totally conflicting to the
(4) Completely conflicting in the
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (3)Totally conflicting to the

Q.3. Gayatri incited down a pursuit suggest to house her friend.
(1) Job offering in accommodate
(2) Job offers for accommodate
(3) Job suggest to accommodating
(4) Job suggest in accommodate
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (5)No improvement required

Q.4. She was sensitive which everybody of them have been wakeful of a fact.
(1) Were wakeful of
(2) Are wakeful of
(3) Was wakeful of
(4) Is wakeful of
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (3)Was wakeful of

Q.5. She has being venturing in to areas which she had always avoided in a past.
(1) Has been venturing into
(2) Has venturing into
(3) Would venturing into
(4) Had venturing into
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (1)Has been venturing into

Directions (Qs. 6 to 10): Read any judgment to find out either there is any grammatical blunder or vernacular blunder in it. The error, if any, will be in a single partial of a sentence. The number of which partial will be your answer. If there is no blunder (ignore errors of punctuation, if any), afterwards your answer will be (5).

Q.6. They never suspicion (1) / which Joshi is (2) / oldest than a alternative (3) / Professors in a Faculty. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans. (3)

Q.7. Taken in to care (1) / a recommendation of his (2) / colleagues he motionless (3) / to stay in a Institute. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans. (1)

Q.8. we am approaching hit (1) / we someday in (2) / subsequent week to (3) / plead with we in detail. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans.
(1)

Q.9. The military has creation (1) / any bid to yield (2) / most suitable assistance as well as (3) / courtesy to any citizen. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans.
(1)

Q.10. He cannot repel (1) / all his income (2) / unless he do not (3) / give allege notice. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans
(3&4)

Directions (Qs. eleven to 25): Read a following thoroughfare to answer these questions since subsequent it. Certain difference / phrases have been printed in confidant to assistance we fix up them while answering a little of a questions : The self-murder attacks by belligerent Palestinian groups murdering immeasurable numbers of Israeli civilians as well as a oppressive Israeli response, have lifted a renewed hopes of assent in a region. It is Arafat?s care as well as management which have been being exceedingly tested in a idealisation proviso of a west Asian crisis.

By accusing a Palestinian Authority (PA) of ancillary terrorism by groups, Israel hopes to put vigour upon Arafat to act. Arafat, upon a alternative hand, has never looked a reduction powerful force than he does today. If he acts conflicting a militants as well as elements in his own Fatah transformation sympathetic to them, he risks a Palestinian polite conflict. But if he chooses to do nothing, he faces wearing divided of his management as well as all explain to a executive purpose in a assent process. Whatever he does, sections of a Palestinians will reason which he has left as well distant as well as Israel which he has not left for enough. This is, of course, because Arafat has constantly shrunk from tough decision. He has refrained from curbing a belligerent groups, explaining his inaction as required to say Palestinian unity.

The Palestinian leadership?s incapacity to urge mercantile conditions for a people has been a wilful means in a wearing divided of a capability to act. Palestinians in Gaza have targeted a PA as being obliged for their condition. The Militant organizations have capitalized upon a PA?s disaster to settle a functioning executive infrastructure by environment up a parallel welfare complement with a assistance of a millions of dollars. Though a Palestinian confidence forces explain to have arrested some-more than 100 militants after a self-murder explosve attacks in Israel, the other identical belligerent groups sojourn defiant, assured of their renouned await as well as of a faith which in a idealisation research a PA care will stop reduced of wilful movement against them.

That a belligerent groups suffer renouned await in Gaza is frequency surprising. The Gaza Strip currently resembles a immeasurable jail stay in which a little 1.2 million Palestinians have been crammed. Despite the Oslo Accord, 7000 Israeli settlers still sojourn in twenty percent of a Gaza?s area as well as have been stable by heavily armed Israeli forces. With a brand new besiege of as well as endless incursion into PA tranquil territories, a Israeli supervision has placed a total polite multitude in Palestine underneath siege. Over 450 NGOs, 8 universities as well as countless alternative educational, civic, social, developmental as well as illness institutions have had their work detained as well as their critical services to a race blocked. An general discussion upon Israel?s diagnosis of human rights in West Bank as well as Gaza, attended by signatories to a 1949 Geneva Conventions, which has non-stop in Switzerland vital Israeli as well as American protests, is approaching to censor Israel for a diagnosis of civilians in a Palestinian territories.

Arafat?s station in in between Palestinians rests upon a management conferred upon a PA by a general encampment to paint as well as verbalise for a Palestinians. Even a vital belligerent group has so distant never plainly challenged Arafat?s leadership. Israel?s idealisation infamous attacks destined conflicting a PA as well as Arafat benefaction a general encampment with a risk which this precarious change of energy in a Palestinian encampment might be destroyed. Continuance of a Israeli attacks can usually further radicalize as well as toughen a attitudes of typical Palestinians. On a alternative hand, Israeli moves to solidify serve enlargement of Jewish settlements in a West Bank as well as Gaza and, as shortly as security conditions assent it, palliate a mercantile besiege of Palestinian towns?however remote such measures crop up usually now?alone can revive a management of a PA as well as give it a chance to get a hold upon Palestinian militancy.

Q.11. Which of a following factors have lifted a goal for assent in West Asia?
A. Killings of Israeli civilians
B. Harsh reply of Israelites
C. Revocation of Oslo Accord
(1) Only A as well as C
(2) Only B as well as C
(3) Both A as well as B
(4) Either A or B
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)Both A as well as B

Q.12. Which of a following explains a miss of movement upon a partial of Palestinian leader?
(1) He fears a armed forces movement conflicting him
(2) This according to him will bind assent process
(3) He feels which this step will keep Palestinians united
(4) He is severely disturbed about a lapse of his energy base
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)He is severely disturbed about a degeneration of his energy base

Q.13. What is idealisation research of alternative identical belligerent groups?
(1) The PA care will usually movement if a clear forceful action is taken upon a PA
(2) The suicidal attacks will usually irritate a situation
(3) The PA care should be changed
(4) The movement upon a Palestinians was justified
(5) None of these
Ans. (5) None of these

Q.14. Which of a following difference is usually conflicting in definition to a word detained as used in a passage?
(1) Hindered
(2) Facilitated
(3) Felicitated
(4) Stopped
(5) Courage
Ans. (1)Hindered

Q.15. What does a word vital meant as used in a passage?
(1) Notwithstanding
(2) Concurring
(3) Welcoming
(4) Criticizing
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)Notwithstanding

Q.16.Which of a following most suitable describes a definition of a word challenged as used in a passage?
(1) Questioned
(2) Accepted
(3) Attacked
(4) Scared
(5) None of these
Ans:(1)Questioned

Q. 17.Which of a following is a most identical word as accusing as used in a passage?
(1) Abusing
(2) Blaming
(3) Charging
(4) Responding
(5) Praising
Ans. (2)Blaming

Q.18. Which of a following is a approaching result of International Conference which is in swell in Switzerland?
(1) To devaluate 1949 Geneva Convention
(2) Impose censorship upon promotion of PA
(3) To set up considerate family in in between Conflicting parties
(4) To put a quell upon Israel?s policies whilst treating civilians in an visitor territory
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)To set up considerate family in in between Conflicting parties

Q.19. Which of a following most suitable explains a word infamous as used in a passage?
(1) Dangerous
(2) Fatal
(3) Reoccurring as well as cyclic
(4) Cyclic though not reoccurring
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)Reoccurring as well as cyclic

Q.20. Which of a following most suitable explains a word remote as used in a passage?
(1) Far divided from reality
(2) Distant
(3) Most approaching to happen
(4) Control in someone else?s hand
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)Far divided from reality

Q.21. Who according to a thoroughfare conferred a management to PA?
(1) Arafat
(2) Israel
(3) Militant groups
(4) International community
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)International community

Q.22. Which of a following can revive a degenerating management of a PA?
A. Arresting a enlargement of Jewish settlements
B. Easening a mercantile besiege of Palestinian towns
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Either A or B
(4) Both A as well as B together
(5) Neither A or B
Ans (4)Both A as well as B together

Q.23. Which of a following is a most conflicting in definition as a word shrunk as used in a passage?
(1)Coming forward
(2)Abdicating
(3)Control
(4)Expand
(5)None of these
Ans (1)Coming forward

Q.24. What might be a start of successive Israeli attacks?
(1) It might strap a disastrous perspective amongst a polite Palestinians
(2) It might fall short militancy from a simple roots
(3) It might reanimate a weakening care of a PA
(4) It might lift belligerent activities
(5) None of these
Ans (4)It might lift belligerent activities

Q.25. What dangers have been being viewed by a International Community?
(1)Both a nations might get broken if fight erupts
(2)The PA as well as Israel will never set upon a deal
(3)The attacks conflicting a PA might fall short a change of energy in Palestinians
(4)The militancy might widespread in alternative countries also
(5)None of these
Ans. (3)The attacks conflicting a PA might fall short a change of energy in Palestinians

Directions (Qs. twenty-six to 35): In a following thoroughfare there have been blanks, any of which has been numbered. These numbers have been printed subsequent a thoroughfare as well as conflicting each, 5 difference are suggested, a single of which fits a vacant appropriately. Find out a suitable word in any case:
Whatever wealth India enjoyed in a seventeenth century left when a Mughal Empire ???(26) apart. The most evident means of this relapse was a religious intolerance, which led to a open rebellion. It was to ???(27) these revolts which a extremist woman monarch outlayed ???(28) years in a field, with measureless armies immoderate a revenues of the country. There were, however, some-more entrenched ???(29) The crime of officials as well as a hardship of a rank as well as file usually ???(30) divided a empire?s hold up blood. For sometime, there had been a conspicuous decrease in a impression of a statute class. Wars of period ???(31) wiped out a heading families, as well as brand new red red blood from executive Middle East was no ???(32) recruited for a aloft bureaucratic posts. Finally, a Mughal Empire was an visitor regime. It continues to be so ???(33) Akbar?s process of conciliation was abandoned, as well as it wore itself out perplexing to say a energy ???(34) a constant opposition, usually right divided as well as afterwards sincere though regularly present, of a ???(35) citizens.

Q.26. (1)Joined
(2)Broke
(3)Dashed
(4)Banged
(5)Became
Ans. (2)Broke

Q.27. (1)Run out
(2)Crash
(3)Crush
(4)Cajole
(5)Motivate
Ans (3)Crush

Q.28. (1)No
(2)Hardly
(3)Many
(4)Inexpensive
(5)Most
Ans. (3)Many

Q.29. (1)Variables
(2)Attributes
(3)Characteristics
(4)Causes
(5)Affect
Ans. (4)Causes

Q.30. (1)Drained
(2)Gone
(3)Sucked
(4)Released
(5)Went
Ans (1)Drained

Q.31. (1)Has
(2)Have
(3)Was
(4)Did
(5)Had
Ans. (5)Had

Q.32.(1)Longer
(2)Pumped
(3)Far
(4)Candidate
(5)Shorter
Ans. (1)Longer

Q.33. (1)At
(2)Into
(3)Over
(4)After
(5)Before
Ans. (4)After

Q.34. (1)Far
(2)At
(3)Against
(4)Favouring
(5)For
Ans (3)Against

Q.35. (1)Discontented
(2)Weeping
(3)Ruling
(4)Calm
(5)Contented
Ans: (1)Discontented

Directions (Qs. 36 to 40): icon razz RBI Exam Question,RBI Exam Question of English Language Subject,RBI Exam Question 2010 ick out a most in effect word/phrase from a since difference to fill in a blanks to have a sentences meaningfully complete:

Q.,36. Tiwari?s weill-wishers went to a impassioned to _____ his commercial operation reputation.
(1)Speak
(2)Enhance
(3)Cajole
(4)Provoke
(5)Advocate
Ans. (2)Enhance

Q.37. A organisation of youth college boys _____ a top rise of a Shivalik operation of a Himalayas.
(1)Scaled
(2)Walked
(3)Climb up
(4)Avoided
(5)Won
Ans. (1)Scaled

Q.38. A special programme to lift a customary of vital of a encampment folks has been _____ by a Government.
(1)Affixed
(2)Stalled
(3)Glued
(4)Launched
(5)Propose
Ans. (4)Launched

Q.39. A flock of elephants _____ ready to conflict a lion.
(1)Were
(2)Is
(3)Was
(4)Are
(5)Has been
Ans. (2)Is

Q.40. It is not probable this year to run this association with so most employees, but augmenting a _____ of deficit.
(1)Loss
(2)Altitude
(3)Gain
(4)Magnitude
(5)Extend
Ans. (4)Magnitude

CURRENT AFFAIRS PREPARATION PLAN

“Current Affairs” and “General Knowledge” cover many topics like from economy to sports or education to politics, or even technology to automobiles. In every second some issues are happening around the world in these sectors, and to accumulate the excerpt of some highlighted news, and memorize it is a good plan to prepare current affairs and GK.

Some Important Tips to Follow:

Read Newspapers regularly

We all know that “Old is Gold”, same thing applies here too. We need to make a habit of reading newspapers regularly. I’ll suggest you to read more than one newspaper. It will be better if you read one newspaper of your mother language, and other of English. Some useful newspapers are “The Times of India”, “The Hindu”, “The Telegraph” etc. You need to start this habit at least 6 months before the actual exam that will help you to get access to all the important events of that period of time.

You need to keep an eye on what’s happening around you in your country and world as well. Trust me guys, you will surely find it interesting after several days. We all know that staying updated is always a good idea, as it will stand you apart from the rest.

Read Magazines thoroughly

This is another great option to prepare the subject we are talking about. There are many leading magazines that focus on current affairs and General Knowledge. You need to buy it from your local magazine seller, and start reading it thoroughly. These magazines beautifully categorize the articles with its genres to make it interesting to read on. Some of the useful magazines are Pratiyogita Darpan andManorma.

Try to read some business magazines and sports magazines too along with a general magazine. This will increase your chances of cracking the competitive exams with ease. Some useful business magazines areBusiness Today, Business Line etc.

Follow News Channels

You will need to follow news channels at least once a day. Now most of the leading news channels are active for 24*7. You need to pick up a suitable time for yourself to watch any favorite news channel of yours. You can watch ABP News, NDTV, Times Now, ET Now, Zee News etc. Try to go through all the breaking and highlighted news, and make it a habit.

I know that watching news channels for long will bore you, so I’ll suggest you to allocate only 30 minutes for it in a whole day. All the leading ones shows the glimpses of all important events of the day quite frequently, so 30 minutes will be enough for you to boost up your current affairs and GK knowledge.

Maintain a Diary

My teacher used to tell me that whenever you learn something try to write it down in your diary, as it will help you to memorize it in a better manner. He is so right, as this method helped me a lot to score good marks in every exam that I appeared for. As I already mentioned before that a lot of events are occurring in the country and around the world, so it is easily understandable that it is not easy to remember everything. It’s always a superb idea to maintain a diary of current events.

You need to update this diary on a daily basis with all the events that you consider as important ones. This diary will become quite useful for the revision part, as it will provide you information about all the important events at a place. You should keep revising the diary frequently, as it will help you to memorize important names, dates, awards etc.

Channelize your Preparation Accordingly

All the competitive exams are not same, as all of them have different pattern, even when it comes to the same topic as ‘Current Affairs’ or ‘GK’. For example for civil services exam, you need to give importance on events of National value. On the other scenario, in matter of bank job exam, the focus should be on the news on banking sectors, and economic and business news.

Thus I’ll suggest you to prepare as per the exams you are appearing for, as channelizing your preparation according to the pattern of the exam will accelerate your chance of getting selected.

Use Internet Resources

“Google, YouTube and Wikipedia are my favorite teachers’; one of my friends told me this once. This is quite true indeed, so you should use all the available online resources to study current affairs and GK for exams. For example this blog is all about “Current Affairs”, so you can check this blog regularly by subscribing to us (check the sidebar for subscription options). You can actively take part some forums that are focusing on current events. The good part is you can follow the websites of all leadingnewspapers online if you don’t have enough time to read newspapers.

Use Social Networking Sites for Good

Believe me or not you can surely use social networking sites to your benefits. Especially to prepare current affairs and General knowledge Facebook, Twitter, LinkedIn and StumbleUpon may help you a lot. You can join some Facebook pages, or follow some twitter accounts that are related to current affairs. You can join our Facebook Page too for this matter, or connect with me at LinkedIn or circle me in Google Plus for all the information on recent happenings to boost up your General Knowledgeability.

Give Priority to your Strength

We usually find difficulties when we try to learn everything at once. In that process basically we study a lot, but remember a little. We need to first select our strength areas for our preparation. Try to givepriority to your strength areas. It may be Sports, economy, Government Affairs or technology. Suppose you are applying for Bank exams, then you should prepare industry related news. Along with that you may pick any 2-3 areas of your strength like sports or technology. You need to prepare these sections to the utmost level. I can assure you that these strategies will help you to score much better in Current Affairs section.

Participate in Online Quizzes

You should participate in some free quizzes that are available online to evaluate yourself. For this matter you can easily access our “Quiz Section”. This will give you proper idea whether you are ready for the big exam day or not. As an added factor it will also provide you confidence i.e. very much essential. You can download Monthly-wise current affairs questions from Here.