Reasoning Questions

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)

12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)

14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)

15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :

Letters # Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol # 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3

Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

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EXAMS SCHEDULE

January
● Punjab and Sind Bank Probationary Officers Scale-I Exam. (January 16)
● Clerical Recruitment Exam. in State Bank of India’s Associate Banks (January 16)
● Corporation Bank Officers Cadre Examination (January 16)
● Madhya Pradesh Assistant Director/District Statistical Officer Exam., 2009 (January 16)
● M.P. Police Telecommunication Organisation, Bhopal Constables (Radio) Operator Exam. (January 17)
● Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Officers Scale-I Exam. (January 23)
● Punjab and Sind Bank Specialist Officers Exam. (January 23)
● I.D.B.I. Bank Executives Exam. (January 23)
● UCO Bank Probationary Officer in JMGS-I Exam. (January 30)
● GATE 2011 Online Exam. (January 30) (Papers : GG and TF, AE and MN)
● Punjab and Sind Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (January 30)
● Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Office Assistants Exam. (January 30)
● U.P. PCS Review Officer/Assistant Review Officer etc. General Selection (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (January 30)
● National Insurance Company Ltd. Administrative Officer (Scale-I) Examination. (January 30)
● M.P. School Education Department, Principal Higher Secondary School Recruitment Exam. (January 30)
● M.P. Police Constable Recruitment Exam. (January 30)
February
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. (February 6) (For Class VI)
● Reserve Bank of India Grade ‘B’ Officers Exam. (February 6)
● Union Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (February 6)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher Preliminary Exam. (February 11)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT and Librarian, Primary Teacher (Pre.) Exam. (February 12)
● U.P. Trained Graduate Teacher Recruitment Exam. (Feb 13 & 20)
● Central Bank of India Clerical Cadre Exam. (February 13)
● Assam Gramin Vikas Bank Office Assistant Exam. (February 13)
● UPSC Combined Defence Service Exam. (I), 2011 (February 13)
● GATE 2011 Offline Exam. (February 13) (Papers : AR, BT, CE, CH, CS, ME, PH and PI, AG, CY, EC, EE, IN, MA, MT, XE and XL)
● Assam Gramin Vikas Bank Officer Junior Management Scale-I Exam. (February 20)
● Madhya Pradesh State Services (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (February 20)
● Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I and Scale-II Examination (February 20)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I Exam. (February 20)
● Indian Air Force Airman Recruitment Test (February) (Group ‘X’ Technical Trade)
● S.S.C. Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff Recruitment Exam. (February 27)
● Dena Bank Probationary Officers Exam. (February 27)
● LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (Generalists/Chartered Accountants/Company Secretary/Legal) Exam. (February 27)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Office Assistants Exam.(February 27)
● Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Office Assistants Recruitment Exam. (February 27)
March
● Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officers Recruitment Exam. (March 6)
● Dena Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (March 6)
● Bank of India General Banking Officer Scale-I and II Examination for North Eastern States (March 6)
● Baroda U.P. Gramin Bank Officers (Scale-I) Exam. (March 6)
● Bank of India Clerk Examination for North Eastern States (March 13)
● Rajasthan Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Exam. (March 13)
● Andhra Pradesh Gramin Vikas Bank Office Assistants Exam., 2010 (March 13)
● Baroda U.P. Gramin Bank Office Assistant Clerical Cadre Exam. (March 13)
● Indian Navy Senior Secondary Recruitment Exam. (March-April)
April
● C.B.S.E. All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental Entrance Exam., 2011 (April 3)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 8)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT and Librarian, Primary Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 9)
● I.I.T. Joint Entrance Exam., 2011 (April 10)
● Rajasthan Sub-Inspector Police Combined Competitive Exam., 2010 (April/May)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( North - East Zone) ( April 10)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( East Zone) ( April 24)
May
● C.B.S.E. All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental (Mains) Exam., 2011 (May 15)
● I.E.R.T. Entrance Exam., 2011 (Allahabad) (Engg./Technology Diploma Course) (May 24)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( South Zone) ( May 08)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( North Zone) ( May 15)
● F.C.I Management Trainee Exam ( West Zone) ( May 22)

Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., 2010

General Awareness
(Held on 31-10-2010)

1. The Business Correspondence Model being adopted by the banks provides Banking facilities to which of the following ?
(A) Only Corporate borrowers
(B) Only Weaker sections the society and people of small villages
(C) Only those who are taking housing loans
(D) All (A), (B) and (C) above
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. The concept of ‘Carbon Credit’ is associated with which of the following areas ?
(A) Protection of environment
(B) Women empowerment
(C) Development of rural infrastructure
(D) Development of coal mines
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. As we all know Government is paying much attention to improve Public Distribution System (PDS) in our country. Which of the following have been the achievements of the PDS uptill now, owing to which Government wants to further improve it ?
[Pick up correct statement(s).]
1. After implementing PDS in India, no famine was reported. PDS was always there to give people at least the bare minimum to survive.
2. A drought of 1987 was worst in this century but PDS played a vital role in overcoming the drought.
3. Now PDS is feeding the poorest of the poor in this country.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. Global Micro Credit Summit-2011 will be organized in which of the following countries ?
(A) Britain
(B) South Africa
(C) Spain
(D) Italy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. Many times we read about SHGs in financial newspapers. What is the full form of the term ?
(A) Small Help Groups
(B) Self Help Groups
(C) Small Hope in Growths
(D) Self Hope Groups
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. Whenever newspapers talk about the performance of core industries, which of the following is not considered among them ?
(A) Petroleum
(B) Automobile
(C) Mining
(D) Steel
(E) Cement
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following agencies/organizations in India maintains the Micro Finance Development and Equity Fund which was in news recently ?
(A) Confederation of Industries in India (CII)
(B) Indian Bank’s Association (IBA)
(C) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
(D) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(E) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
Ans : (D)

8. As per recent newspaper reports UK based Cairn Energy is in the process of selling its stake to which one of the following companies of Indian base ?
(A) ONGC Videsh
(B) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd.
(C) Vedanta Resources
(D) Posco India
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. Which of the following bills presented in the Parliament will bring some changes in existing tax regime ?
(A) Direct Taxes Code (DTC) Bill
(B) Foreign Exchange Management Regulatory Bill
(C) Companies Act Bill
(D) Salaries and Perks for MPs Bill
(E) Finance Bill 2010-11
Ans : (A)

10. Under Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS), the benefits are available to the people having minimum age of …….
(A) 50 years
(B) 55 years
(C) 65 years
(D) 60 years
(E) 70 years
Ans : (C)


11. Mr. Katsuya Okada who was on a visit to India few months back is the Foreign Minister of—
(A) South Korea
(B) Myanmar
(C) Japan
(D) Thailand
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

12. Govt. of India has decided to review its Foreign Direct Investment Rules twice in a year. This will be done from—
(A) 2015
(B) 2012
(C) 2014
(D) 2011
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
13. Many times we read about ‘Hawala’ transactions in newspapers. Hawala in India is prohibited under the provision of which of the following Acts ?
(A) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act(C) Financial action Task Force Act
(D) Foreign Exchange Management Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. India recently reviewed its trade relation policy with Russia. What are the main exports from India to Russia ?
1. Pharmaceuticals
2. Apparel and Clothing
3. Tea and Coffee
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)

15. As we all know DIPP is the nodal agency in the field of foreign investments in India. What is the full form of DIPP ?
(A) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
(B) Department of Industrial Procedures and Promotions
(C) Directorate of Industrial Procedures and Promotions
(D) Directorate of Industrial Policy and Publicity
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
16. ‘Israel and Palestinians open talks’ was the headline in some major newspapers. As we all know both the nations were not coming for the talks since 2008. Which of the following is the main dispute between these two nations ?
(A) Membership of World Trade Organisation
(B) Membership of G-20
(C) Selecting Syria, one of the major trade partners by Israel. Palestine is dead against it
(D) Redefining the boundaries as a major glacier between them has erased the same
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

17. Many times we read about the performance of Asian Markets in various financial newspapers. Which of the following is not included in Asian Market ?
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) Hong Kong
(D) South Korea
(E) Brazil
Ans : (E)

18. As per the figures released by the World Bank, which of the following countries was the largest recipient of loans from the World Bank during 2009-10 ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan(C) Brazil
(D) China
(E) India
Ans : (E)

19. Which of the following has been fixed as the target for fiscal deficit 2010-11 ?
(In terms of percentage of GDP)
(A) 3%
(B) 3•5%
(C) 4%
(D) 5%
(E) 5•5%Ans : (D)

20. As per news in various newspapers ‘kfw’ Group released another instalment of its financial aid to India. kfw is an organization/bank based in—
(A) France
(B) Japan
(C) Italy
(D) China
(E) Germany
Ans : (E)

21. Which of the following countries has become the main supplier of Defence goods to India and has replaced Russia ?
(A) Canada
(B) USA
(C) Israel
(D) France
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. As per existing policy, new foreign investments in manufacturing of which of the following is not allowed ?
(A) White cement
(B) Plastic goods
(C) Cigarette and Cigars(D) Polythene bags
(E) Pesticides
Ans : (C)

23. The Mixed Double of which of the following Lawn Tennis tournaments was won by Leander Paes along with Cara Black in 2010 ?
(A) Wimbledon
(B) US Open
(C) Australia Open
(D) Dubai Open
(E) None of theseAns : (C)

24. Which of the following is not amongst the Prime Minister’s new 15 point programme ?
(A) Enhanced Credit Support for economic activities
(B) Modernizing Madarsa Education
(C) Improvement in condition of slums inhabited by minorities
(D) Free train journey for unemployed youths
(E) Rehabilitation of victims of communal riots
Ans : (D)

25. The Summit of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation was held in June in which of the following places ?(A) Shanghai
(B) Moscow
(C) Tashkent
(D) Astana
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. India’s political relations with its neighbouring countries are a critical part of its …….
(A) Industrial policy
(B) Trade policy
(C) Foreign policy
(D) Development policy
(E) None of theseAns : (C)

27. Which of the following organizations of Indian Origin is helping Sri Lanka in rehabilitation of its war widows ?
(A) Khadi and Village Commission
(B) SEWA
(C) Action for Food Production
(D) Adhar
(E) Aasha
Ans : (B)

28. Who amongst the following became the first Cricketer to take 800 wickets in Test Cricket ?
(A) Kumar Sangakkara
(B) Saqlain Mustaq
(C) Anil Kumble
(D) Muttiah Murlitharan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following agencies/organizations has decided to make major changes for ULIPs ?
(A) IRDA
(B) RBI
(C) AMFI(D) FRBI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

30. The 16th SAARC Summit was organized in Thimpu. The declaration of the Summit was named as—
(A) Towards Green and Happy South Asia
(B) Silver Jubilee of SAARC
(C) Let us meet again in Delhi
(D) SAARC : The Future of South Asia
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

31. Which of the following is the name of the programme launched by the Govt. of India to help lonely women by providing vocational training to make them self dependent ?
(A) Apnalaya
(B) Prayas
(C) Abhiyogyata
(D) Swadhar
(E) SwawlambanAns : (D)

32. Which of the following terms is not used in the game of Cricket ?
(A) Doosra
(B) Century(C) Bouncer
(D) Love
(E) Ashes
Ans : (D)

33. Which of the following countries won the Asia Cup Cricket Tournament 2010 held in Sri Lanka ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) India
(C) Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
34. Mr. James Alix Michael who was on a visit to India recently is the President of ……
(A) Australia
(B) New Zealand
(C) Colombia
(D) Seychelles
(E) None of theseAns : (D)

35. Trupti Murgunde whose name was in news recently is a—
(A) Badminton player
(B) Golf player
(C) Lawn Tennis player
(D) Table Tennis player
(E) Cricket player
Ans : (A)

36. Which of the following is not a financial term ?
(A) Acid Test(B) Double Fault
(C) Gross Profit
(D) Depreciation
(E) Cash flow
Ans : (A)

37. In the terms of economics, the recession occurring two times with a small gap in between is known as—
(A) Double Deflation
(B) Deflation
(C) Deep Recession
(D) Double Dip Recession
(E) None of theseAns : (A)

38. Saina Nehwal was in Paris recently to play in World Championship. She lost her match against whom amongst the following players ?
(A) Le Chong Wei
(B) Shixian Wang
(C) Taufik Hidayut
(D) Jung Eun
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

39. Union Cabinet recently cleared 15000 crore Sukhoi deal. Sukhoi is—
(A) Battle tank
(B) Fighter plane
(C) Submarine
(D) Radar system
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

40. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award-2010 announced recently ?
(A) Pankaj Adwani
(B) Leander Paes(C) Sania Mirza
(D) M. S. Dhoni
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

41. Which of the following terms is not used in Economics ?
(A) Balance of Payment
(B) Call Money
(C) National Debt
(D) Elasticity of Demand
(E) Boyle’s law
Ans : (E)

42. Which of the following ministries /departments operates the ‘Village Grain Bank’s Schemes’ ?
(A) Ministry of Tribal Welfare
(B) Department of Food and Public Distribution
(C) Department of Social Welfare
(D) Ministry of Forest
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
43. Which of the following countries recently conducted general election and became the first Parliamentary Democracy of Central Asia ?
(A) Turkmenistan
(B) Uzbekistan(C) Kyrgyzstan
(D) Kazakhstan
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

44. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ?
(A) The Golden Gate
(B) Journey to Ithaca
(C) Fore on the Mountain
(D) The inheritance of Loss
(E) 2 States : The Story of My Marriage
Ans : (E)
45. Which of the following nations is the recent one to join Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) ?
(A) Fiji
(B) Cuba
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Colombia
(E) Egypt
Ans : (A)

46. Hiroshima Day is observed on which of the following dates ?
(A) 6th August
(B) 16th August
(C) 6th September(D) 16th September
(E) 26th July
Ans : (A)

47. Who amongst the following is the Chairperson of the Human Right’s Commission of India at present ?
(A) Prof. M. S. Swaminathan
(B) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan
(C) Justice A. R. Lakshmanan
(D) Justice P. V. Reddi
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
48. ‘Booker Prize’ is given in the field of ……
(A) Literature
(B) Social service
(C) Films
(D) Science
(E) Sports
Ans : (A)

49. Which of the following games/sports is not included in the list of Commonwealth Games 2010 ?
(A) Table Tennis
(B) Hockey
(C) Weight lifting(D) Golf
(E) Boxing
Ans : (D)

50. Dronacharya Awards are given to a person associated with—
(A) Education
(B) Social service
(C) Journalism
(D) Sports
(E) Films
Ans : (D)

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UPSC ASSISTANT NAVAL STORES OFFICER (ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING)

I.D.B.I. Assistant Manager Exam., 2010

General and Financial Awareness

(Held on 14-11-2010)

1. The present Cash Reserve Ratio is—
(A) 5%
(B) 5•5%
(C) 6%
(D) 6•5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. One of the objectives of KYC (Know Your Customer) norms is—
(A) to give boost to bank deposits
(B) to safeguard banks advances
(C) to monitor transactions of suspicious nature
(D) to help income tax authorities to collect income tax
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. Contribution to Prime Minister's relief fund enjoys Income Tax benefit up to—
(A) 50% under section 80G
(B) 75% under section 80G
(C) 100% under section 80 G
(D) 100% under section 88
(E) No exemption is available
Ans : (C)

4. Which of the following activities are expected to be performed by the Business correspondents ?
(A) Disbursal of small value credit
(B) Collection of small value deposits
(C) Sale of micro insurance /mutual fund products
(D) All the three above
(E) Only (B) and (C) above
Ans : (E)

5. Tax at source by banks is deducted on interest paid on term deposits in the interest amount in a financial year exceeds—
(A) Rs. 3,000
(B) Rs. 5,000
(C) Rs. 10,000
(D) Rs. 15,000
(E) There is no such provision
Ans : (B)

6. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of security Interest Act relates to—
(A) Sanction of loans
(B) Enhancement of loan limits
(C) Recovery of loans
(D) All the above
(E) None of above
Ans : (C)

7. MSMED Act is applicable to—
(A) Smalls enterprises only
(B) Medium enterprises only
(C) Micro enterprises only
(D) Micro, Small and Medium enterprises
(E) All enterprises irrespective of their size engaged in manufacturing activity
Ans : (D)

8. Money Laundering refers to—
(A) Conversion of assets into cash
(B) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained
(C) Conversion of cash into gold
(D) Conversion of gold into cash
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)

9. The Monetary and Credit Policy is reviewed by the RBI after a gap of—
(A) one year
(B) one month
(C) two years
(D) five years
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

10. PPF account is opened for a period of—
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 20 years
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


11. Yuan is the currency of—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) Indonesia
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. National savings certificate matures at the end of—
(A) Six years
(B) Three years
(C) Six and half years
(D) Five years
(E) Five and half years
Ans : (A)

13. Normally Bank accept Fixed Deposits for a maximum period of—
(A) 5 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 10 years
(D) 20 years
(E) Any number of years
Ans : (E)

14. Code of banks commitment to Micro and Small enterprises is prepared by—
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) FEDAI
(D) BCSBI
(E) Ministry of Small and Medium Enterprises
Ans : (E)

15. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of debit card ?
(A) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery
(B) No interest earning for banks
(C) Works like a normal withdrawal
(D) All the above
(E) 45 dayes credit is given to the card holder
Ans : (E)

16. IFRS stands for—
(A) International Financial Reporting standards
(B) Indian Financial Rating Standards
(C) International Financial Rating Standards
(D) All the three above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

17. What is the present Repo Rate ?
(A) 5%
(B) 5•5%
(C) 6%
(D) 6•5%
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

18. There are certain financial instruments whose prices are derived from the price of the underlying currency of interest rate or stocks etc. These are known as—
(A) Derivatives
(B) Securitisation
(C) Leasing
(D) Factoring
(E) Venture Capital Funding
Ans : (A)

19. What is the full form of ASBA ?
(A) Allotment supported by Blocked Amount
(B) Application supported by Blocked Amount
(C) Application supported by Bank Amount
(D) Allotment supported by Bank Account
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)

20. Reverse Repo is used by RBI to—
(A) Inject liquidity
(B) Absorb liquidity
(C) Increase the liquidity with banking system
(D) Keep the liquidity at one level
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is not considered as lending under infrastructure sector ?
(A) A Highway project
(B) Construction of Educational Institution
(C) Construction of Hospital
(D) Laying down of petroleum pipelines
(E) None of the above
Ans : (E)

22. KYC guidelines have been framed on the recommendations/as per guidelines of—
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Ministry of Finance
(C) Indian Banks Association
(D) Financial Action Task Force
(E) Ministry of Home affairs
Ans : (A)

23. The term ‘Power of Attorney’ refers to—
(A) Power of a person
(B) An authority to operate a Bank account
(C) An instrument by which a person is empowered to act for another person
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)

24. What is the amount of compensation to be paid per day, as per RBI directives in case of failed ATM transactions ?
(A) Rs. 50
(B) Rs. 100
(C) Rs. 200
(D) Rs. 500
(E) It is at the discretion of each Bank
Ans : (B)

25. Financial Action Task Force has an office in India at which place ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Chennai
(C) Kolkata
(D) New Delhi
(E) All the above places
Ans : (D)

26. Bridge loans refer to—
(A) Loans granted to contruction companies for construction of bridges
(B) Loan granted to PWD for construction of bridges over Rivers
(C) Interim finance allowed by banks to their customers pending disbursement of term loans by financial institutions
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)

27. Payment of Demand Draft can be stopped by—
(A) Payee
(B) Holder
(C) Purchaser
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Can any one file an appeal against the order passed by the Banking Ombudsman ? If so who is the Appellate Authority ?
(A) The Chairman of concerned Bank
(B) The Deputy Governor RBI
(C) Governor of RBI
(D) Finance Minister
(E) None of the above
Ans : (B)

29. For which one of the following reasons, the Government has approved a plan to infuse Rs. 15,000 crore capital into PSBs ?
(A) To boost their lending capacity
(B) To maintain minimum CRAR as per Basel II norms
(C) To maintain NPA provision coverage ratio
(D) To strengthen the Balance Sheet of banks
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

30. What is monetary policy transmission ?
(A) It refers to monetary policy of Central Bank
(B) It refers to fiscal policy of Government
(C) It refers to various channels through which the monetary policy of a Central Bank alters prices or output in the real economy
(D) It refers to various channels through which the fiscal policy of the Government alters prices or output in the real economy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. On which one of the following issue IMF has supported monetary policy of India ?
(A) Tightening of monetary policy
(B) Stimulus for agriculture sector
(C) Concessions for foreign investment
(D) Introduction of GST
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. The advantage of convenience in credit card operations is for—
(A) Customer
(B) Members Establishments
(C) Banks
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (D)

33. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, CAs/CS have been told to report all suspicious fund trasnfers ?
(A) RBI Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Indian Companies Act
(D) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Bancassurance is—
(A) an insurance scheme to insure bank deposits
(B) an insurance scheme exclusively for the employees of banks
(C) a composite financial service offering both bank and insurance product
(D) a bank deposits scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)

35. In the term STRIPS, the first letter ‘S’ denotes—
(A) Separate
(B) Small
(C) Special
(D) Savings
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

36. Which of the following organizations, provide credit history of the borrowers ?
(A) CIBIL
(B) SEBI
(C) RBI
(D) CRISIL
(E) IBA
Ans : (A)

37. Loans/advances to farmers is treated as—
(A) Personal Loans
(B) Priority Sector Loan
(C) Business Loan
(D) Corporate Loan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following Organisations maintains CRR ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) NABARD
(D) IBA
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. When the loan is granted for purchase of white goods it is called—
(A) Consumption loan
(B) White goods loan
(C) Consumer durable loan
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above
Ans : (C)

40. Which one of the following is the objective of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?
(A) To provide 100 days employment to people in rural areas
(B) To provide employment to educated youth
(C) To provide employment under KVIC schemes
(D) To create more valuable rural assets
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

41. Structure of Basel II is based on how many pillars ?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Eight
(E) Six
Ans : (B)

42. With which one of the following ‘Channel Financing’ is associated ?
(A) Retail Lending
(B) Corporate Lending
(C) SME Lending
(D) Supply Chain Finance
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

43. Expand the term FRBM—
(A) Financial Responsibility and Business Management
(B) Fiscal Responsibility and Business Management
(C) Financial Responsibility and Budget Management
(D) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

44. A customer can approach Banking ombudsman if he does not get satisfactory response to his grievance from the bank within how many days ?
(A) 10 days
(B) 20 days
(C) 8 days
(D) 30 days
(E) 60 days
Ans : (D)

45. Which one of the following country is in talks with EU and International Monetary Fund, to exit from debt crisis ?
(A) Spain
(B) Turkey
(C) Portugal
(D) Greece
(E) Finland
Ans : (D)

46. For achieving 8•5 percent GDP growth in fiscal 2010-11, which one of the following should be percent growth in farm sector ?
(A) 2•0
(B) 2•5
(C) 3•0
(D) 4•0
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. According to a report submitted by IMF in its World Economic Outlook, which one of the following countries will have highest percent GDP growth rate in 2011 ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Brazil
(D) Russia
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. Which one of the following has given ‘Aadhaar’ as its new brand name ?
(A) UIDAI
(B) Sports Ministry, GOI
(C) Ministry of Tourism, GOI
(D) NHAI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

49. Which of the following will help poor to come out of their poverty ?
1. Good Health Service
2. Freedom from illiteracy
3. Optimum Sex Ratio
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)

50. Which one of the following is per cent Bank Rate ?
(A) 4•0
(B) 4•5
(C) 5
(D) 3•33
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

United India Insurance A.A.O. Exam., 2010

General Awareness
(EXAM Held on 6-6-2010)

1. Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission or Solar India has been launched to create an installed capacity of 2000 MW by the end of—
(A) 13th Plan
(B) 14th Plan
(C) 15th Plan
(D) 16th Plan
Ans : (A)

2. Bollywood actors who, on February 2, 2010 rang bells in NASDAQ on Time Square, New York—an honour usually reserved for CEOs of major corporations, are—
(A) Amir Khan and Priyanka Chopra
(B) Shah Rukh Khan and Kajol
(C) Abhishek Bachchan and Aswarya
(D) Saif Ali Khan and Kareena Kapoor
Ans : (B)

3. The term ‘16 yards hit’ is associated with—
(A) Badminton
(B) Baseball
(C) Polo
(D) Hockey
Ans : (D)

4. The vital constituent of blood that helps in clotting is—
(A) Platelets
(B) Haemoglobin
(C) Plasma
(D) Serum
Ans : (A)

5. Which of the following animals can hear ultrasonic sound ?
(A) Cat
(B) Rat
(C) Bat
(D) Squirrel
Ans : (C)

6. The acid rain destroys vegetations because it contains—
(A) Sulphuric acid
(B) Ozone
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Nitric acid
Ans : (A)

7. Man Booker Prize winner Ms. Kiran Desai’s novel, ‘The Inheritance of Loss’ deals with—
(A) Telangana movement
(B) Santhal movement
(C) Gorkhaland movement
(D) Bodoland movement
Ans : (C)

8. GARC is the acronym for—
(A) Global Automotive Research Consortium
(B) Global Atomic Research Consortium
(C) Global Automotive Research Centre
(D) Global Advancement Research Centre
Ans : (C)

9. The largest fresh water lake, ‘Lake Superior’ is located in—
(A) Canada
(B) Russia
(C) Tanzania
(D) Argentina
Ans : (A)

10. In which State of India is the largest river island Majuli ?
(A) Assam
(B) Kolkata
(C) Orissa
(D) M.P.
Ans : (A)


11. Match the following—
(a) Berlin, Germany
(b) Ankara, Turkey
(c) Bristol, UK
(d) Budapest, Hungary
1. Danube
2. Kizil
3. Spree
4. Avon
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans : (D)

12. Government’s ambitious UID Project has been renamed—
(A) Parichaya
(B) Pahchan
(C) Aadhar
(D) Aanklan
Ans : (C)

13. Who is the author of the book ‘Speaking for Myself’ ?
(A) Salman Rushdie
(B) Cherie Blair
(C) Mohammad Hanif
(D) Hillary Clinton
Ans : (B)

14. The name of India’s first homebuilt stealth warship whose features reduce the probability of being detected at sea is—
(A) Sahyadiri
(B) Satpura
(C) Shivalik
(D) Shivaji
Ans : (C)

15. Which country will host the 17th SAARC summit ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Nepal
(C) Shri Lanka
(D) Maldives
Ans : (D)

16. India’s Prime Minister Manmohan Singh is seated at the ……… spot in the leaders’ list of 100 most influential persons of the world realeased by the famous Time Magazine recently.
(A) 15
(B) 19
(C) 23
(D) 27
Ans : (B)

17. The Islam was established in—
(A) 5th A.D.
(B) 7th A.D.
(C) 3rd B.C.
(D) 5th B.C.
Ans : (B)

18. Which part of the human body is highly affected by the nuclear radiation first ?
(A) Bone marrow
(B) Skin
(C) Lungs
(D) Eyes
Ans : (B)

19. Who invented the video-tape ?
(A) Charles Ginsberg
(B) Georges de Mestral
(C) Richard James
(D) P. T. Farnsworth
Ans : (A)

20. Match the following—
(a) NH–1
(b) NH–3
(c) NH–5
(d) NH–7
1. Varanasi–Kanyakumari
2. Kolkata–Chennai
3. New Delhi–Amritsar
4. Agra–Mumbai
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (B)

Computer Knowledge Questions

1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a ___ wavy underline appears below the word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
2. The _____ button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered ___
(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
4. ________ Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.
(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
5. A _________ represent approximately one billion memory locations.
(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
6. ______ cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
7. The operating system is the most common type of ______________ software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are ____
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called ___
(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, __________ to erase to the right of the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key
(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
A provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
B manage the central processing unit (CPU).
C manage memory and storage.
D enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans (D)
12. During the boot process, the ____________ looks for the system files.
A CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
AnS (B)
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
A GUIs
B Icons
C Menus
D Windows
Answer: C
14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time.
A Multitasking
B Streamlining
C Multiuser
D Simulcasting
Answer: A
15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an:
A action.
B event.
C interrupt.
D activity.
Answer: C
16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
A CPU
B slice of time
C stack
D event
Answer: B
17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as:
A application programming interfaces (APIs).
B complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
C device drivers.
D bootstrap loaders.
Answer: A
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
A point-and-click
B user-friendly
C command-driven
D Mac
Answer: C
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
A location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
B peripheral device.
C utility program.
D special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Answer: D
20. A spooler is a(n):
A location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
B print job.
C program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
D message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Answer: C
21. Virtual memory is typically located:
A on a floppy disk.
B in the CPU.
C in a flash card.
D on the hard drive.
Answer: D
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
A maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
B hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
C prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
D allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Answer: B
23. The definition of thrashing is:
A swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
B insufficient hard disk space.
C too many processors being managed by the operating system.
D inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Answer: A
24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
A Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
B Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
C Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
D Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Answer: B
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
A configuration.
B accessibility.
C authentication.
D logging in.
Answer: C
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:
A CPU.
B platform.
C BIOS.
D CMOS.
Answer: B
27. The following message generally means:
A a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
B the CD drive is not functioning.
C the BIOS is corrupted.
D there is a problem loading a device.
Answer: A
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?
A Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
B Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
C Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
D Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Answer: B
29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
A load the operating system into RAM.
B the power-on self-test.
C activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
D load application programs.
Answer: D
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
A BIOS
B API
C device driver
D supervisor program
Answer: A
31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
A RAM.
B ROM.
C the CPU.
D the hard drive.
Answer: B
32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process.
A configuration
B CMOS
C POST
D ROM
Answer: C
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the:
A registry.
B API.
C CMOS.
D kernel.
Answer: D
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
A The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
B The video card and video memory are tested.
C The BIOS identification process occurs.
D Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Answer: A
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT:
A any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
B the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.
C this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
D virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Answer: A
36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
A files.
B folders.
D drives.
D systems.
Answer: D
37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT:
A windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
B windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
C more than one window can be open at a time.
D toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Answer: A
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT:
A A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
B Files can be generated from an application.
C Files are stored in RAM.
D Files should be organized in folders.
Answer: C
39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates:
A an open folder.
B the folder contains subfolders.
C a text file.
D a graphics file.
Answer: B
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
A List
B Thumbnails
C Details
D Icon
Answer: C

Reasoning Questions

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)

12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)

14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)

15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :

Letters # Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol # 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3

Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Exam., 2008

General Awareness
(Held on 21-12-2008)

1. Which of the following crops cannot be called a Plantation Crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Oil Palm
(C) Rubber
(D) Coffee
(E) Coconut 2. Which of the following is the name of the spacecraft launched by India as a part of Mission to Moon ?
(A) Moon-1
(B) Chandrayaan-1
(C) Kalpana
(D) RADOM
(E) None of these
3. As per the reports published by the World Bank what percentage of Indian population lives below the new International Poverty Line ?
(A) 30%
(B) 62%
(C) 52%
(D) 42%
(E) 68%
4. Which of the following is not a ‘Social Sector Programme’ run by the Govt. of India ?
(A) National Rural Health Mission
(B) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) Mid-Day Meal Scheme
(D) Integrated Child Development Services
(E) Bharat Nirman
5. In order to augment Credit flow to small and poor borrowers, commercial banks are required to provide how much percentage of their priority sector advances to weaker sections of the society ?
(A) 15%
(B) 20%
(C) 30%
(D) 25%
(E) 35%
6. As reported in some newspapers/magazines a large number of children/infants are falling sick because of the use of melamine contaminated dairy products in the world. Due to this many countries like Africa, Japan, Singapore, etc. have stopped import of these products. Which of the following countries was the main exporter of such products ?
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Pakistan
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
7. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the programme launched in India for the economic empowerment of persons with severe to profound disabilities ?
(A) ARUNIM
(B) NREGA
(C) GCMMF
(D) UNCTAD
(E) SCOPE
8. As per the recommendations of the 12th Finance Commission, what will be the share of the State Govts. in total shareable proceeds of Central taxes ?
(A) 15%
(B) 20·5%
(C) 22%
(D) 30·5%
(E) 35·5%
9. Which of the following is/are objective(s) of the ‘Rural Drinking water supply Programme’ launched by the Govt. of India ?
1. Supply safe drinking water to all villages.
2. Assisting local communities to maintain sources of safe drinking water in good condition.
3. Giving special attention for water supply to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
10. Which of the following is not a Source of Tax Revenue collected by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Custom Duty
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Income Tax
(D) Service Tax
(E) Dividends and Profits
11. Asif Ali Zardari who has taken over as the new President of Pakistan is from which of the following political Parties ?
(A) Pakistan Muslim League
(B) Awami League
(C) Pakistan People’s Party
(D) Pakistan National Congress
(E) None of these
12. India is now out of the nuclear sanction imposed on it about 16 years back. This sanction was imposed by which of the following organisations ?
(A) Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
(B) Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
(C) INTERPOL
(D) UN Security Council
(E) None of these
13. Very often we read in newspapers about the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Through Automatic Route. What is meant by Automatic Route ?
1. It is a process which allows foreign investors to trade shares of any Indian Company on day-to-day basis openly in stock markets.
2. It is a process by which Indian Companies are allowed to issue shares to any foreign investor as a part of their paid up Capital in the project in which they have made an investment.
3. It is a process in which all foreign investors are asked to make all their investments in Indian projects in rupee currency only and that too in cash only. Technical knowhow or any other type of participation is not allowed as a part of investment.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
14. The Govt. of India is planning to introduce a ‘National Security Exception Act’ in the Parliament, which will work on the lines of Exxon-Florio provision prevalent in the USA. What is the purpose of the proposed Act ?
1. The Act is a part of Indo-US Nuclear Pact as this only will allow India to start building nuclear facilities in the country.
2. The Act will empower the Govt. of India to stall any foreign Company from acquiring any local asset (FDI) if it is found to be compromising with national security.
3. The Act will empower the Govt. of India to control terrorism in a better way as all e-services will be under thorough scrutiny by security agencies.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
15. Which of the following is not included in the list of UN Millennium Goals ?
(A) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
(B) Develop a global partnership for development
(C) Promote Gender equality
(D) Reduce Child Mortality
(E) Make World Nuclear free
16. Which of the following agencies/bodies has asked all foreign funds to come forward and register itself as Foreign Institutional Investments (FIIs) prior to any investment in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) IBA
(D) Registrar of Companies
(E) None of these
17. Who amongst the following Indian players could not win any medal in Beijing Olympic 2008 ?
(A) Sushil Kumar
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Anjali Bhagwat
(D) Jitendra Kumar
(E) Saina Nehwal
18. India recently signed an agreement in the field of hydrocarbon with which of the following countries for which Hernan Martinez Torres, Minister of Energy of that country was in India ?
(A) Zambia
(B) Ukraine
(C) Colombia
(D) Turkey
(E) None of these
19. Which of the following countries has asked India to scrap Kosi River Pact, the river which created a havoc in Bihar recently ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan
(C) China
(D) Nepal
(E) Bhutan
20. Which of the following is the amount of the relief package announced by the Prime Minister of India for Flood-hit Bihar ?
(A) Rs. 1000 crore
(B) Rs. 1010 crore
(C) Rs. 1050 crore
(D) Rs. 1100 crore
(E) Rs. 1120 crore
21. As reported in the newspapers some people are of the opinion that India may not be able to achieve its export targets set for the year 2008-09. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) of their worry ?
1. There was a major flood in some parts of Bihar, Orissa, Gujarat and some other States recently, owing to which fruit/horticultural crop has not reached export markets in sufficient quantity.
2. Rupee is frequently getting depreciated against US dollar.
3. Some major economies of the world are passing through the phase of economic recession. Hence many export orders are cancelled.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3 only
(E) None of these
22. While talking to the Press/Media/Group of experts in Singapore the former Governor of RBI, Dr. Y. V. Reddy, said that the impact of global financial turmoil will be less on Asia. What in opinion of the people like Dr. Reddy are the strengths of Asian Financial System which will help it to sustain the turmoil ? (Pick-up correct statement(s) as your answer.)
1. Banks in Asia are better capitalized and are not much exposed to sophisticated derivatives.
2. Asian economies were in a high growth mode and hence they have better ability to withstand the crisis.
3. Most of the Asian countries used to enjoy a strong fiscal position and current account surpluses in the past. This has given them an ability to bail out a failing financial institution in case it appeared.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
23. Subsequent to the RBI’s move of reducing the CRR, the industry Chambers in India are demanding for softened interest rates. How will this demand of softened interest rates help the industry ?
1. It will give a push-up to new investments and augment the demand of new proposals for more credits.
2. The move will help in creation of many new employment opportunities.
3. It will strengthen the position of the Stock Markets in India.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
24. The recent decision of the RBI to cut Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 150 basis points (October 2008) will be able to infuse how much liquidity into the market ?
(A) Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Rs. 30,000 crore
(C) Rs. 40,000 crore
(D) Rs. 50,000 crore
(E) None of these
25. As per the reports published in the newspapers recently Indian Rupee was on depreciation and there was a time when the depreciation was about 17% in six months. Which of the following was/were the main cause(s) of this continuous fall ?
1. Foreign fund flow was very low.
2. There was heavy demand for the US dollar in the local forex market.
3. RBI all of a sudden decided to lower the CRR.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 only
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
26. The issues related to the Land Acquisition for setting-up ‘Special Economic Zones (SEZs)’ is frequently seen in the newspapers these days. As per existing laws maximum how much area is allowed to be acquired for a SEZ ?
(A) 1000 hectares
(B) 2000 hectares
(C) 3000 hectares
(D) 5000 hectares
(E) None of these
27. Shibu Soren took over as the new Chief Minister of—
(A) Bihar
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Uttarakhand
(E) None of these
28. Which of the following was one of the major point of disagreement between various countries over which the talks at World Trade Organisation (WTO) got collapsed recently ?
(A) Subsidy to farmers
(B) Providing special status to India
(C) Drafting a new constitution for WTO
(D) Drafting a common Trade Policy for next 5 years
(E) None of these
29. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Lifetime Achievement Award at the 54th National Film Award Ceremony ?
(A) Dilip Kumar
(B) Shashi Kapoor
(C) Rekha
(D) Hema Malini
(E) Mrinal Sen
30. The support price of which of the following commodities was raised by 33%-40% recently to make it Rs. 2,500 per quintal ?
(A) Cotton
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Wheat
(D) Palm Oil
(E) None of these
31. Who amongst the following cricketers made a World Record of 12 Sixes in a One Day International Match recently ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Xavier Marshall
(C) Muttiah Muralitharan
(D) Mike Hussey
(E) None of these
32. Which of the following cities became the first 100% e-literate city of India ?
(A) Pune
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Kozhikode
(D) Jaipur
(E) Bangalore
33. As we all know India will continue to be a net importer of steel as the demand of the same is likely to increase by about 11% in days to come. What is the percentage growth in inland production of steel ?
(A) 3%
(B) 5%
(C) 7%
(D) 8%
(E) 10%
34. International Literacy Day is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) September 18
(B) September 8
(C) October 18
(D) October 8
(E) None of these
35. Which of the following teams won the Durand Cup Football played in New Delhi in September 2008 ?
(A) Tata Motors
(B) Indian Railways
(C) Churchill Brothers
(D) Mahindra United
(E) None of these
36. Which of the following is/are part of New National Biofuel Policy 2008 launched by the Govt. of India ?
1. Minimum Support Price with a provision of periodic revision.
2. No duties or taxes would be levied on Biodiesel.
3. Biodiesel production to be taken up from non-edible oil seeds in waste/marginal lands.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
37. Who amongst the following was given the Mahatma Gandhi Award for Reconciliation and Peace 2008 ?
(A) Akio Ishii
(B) Bill Gates
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Prince Charles
(E) None of these
38. Which of the following is/are some of the recommendations of the Raghurajan Committee on financial sector reforms ?
1. Target inflation control rather than controlling money supply.
2. Open Corporate and Govt. Bond markets.
3. Provide liberal regulations for mergers and acquisitions.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
39. Which of the following countries is passing through a crisis called as ‘Darfur Humanitarian Crisis’ ?
(A) `Uganda
(B) Somalia
(C) Sudan
(D) Sierra Leone
(E) None of these
40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Inside Third World’ ?
(A) Amit Choudhury
(B) William Goldings
(C) V. Harrison
(D) Nana Palkiwala
(E) None of these
41. The ‘18th Safety Olympics’ was organised in—
(A) Seoul
(B) Berlin
(C) London
(D) Moscow
(E) New York
42. Mahendra Kapoor who died recently was a famous—
(A) Politician
(B) Social Worker
(C) Journalist
(D) Sportsman
(E) Playback Singer
43. The Prime Minister of India recently released the Economic Outlook for 2008-09. According to the document Indian economy will grow at what rate during the period of the review ?
(A) 7·7%
(B) 8%
(C) 8·33%
(D) 9·7%
(E) None of these
44. The 48th National Open Athletics Championship was held at—
(A) Kochi
(B) Delhi
(C) Jaipur
(D) Lucknow
(E) Panaji
45. Which of the following countries refused to ratify the ‘Lisbon Treaty’, a very crucial agreement for reforms in the constitution of the European Union ?
(A) Russia
(B) Poland
(C) Germany
(D) France
(E) Italy
46. Which of the following is not an Employment Generating Programme of the Govt. of India ?
(A) NREGA
(B) SGRY
(C) SGSY
(D) TRYSEM
(E) CAMELS
47. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Other Side of Midnight’ ?
(A) Salman Rushdie
(B) Katherine Mayo
(C) Ernest Hamingway
(D) H. G. Wells
(E) Sydney Sheldon
48. China recently resolved its border dispute with which of the following countries ?
(As per agreement Yinlong island will be handed over to China.)
(A) Mongolia
(B) Japan
(C) India
(D) Taiwan
(E) Russia
49. Agha Khan Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Cricket
(B) Football
(C) Badminton
(D) Golf
(E) Hockey
50. Two new countries recently signed the protocols to become the member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
These countries are—
(A) Ukraine–Croatia
(B) Croatia–Albania
(C) Georgia–Russia
(D) Georgia–Croatia
(E) None of these
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (E)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (E) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (E) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (E)
41. (A) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (E) 47. (E) 48. (E) 49. (E) 50. (E)