Computer Knowledge Questions

1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a ___ wavy underline appears below the word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
2. The _____ button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered ___
(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
4. ________ Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of data.
(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
5. A _________ represent approximately one billion memory locations.
(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
6. ______ cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
7. The operating system is the most common type of ______________ software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are ____
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called ___
(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, __________ to erase to the right of the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key
(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:
A provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
B manage the central processing unit (CPU).
C manage memory and storage.
D enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans (D)
12. During the boot process, the ____________ looks for the system files.
A CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
AnS (B)
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
A GUIs
B Icons
C Menus
D Windows
Answer: C
14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple programs at the same time.
A Multitasking
B Streamlining
C Multiuser
D Simulcasting
Answer: A
15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in need of immediate attention is called an:
A action.
B event.
C interrupt.
D activity.
Answer: C
16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________ to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
A CPU
B slice of time
C stack
D event
Answer: B
17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact with are known as:
A application programming interfaces (APIs).
B complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
C device drivers.
D bootstrap loaders.
Answer: A
18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.
A point-and-click
B user-friendly
C command-driven
D Mac
Answer: C
19. An interrupt handler is a(n):
A location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
B peripheral device.
C utility program.
D special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Answer: D
20. A spooler is a(n):
A location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
B print job.
C program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
D message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Answer: C
21. Virtual memory is typically located:
A on a floppy disk.
B in the CPU.
C in a flash card.
D on the hard drive.
Answer: D
22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:
A maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
B hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
C prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
D allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Answer: B
23. The definition of thrashing is:
A swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
B insufficient hard disk space.
C too many processors being managed by the operating system.
D inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Answer: A
24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:
A Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
B Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
C Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
D Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Answer: B
25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
A configuration.
B accessibility.
C authentication.
D logging in.
Answer: C
26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the computer’s:
A CPU.
B platform.
C BIOS.
D CMOS.
Answer: B
27. The following message generally means:
A a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
B the CD drive is not functioning.
C the BIOS is corrupted.
D there is a problem loading a device.
Answer: A
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the boot-up process?
A Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
B Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
C Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
D Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Answer: B
29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
A load the operating system into RAM.
B the power-on self-test.
C activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
D load application programs.
Answer: D
30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
A BIOS
B API
C device driver
D supervisor program
Answer: A
31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:
A RAM.
B ROM.
C the CPU.
D the hard drive.
Answer: B
32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the ____________ process.
A configuration
B CMOS
C POST
D ROM
Answer: C
33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the:
A registry.
B API.
C CMOS.
D kernel.
Answer: D
34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
A The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
B The video card and video memory are tested.
C The BIOS identification process occurs.
D Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Answer: A
35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT:
A any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
B the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be manually changed.
C this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
D virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Answer: A
36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
A files.
B folders.
D drives.
D systems.
Answer: D
37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT:
A windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
B windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
C more than one window can be open at a time.
D toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Answer: A
38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT:
A A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
B Files can be generated from an application.
C Files are stored in RAM.
D Files should be organized in folders.
Answer: C
39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates:
A an open folder.
B the folder contains subfolders.
C a text file.
D a graphics file.
Answer: B
40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder, the best viewing option is the __________ view.
A List
B Thumbnails
C Details
D Icon
Answer: C

Reasoning Questions

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)

12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)

14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)

15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :

Letters # Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol # 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3

Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Exam., 2008

General Awareness
(Held on 21-12-2008)

1. Which of the following crops cannot be called a Plantation Crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Oil Palm
(C) Rubber
(D) Coffee
(E) Coconut 2. Which of the following is the name of the spacecraft launched by India as a part of Mission to Moon ?
(A) Moon-1
(B) Chandrayaan-1
(C) Kalpana
(D) RADOM
(E) None of these
3. As per the reports published by the World Bank what percentage of Indian population lives below the new International Poverty Line ?
(A) 30%
(B) 62%
(C) 52%
(D) 42%
(E) 68%
4. Which of the following is not a ‘Social Sector Programme’ run by the Govt. of India ?
(A) National Rural Health Mission
(B) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) Mid-Day Meal Scheme
(D) Integrated Child Development Services
(E) Bharat Nirman
5. In order to augment Credit flow to small and poor borrowers, commercial banks are required to provide how much percentage of their priority sector advances to weaker sections of the society ?
(A) 15%
(B) 20%
(C) 30%
(D) 25%
(E) 35%
6. As reported in some newspapers/magazines a large number of children/infants are falling sick because of the use of melamine contaminated dairy products in the world. Due to this many countries like Africa, Japan, Singapore, etc. have stopped import of these products. Which of the following countries was the main exporter of such products ?
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Pakistan
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
7. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the programme launched in India for the economic empowerment of persons with severe to profound disabilities ?
(A) ARUNIM
(B) NREGA
(C) GCMMF
(D) UNCTAD
(E) SCOPE
8. As per the recommendations of the 12th Finance Commission, what will be the share of the State Govts. in total shareable proceeds of Central taxes ?
(A) 15%
(B) 20·5%
(C) 22%
(D) 30·5%
(E) 35·5%
9. Which of the following is/are objective(s) of the ‘Rural Drinking water supply Programme’ launched by the Govt. of India ?
1. Supply safe drinking water to all villages.
2. Assisting local communities to maintain sources of safe drinking water in good condition.
3. Giving special attention for water supply to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
10. Which of the following is not a Source of Tax Revenue collected by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Custom Duty
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Income Tax
(D) Service Tax
(E) Dividends and Profits
11. Asif Ali Zardari who has taken over as the new President of Pakistan is from which of the following political Parties ?
(A) Pakistan Muslim League
(B) Awami League
(C) Pakistan People’s Party
(D) Pakistan National Congress
(E) None of these
12. India is now out of the nuclear sanction imposed on it about 16 years back. This sanction was imposed by which of the following organisations ?
(A) Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
(B) Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
(C) INTERPOL
(D) UN Security Council
(E) None of these
13. Very often we read in newspapers about the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Through Automatic Route. What is meant by Automatic Route ?
1. It is a process which allows foreign investors to trade shares of any Indian Company on day-to-day basis openly in stock markets.
2. It is a process by which Indian Companies are allowed to issue shares to any foreign investor as a part of their paid up Capital in the project in which they have made an investment.
3. It is a process in which all foreign investors are asked to make all their investments in Indian projects in rupee currency only and that too in cash only. Technical knowhow or any other type of participation is not allowed as a part of investment.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
14. The Govt. of India is planning to introduce a ‘National Security Exception Act’ in the Parliament, which will work on the lines of Exxon-Florio provision prevalent in the USA. What is the purpose of the proposed Act ?
1. The Act is a part of Indo-US Nuclear Pact as this only will allow India to start building nuclear facilities in the country.
2. The Act will empower the Govt. of India to stall any foreign Company from acquiring any local asset (FDI) if it is found to be compromising with national security.
3. The Act will empower the Govt. of India to control terrorism in a better way as all e-services will be under thorough scrutiny by security agencies.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
15. Which of the following is not included in the list of UN Millennium Goals ?
(A) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
(B) Develop a global partnership for development
(C) Promote Gender equality
(D) Reduce Child Mortality
(E) Make World Nuclear free
16. Which of the following agencies/bodies has asked all foreign funds to come forward and register itself as Foreign Institutional Investments (FIIs) prior to any investment in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) IBA
(D) Registrar of Companies
(E) None of these
17. Who amongst the following Indian players could not win any medal in Beijing Olympic 2008 ?
(A) Sushil Kumar
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Anjali Bhagwat
(D) Jitendra Kumar
(E) Saina Nehwal
18. India recently signed an agreement in the field of hydrocarbon with which of the following countries for which Hernan Martinez Torres, Minister of Energy of that country was in India ?
(A) Zambia
(B) Ukraine
(C) Colombia
(D) Turkey
(E) None of these
19. Which of the following countries has asked India to scrap Kosi River Pact, the river which created a havoc in Bihar recently ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan
(C) China
(D) Nepal
(E) Bhutan
20. Which of the following is the amount of the relief package announced by the Prime Minister of India for Flood-hit Bihar ?
(A) Rs. 1000 crore
(B) Rs. 1010 crore
(C) Rs. 1050 crore
(D) Rs. 1100 crore
(E) Rs. 1120 crore
21. As reported in the newspapers some people are of the opinion that India may not be able to achieve its export targets set for the year 2008-09. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) of their worry ?
1. There was a major flood in some parts of Bihar, Orissa, Gujarat and some other States recently, owing to which fruit/horticultural crop has not reached export markets in sufficient quantity.
2. Rupee is frequently getting depreciated against US dollar.
3. Some major economies of the world are passing through the phase of economic recession. Hence many export orders are cancelled.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3 only
(E) None of these
22. While talking to the Press/Media/Group of experts in Singapore the former Governor of RBI, Dr. Y. V. Reddy, said that the impact of global financial turmoil will be less on Asia. What in opinion of the people like Dr. Reddy are the strengths of Asian Financial System which will help it to sustain the turmoil ? (Pick-up correct statement(s) as your answer.)
1. Banks in Asia are better capitalized and are not much exposed to sophisticated derivatives.
2. Asian economies were in a high growth mode and hence they have better ability to withstand the crisis.
3. Most of the Asian countries used to enjoy a strong fiscal position and current account surpluses in the past. This has given them an ability to bail out a failing financial institution in case it appeared.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
23. Subsequent to the RBI’s move of reducing the CRR, the industry Chambers in India are demanding for softened interest rates. How will this demand of softened interest rates help the industry ?
1. It will give a push-up to new investments and augment the demand of new proposals for more credits.
2. The move will help in creation of many new employment opportunities.
3. It will strengthen the position of the Stock Markets in India.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
24. The recent decision of the RBI to cut Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 150 basis points (October 2008) will be able to infuse how much liquidity into the market ?
(A) Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Rs. 30,000 crore
(C) Rs. 40,000 crore
(D) Rs. 50,000 crore
(E) None of these
25. As per the reports published in the newspapers recently Indian Rupee was on depreciation and there was a time when the depreciation was about 17% in six months. Which of the following was/were the main cause(s) of this continuous fall ?
1. Foreign fund flow was very low.
2. There was heavy demand for the US dollar in the local forex market.
3. RBI all of a sudden decided to lower the CRR.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 only
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
26. The issues related to the Land Acquisition for setting-up ‘Special Economic Zones (SEZs)’ is frequently seen in the newspapers these days. As per existing laws maximum how much area is allowed to be acquired for a SEZ ?
(A) 1000 hectares
(B) 2000 hectares
(C) 3000 hectares
(D) 5000 hectares
(E) None of these
27. Shibu Soren took over as the new Chief Minister of—
(A) Bihar
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Uttarakhand
(E) None of these
28. Which of the following was one of the major point of disagreement between various countries over which the talks at World Trade Organisation (WTO) got collapsed recently ?
(A) Subsidy to farmers
(B) Providing special status to India
(C) Drafting a new constitution for WTO
(D) Drafting a common Trade Policy for next 5 years
(E) None of these
29. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Lifetime Achievement Award at the 54th National Film Award Ceremony ?
(A) Dilip Kumar
(B) Shashi Kapoor
(C) Rekha
(D) Hema Malini
(E) Mrinal Sen
30. The support price of which of the following commodities was raised by 33%-40% recently to make it Rs. 2,500 per quintal ?
(A) Cotton
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Wheat
(D) Palm Oil
(E) None of these
31. Who amongst the following cricketers made a World Record of 12 Sixes in a One Day International Match recently ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Xavier Marshall
(C) Muttiah Muralitharan
(D) Mike Hussey
(E) None of these
32. Which of the following cities became the first 100% e-literate city of India ?
(A) Pune
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Kozhikode
(D) Jaipur
(E) Bangalore
33. As we all know India will continue to be a net importer of steel as the demand of the same is likely to increase by about 11% in days to come. What is the percentage growth in inland production of steel ?
(A) 3%
(B) 5%
(C) 7%
(D) 8%
(E) 10%
34. International Literacy Day is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) September 18
(B) September 8
(C) October 18
(D) October 8
(E) None of these
35. Which of the following teams won the Durand Cup Football played in New Delhi in September 2008 ?
(A) Tata Motors
(B) Indian Railways
(C) Churchill Brothers
(D) Mahindra United
(E) None of these
36. Which of the following is/are part of New National Biofuel Policy 2008 launched by the Govt. of India ?
1. Minimum Support Price with a provision of periodic revision.
2. No duties or taxes would be levied on Biodiesel.
3. Biodiesel production to be taken up from non-edible oil seeds in waste/marginal lands.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
37. Who amongst the following was given the Mahatma Gandhi Award for Reconciliation and Peace 2008 ?
(A) Akio Ishii
(B) Bill Gates
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Prince Charles
(E) None of these
38. Which of the following is/are some of the recommendations of the Raghurajan Committee on financial sector reforms ?
1. Target inflation control rather than controlling money supply.
2. Open Corporate and Govt. Bond markets.
3. Provide liberal regulations for mergers and acquisitions.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
39. Which of the following countries is passing through a crisis called as ‘Darfur Humanitarian Crisis’ ?
(A) `Uganda
(B) Somalia
(C) Sudan
(D) Sierra Leone
(E) None of these
40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Inside Third World’ ?
(A) Amit Choudhury
(B) William Goldings
(C) V. Harrison
(D) Nana Palkiwala
(E) None of these
41. The ‘18th Safety Olympics’ was organised in—
(A) Seoul
(B) Berlin
(C) London
(D) Moscow
(E) New York
42. Mahendra Kapoor who died recently was a famous—
(A) Politician
(B) Social Worker
(C) Journalist
(D) Sportsman
(E) Playback Singer
43. The Prime Minister of India recently released the Economic Outlook for 2008-09. According to the document Indian economy will grow at what rate during the period of the review ?
(A) 7·7%
(B) 8%
(C) 8·33%
(D) 9·7%
(E) None of these
44. The 48th National Open Athletics Championship was held at—
(A) Kochi
(B) Delhi
(C) Jaipur
(D) Lucknow
(E) Panaji
45. Which of the following countries refused to ratify the ‘Lisbon Treaty’, a very crucial agreement for reforms in the constitution of the European Union ?
(A) Russia
(B) Poland
(C) Germany
(D) France
(E) Italy
46. Which of the following is not an Employment Generating Programme of the Govt. of India ?
(A) NREGA
(B) SGRY
(C) SGSY
(D) TRYSEM
(E) CAMELS
47. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Other Side of Midnight’ ?
(A) Salman Rushdie
(B) Katherine Mayo
(C) Ernest Hamingway
(D) H. G. Wells
(E) Sydney Sheldon
48. China recently resolved its border dispute with which of the following countries ?
(As per agreement Yinlong island will be handed over to China.)
(A) Mongolia
(B) Japan
(C) India
(D) Taiwan
(E) Russia
49. Agha Khan Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Cricket
(B) Football
(C) Badminton
(D) Golf
(E) Hockey
50. Two new countries recently signed the protocols to become the member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
These countries are—
(A) Ukraine–Croatia
(B) Croatia–Albania
(C) Georgia–Russia
(D) Georgia–Croatia
(E) None of these
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (E)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (E) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (E) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (E)
41. (A) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (E) 47. (E) 48. (E) 49. (E) 50. (E)

Inspector Grade II Food & Civil Supplies Punjab Model Paper

1. The maximum length of a pencil that can by kept in a rectangular box of dimensions 8 cm × 6 cm × 2 cm, is
(A) 2 root(13) cm
(B) 2 root(14) cm
(C) 2 root(26) cm
(D) 10 root(2) cm
2. What is the smallest number by which 3600 be divided to make it a perfect cube?
(A) 9
(B) 450
(C) 50
(D) 300
3. A two-digit number is such that the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the number, then the number is reversed. The number is
(A) 18
(B) 42
(C) 81
(D) 24
4. The edges of a cuboids are in the ratio 1: 2: 3 and its surface area is 88 cm2 . The volume of the cuboids is
(A) 24 cm³
(B) 48 cm³
(C) 64 cm³
(D) 120 cm³
5. In a school 10% of the boys are same in number as ¼ th of the girls. What is the ratio of boys to girls in the school?
(A) 3 : 2
(B) 5 : 2
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 4 : 3
6. X got 30% concession on the labeled price of an article and sold it for Rs. 8750 with 25% profit on the price she bought. What was the labeled price ?
(A) Rs. 16,000
(B) Rs. 12,000
(C) Rs. 10,000
(D) None of the above
7. A vendor loses the selling price of 4 oranges on selling 36 oranges. Her loss per cent is
(A) 10%
(B) 11 1/9 %
(C) 12 ½ %
(D) None of the above
8. In a camp, 95 men had provisions for 200 days. After 5 days, 30 men left the camp. For how many days will the remaining food last now?
(A) 180
(B) 285
(C) 139 16/19
(D) 28.5
9. The ratio of the incomes of A and B is 5: 4 and the ratio of their expenditure is 3 : 2. If at the end of each year, each saves Rs. 1600, then the income of A is
(A) Rs. 3400
(B) Rs. 3600
(C) Rs. 4000
(D) Rs. 4400
10. Half of 1 per cent is equal to
(A) 0.005
(B) 0.05
(C) 0.02
(D) 0.2
11. If 3/5th of a cistern is filled in 1 minute, how much more time will be required to fill the rest of it?
(A) 40 sec
(B) 30 sec
(C) 36 sec
(D) 24 sec
12. In what ratio must water be mixed with milk costing Rs. 12 per liter to obtain a mixture worth Rs. 8 per liter?
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 3 : 2
13. X and Y enter into a partnership. X contributes Rs. 8000 and Y contributes Rs. 10000. At the end of six months they introduce Z, who contributes Rs. 6000. After the lapse of three years, they find that the firm has made a profit of Rs. 9660. Find the share of each.(in Rs.)
(A)X-3240, Y-4200, Z-2200
(B) X-3360, Y-4400, Z-2100
(C) X-3360, Y-4200, Z-2100
(D) 3260, Y-4000, Z-2200
14. Umedh Singh and Zorawar Singh invested in a business. They earned some profit which they divided in the ratio 2:3. If Umedh Singh invested Rs. 24, the amount invested by Zorawar Singh was
(A) Rs. 36
(B) Rs. 16
(C) Rs. 30
(D) Rs. 48
15. A number was divided successively in order by 4, 5 and 6. The remainders were respectively 2, 3 and 4. The number is
(A) 214
(B) 476
(C) 954
(D) 1908
16. The difference between simple and compound interest @ 10% per annum on a sum of Rs. 1000 after 4 years is
(A) Rs. 31
(B) Rs. 32.10
(C) Rs. 40.40
(D) Rs. 64.10
17. The ratio of the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 400 kms in 4 hours, then the speed of the first train is
(A) 70 km/hr
(B) 75 km/hr
(C) 84 km/hr
(D) 87.5 km/hr
18. In 10 years, A will be twice as old as B was 10 years ago. If A is now 9 years older than B, the present age of B is
(A)29years
(B) 19 years
(C) 49 years
(D) 39 years
19. Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If A is open all the time and B and C are open for one hour each alternately, the tank will be full in
(A) 6 hours
(B) 6 2/3 hours
(C) 7 hours
(D) 7 ½ hours
20. The present ages of three persons are in proportions 4: 7: 9. Eight years ago, the sum of their ages was 56. Find their present ages (in years)
(A) 20, 35, 45
(B) 8, 20, 28
(C) 16, 28, 36
(D) 20, 36, 46
Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q 21- 25): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.
At a party A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a circle. The group comprises a professor, an industrialist and a businessman. The industrialist and his wife D. A the professor is married to E, who is the sister of B. the industrialist is seated to the right of C. Both the ladies are unemployed.
21. Who among them must be graduate?
(A) B
(B) A
(C) C
(D) None of these
22. What is A to B?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Brother- in- law
(D) Cannot be determined
23. A is sitting to the right of
(A) Industrialist
(B) His wife
(C) D
(D) Cannot be determined
24. Who is the industrialist?
(A) D
(B) A
(C) B
(D) Cannot be determined
25. Who in the group is unmarried?
(A) Professor
(B) Industrialist
(C) Businessman
(D) Cannot be determined
Directions (Q 26-30): Read the following and answer questions given below it. In a certain code language: (I) ‘481’ means ‘Sky is blue’; (ii) ‘246’ means ‘Sea is deep’; and (iii) ‘698’ means ‘Sea looks blue’.
26. What number is the code for ‘deep’?
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 1
27. What number is the code for ‘blue’?
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 1
(D) 9
28. What number is the code for ‘sea’?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
29. What number is the code for ‘looks’?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 9
30. What number is the code for ‘is’?
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 2
31. What is the 6th term in the sequence of 2, 3, 6, 11, 18 ?
(A) 25
(B) 27
(C) 29
(D) 31
32. Let a number of three digits have for its middle digit the sum of the other two digits. Then it is a multiple of—
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 18
(D) 50
33. If X and Y are brothers; Z is sister of X; P is brother of Q; and Q is daughter of Y. Then who is the uncle of P ?
(A) Z
(B) X
(C) Q
(D) Y
DIRECTIONS: Read the following data and use if for answering the questions that follow.
Six people A,B,C,D,E and F live in a six-storey building, each on one floor. The following statements describe where they stay.
B lives on floor 6
A is equally far from C and E
F is an engineer
D is two floors above F
C does not live nest to an engineer
34. Which of the following is true?
(A) C lives on floor 4
(B) A is exactly between D and F
(C) E is on floor 5
(D) B is on floor 5
35. If statement 5 is disregarded, which floor does A stay on?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 1
36. Which of the following is not true?
(A) F is not next to D
(B) C is between B and D
(C) E lives on floor 2
(D) B is on floor 6
37. In a group of 15 women, 7 have nose studs, 8 have ear rings and 3 have neither. How may of these have both nose studs and ear rings
(A) 2
(B) 7
(C) 3
(D) 40
38. A boy started walking from a point towards north. He turned right at right angles. In what direction is he ultimately walking?
(A) South
(B) North
(C) East
(D) West
39. Prema has a son named Rajib. Amulya is Prema’s brother. Ritu too has a daughter named Sweta. Ritu is Amulya’s sister. What is Rajib’s relationship to Sweta?
(A) Brother in Law
(B) Cousin
(C) uncle
(D) Son
40. A clock seen through a mirror shows 8 o’clock. What is the correct time?
(A) 12.20
(B) 4.00
(C) 12.40
(D) 8.00
General Awareness
41. Who was the first Governor of Punjab?
(A) Mr. Chandu Lal Trivedi
(B) Bansilal
(C) Gopi Chand
(D) Amrinder Singh
42. Who is the first lady Deputy commissioner of Punjab?
(A) Ms. Vini Chohan
(B) Ms. Vini Mahajan
(C) Ms. Kiran Bedi
(D) None of these
43. Where is the Sikh Heritage Complex developed?
(A) Mansa
(B) Amritsar
(C) Ropar
(D) Anandpur Sahib
44. Who is the first Punjabi novelist to get Jananpith Award?
(A) Sr. Nanak Singh
(B) Sr. Gurdial Singh
(C) Sr. Gurdial Duggal
(D) Sr. Nanak Duggal
45. When was the use of Punjabi made compulsory in the year?
(A) 1990
(B) 1991
(C) 1992
(D) 1994
46. Who is the Governor of Punjab?
(A) Gen. S.E. Rodrigues
(B) Prakash Singh Badal
(C) Mr. Butta Singh
(D) Shiv Raj Patil
47. When was the Punjabi declared as a official language in Punjab?
(A) 1766
(B) 1867
(C) 1966
(D) 1967
48. When was SGPC established in Punjab?
(A) 1970
(B) 1925
(C) 1922
(D) 1924
49. Who was the first Sikh ruler of Punjab?
(A) Guru Nanak Dev
(B) Maharaja Ranjit Singh
(C) Bhai Lakha Singh
(D) Maharaja Kamaljit Singh
50. Which is the most famous temple of Punjab?
(A) Golden Temple
(B) Temple of Sikh Guru
(C) Nanak Temple
(D) Heritage Temple
51. Which State of India has the highest population density?
(A)UP
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Bihar
52. The electoral college that elects the Vice-President of India consists of:
(A) Members of Rajya Sabha only
(B) Elected Members of both the Houses of Parliament
(C) Elected Members of both the Houses of Parliament
(D) Members of the Rajya sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of States
53. Who won best actress award in56th National Film Awards 2010 ?
(A) Aisawarya Rai
(B) Priyanka Chopra
(C) Kangana Ranaut
(D) Kareena Kapoor
54. Who among the following won Nobel Prize for Chemistry in 2009 ?
(A) Venkatraman Ramakrishnan
(B) Thomas A. Steitz
(C) Ada E. Yonath
(D) All of the above
55. The runner up in 2009 Wimbledon women’s singles is
(A) Venus William
(B) Serena William
(C) Dinara Safina
(D) Svetlana Kuznetsova
56. In which following city, Summit of Foreign Ministers of SAARC nations took place in February 2009 ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Dhaka
(C) Kathmandu
(D) Colombo
57. Magsaysay Awards are not given in which of the following categories ?
(A) Literature
(B) Peace and International Understanding
(C) Music
(D) Public service
58. The 2011 Census would be the
(A) 13th Census
(B) 14th Census
(C) 15th Census
(D) 16th Census
59. Which one of the following countries has the longest international boundary with India?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Bhutan
(C) China
(D) Pakistan
60. Which novel won the Bookers of bookers
(A) Freedom at midnight
(B) Midnight Summer
(C) Midnight Children
(D) Midnight Black

HOME SCIENCE OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. What causes warts?

(a) Bacteria

(b) Virus

(c) Poor hygiene

(d) Toads

2. Bipolar neurons are nerve cells that have

(a) a single dendrite at the end of the cell and single axon. at the other

(b) several axons and a single dendrite

(c) many dendrites and a single neuron

(d) a single branch which after leaving the cell body divides into two directions

3. Which of the following can damage a

(d) we don’t know any more about the baby’s growing brain?

(a) Teratogens

(b) Certain diseases during pregnancy

(c) Early child abuse and neglect

(d) All of the above

4. What a baby experiences in infancy can

(a) affect its IQ

(b) determine which brain pathways develop

(c) affect its capacity to form loving relationships as an adult

(d) all of the above

5. What is the definition of health?

(a) The absence of disease or infirmity

(b) A state of being easily quantifiable

(c) A state of complete physical, mental arid social well being

(d) A state of being subjectively assessed by individuals

6. The only way to stop the spread of HIV infection is through

(a) regular treatment of infected persons

(b) isolation of infected persons

(c) prevention

(d) voiding direct contact with infected person

7. Isotonic exercise is an exercise where

(a) a muscle changes in length but the tone remains the same

(b) the length of the muscle does not change but there is a change in the tone

(c) the tone of the muscle is constant

(d) the muscle becomes longer and thicker as the origin and insertion move away from each other

8. Breast feeding is often blamed for:

(a) lack of sleep

(b) headaches

(c) marriage problems

(d) all the above

9. Developing the capacity for attachment in the earliest years of life is important because:

(a) it is the only time . a person can develop the capacity to have intimate, loving relationships

(b) intimate attachments with other human beings are the most fundamental source of satisfaction in life

(c) human beings have evolved as social animals and anything that interferes with their capacity to be social runs against human nature

(d) all the above

10. The younger sibling eventually learns to get the parents help when being bothered by the older sibling. At which stage does this occur?

(a) Between 11 and 13 months

(b) Before 10 months of age

(c) Between 16 and 18 months

(d) None of the above

11. Reaction formation refers to the behaviour of a person who is trying toward off anxiety-causing and unacceptable impulses. To do this the person

(a) will often stutter

(b) will speak out against the behaviour which he himself is trying to suppress and will usually over emphasize his opinion

(c) will make excuses for his behaviour

(d) none of the above

12. The younger sibling learns eventually that he or she too can be aggressive rind cause problems for the older sibling. At what age does this usually occur?

(a) 10 to 12 months

(b) 12. to 14 months

(c) 14 to 16 months

(d) over 16 months

13. some babies who are just beginning to develop emotional attachments and some degree of communication have a difficult time with strangers. Why is this?

(a) The stranger may not hold the baby properly

(b) The stranger may miss subtle cues from the baby and then not meet the baby’s expectations. This may confuse the baby

(c) The stranger may look like someone the baby does not like

(d) The stranger’s voice may be upsetting to the baby

14. How has evolution determined a baby’s needs?

(a) Evolution has nothing to do with the needs of today’s babies

(b) Continental drift

(c) Only the babies that survived had children

(d) Global warming

15. The ability to successfully cope with ones own emotions and those others is known as

(a) Theory of mind

(b) Internal working model

(c) Emotional competence

(d) Strange situation

16. What is the best kind of fish for your heart?

(a) Walleye

(b) Northern

(c) Goldfish

(d) Salmon

17. How many servings of fruits and vegetables should you have everyday?

(a) 1-3

(b) 2-6

(c) 5-9

(d) 10-12

18. Which of the following puts your heart at risk?

(a) Cigarette smoking

(b) High blood pressure

(c) High cholesterol levels

(d) All of the above

19. Dentists recommend that you brush your teeth

(a) twice a day

(b) after each and every meal

(c) when you start getting a funny taste in your mouth

(d) its a personal preference and varies among people

20. How many calories does water contain?

(a) 50

(b) 100

(c) 200

(d) None

21. What is Threonine?

(a) A Mineral

(a) Ammo Acid

(c) Vitamin C

(d) None of these

22. What percentage of our daily calorie intake (energy) should come from carbohydrates?

(a) 50 per cent

(b) 80 per cent

(c) 100 per cent

(d) Zero per cent

23. Alzheimer’s disease:

(a) begins abruptly

(b) progresses slowly

(c) progresses in three stages.

(d) is present from birth, but the symptoms appear only after age 65

24. Children who drank about three 12- ounce sodas daily for 10 weeks gained

(a) one pound

(b) five pounds

(c) seven pounds

(d) lost weight

25 What is the best way to prevent back injury?

(a) Exercise to strengthen your back and reduce stress

(b) Lose excess weight

(c) Maintain good posture

(d) All of the above

26. In addition to diabetes, health problems associated with obesity in children include:

(a) increased infections, anaemia and blood clots

(b) hardening of the arteries, early puberty and abnormal skeletal development

(c) vertigo, nausea and amblyopia

(d) chronic hiccups

27. What symptom of Alzheimer’s is present from beginning to end?

(a) Argumentativeness

(b) Poor hygiene

(c) Wandering

(d) Loss of interest and initiative

28. Honey is a

(a) protein

(b) carbohydrate

(c) fat

(d) none of the above

29. Which of the following is not true about skeletal muscles?

(a) They usually link two bones across a joint

(b) They are voluntary muscles, responsible for movement

(c) When they contract, they get larger and longer

(d) They appear “striped” and so are also called striated muscles

30. The heart’s primary function is to pump blood to which two main areas?

(a) Lungs and heart

(b) Lungs and rest of body

(c) Main arteries and the aorta

(d) Capillaries and lungs

31. Duty of care means

(a) Accepting responsibility for other people’s mistakes

(b) Giving out advice and relevant accident forms to injured members

(c) Having a working knowledge of rules

(d) Accepting responsibility for health and safety in workplace

32. What do bones store that can be reabsorbed by the body if needed?

(a) Fat

(b) Minerals

(c) Both a and b

(d) Oxygen

33. What is the shelf life of honey?

(a) A couple of weeks

(b) It needs to be refrigerated after one year

(c) No more than five years

(d) Thousands of years

34. As men age, they tend to accumulate more fat in the:

(a) hips and thighs

(b) waist

(c) calves

(d) none of the above

35. What lifestyle factor aids in the treatment of eczema?

(a) Increase essential fatty acids in your diet

(b) Take Vitamin K

(c) Do more exercise

(d) None of these

36. When is the World Diabetes Day observed?

(a) May 1st

(b) November 14th

(c) June 15th

(d) December 1st

37. Next to bacterially caused gum disease the most common cause of gum disease is

(a) accidents such as football injuries, car crashes, falls

(b) self-inflicted brushing trauma

(c) eating hot and spicy foods

(d) smoking cigarettes and chewing tobacco

38. Which disease is the leading cause of death among women?

(a) Cardiovascular disease

(b) Breast cancer

(c) Colorectal cancer

(d) Lung cancer

39. Orange juice has a lot of which vitamin?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

40. What is the maximum number of egg yolks that you should eat per week?

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

41. What characterizes the interactionist approach to language acquisition?

(a) Language is an interaction between speaker and listener

(b) Language is the link between what you think and what you do

(c) There is a link between the environmental and biological factors in the process of acquiring language

(d) There is a link among different languages

42. What are we led to believe is the source of happiness in a consumer society?

(a) Buying new things

(b) Friends

(c) Community

(d) Family

43. Group care is best for babies because

(a) they will learn to share

(b) one person can easily look after three babies at once

(c) the babies will learn to speak more quickly

(d) none of the above

44. Encouraging or enforcing independence in our babies and young children promotes:

(a) Emotional maturity

(b) Independence

(c) Instills a fundamental belief that their needs will not be met

(d) all of the above

45. The contra indications to cardiovascular machines include

(a) wearing incorre

ct trainers

(b) cardiovascular problems

(c) bending too far over on the rowing machine

(d) incorrect height on the bike

46. To prevent the spread of HIV infection it is vital to:

(a) know the ways by which HIV is spread

(b) combat the superstitions and taboos related to sexual orientation

(c) contradict the persisting myths about HIV and AIDS

(d) all of the above

47. How can health improvements be quantified and measured?

(a) We cannot

(b) Using quality and length of life

(c) Comparing health status to the state of complete physical, mental and social well being

(d) Using only monetary terms

48. If a baby has very frightening things happen to it often enough it can cause

(a) certain brain pathways to develop

(b) certain brain pathways not to develop

(c) permanent changes in the brain

(d) all the above

49. Unconscious memories are memories that:

(a) you can’t remember but can make you feel scared

(b) are created when the hippocampus and cerebral cortex are not involved

(c) are stored in the amygdala and its related parts

(d) all the above

50. Which of the following is controlled by the cerebral cortex?

(a) Movement

(b) Memory

(c) Emotions

(d) Intelligence

Answers

1	b
2	d
3	d
4	c
5	c
6	c
7	b
8	d
9	d
10	c
11	c
12	d
13	b
14	c
15	c
16	d
17	a
18	d
19	b
20	c
21	a
22	a
23	c
24	b
25	d
26	b
27	d
28	b
29	a
30	b
31	d
32	c
33	d
34	b
35	b
36	b
37	d
38	a
39	c
40	c
41	a
42	a
43	a
44	d
45	b
46	d
47	c
48	d
49	a
50	a

KVS navodaya Vidyalaya Music Teacher recruitment Exam Practice Paper

1. Which instrumental has gotfrets?
(A) Violin
(B) Sarangi
(C) Sitar
(D) Tanpura

2. Who is writer of Sangeet Ratnakar?
(A) Kallinath
(B) Lochan
(C) Sharangdev
(D) Mammat

3. Who is not from Maiher Gharana?
(A) Allauddin Khan
(B) Nikhil Banerjee
(C) Pt. Ravi Shankar
(D) Halim Zafer Khan

4. Which Folk dance is from Gujarat?
(A) Giddha
(B) Garva
(C) Ras
(D) Nachani

5. Who is not a Thumri Singer?
(A) Girija Devi
(B) Sharan Rani
(C) Siddheswari Devi
(D) Shobha Gurtu

6. How many main classes of Musical Instruments?
(A)Three
(B) Four
(C)Five
(D) Six

7. Who is not a Sitar player?
(A) Ravi Shankar
(B) Shivkumar Sharma
(C) Buddhaditya Mukherjee
(D) Rahim Khan

8. Who is not mainly a Dhrupad singer?
(A) Bhimsen Joshi
(B) Fahimuddin Dagar
(C) Gundecha Bandhu
(D) A. Rahimuddin Dagar

9. Write the name of person who has contributed utmost in the field of Music Aesthetic—
(A) S.K. Saxena
(B) Ashok Ranade
(C) B.C. Deva
(D) K.C.D. Brthaspati

10. Who mastered all the four main styles of labia?
(A) Abmad Jan Thirakwa
(B) Samta Prasad
(C) Kishan Maharaja
(D) Munne Khan

11. How many Matras in Basant Tal?
(A)5
(B)7
(C)9
(D)11

12. A famous Karnatak percussionist
(A) Palghat Mani Iyer
(B) T. R. Mahalingam
(C) Madurai Mani Iyer
(D) Chembai Vaidyanatha Bhagavatar

13. A vocalist of the 20th century—
(A) Chembai Vaidyanatha Iyer
(B) Muthuswami Dikshitar
(C) Tyagaraja
(D) Subramanya Bharati

14. Raga Puranira figures in
(A) Kathakali
(B) Odissi
(C) Kuchipudi
(D) Bharatanatyam

15. The Lady who established Kalakshetra?
(A) Rukminidevi Arundale
(B) Sarasawathi Bai
(C) M. S. Subhalakshami
(D) D. K. Pattammal

16. The 9th Melakartha
(A)Dhenuka
(B)Natakapriya
(C) Keeravani
(D) Natabhairavi

17. The great singer of Hindustani Classical Music Tagore has
remembered whole life
(A) Faiaz Khan
(B) Bishm Chakravarty
(C) Jagannath Bhattacharyya
(D) Kesharbai Kerker

18. The book consisiting Tagor’s concept of Music is—
(A) Sangeet-o-Bhav
(B) Sangitor Dharma
(C) Sangitor Mukti
(D) Sangit Chinta

19. The distance from Meru to Madhyam on the string of Veena
(A) 6”
(B) 8”
(C) 9”
(D) 12”

20. Matra of initial Swara of Masitkharii Gat
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12

21. Dha, Ni, Re, Sa Swara is of which Raga?
(A) Ahir Bhairav
(B) Todi
(C) Marva
(D) Bhairavi

22. ‘Udgata’ is concerned with which Gan?
(A) Dhrupad
(B) Tappa
(C)Lavani
(D) Sam

23. Commercial music teaching centres
(A) Gandharva Sangeet Vidyalaya
(B) University
(C) Sangeet Natak Academy
(D) I.C.C.R.

24. Frequency of notes of Gandhara
(A) 240
(B) 270
(C) 320
(D) 360

25. Chords are used in which Sangeet?
(A)Rabindra
(B) Hindustani
(C)Western
(D) Karnatak.

26. Which musical instrument is more modern?
(A) Tabla
(B) Bheri
(C) Dhundubi
(D) Pakhawaj

27. Which one of the following is a western musicologist?
(A) B. C. Dev
(B) A. N. Jairazbhoi
(C) A.Denelue
(D) Leela Omchiri

28. Dr. Lalmani Mishra played which instrument?
(A)Veena
(B) Sarod
(C) Guitar
(D) Tabla

29. Which of the following is Sangeet Vishvavidyalaya?
(A) Rajasthan University
(B) Indra Kala Sangeet Vishwa vidhyalaya
(C) Agra University
(D) B.H.U.

30. Arrange the Angas of Dhrupad in required form
(A) Sthai, Sanchari, Aabhog, Antara
(B) Aabhog, Sanchari, Antara,Sthai
(C) Antara, Sanchari, Abhog,Sthai
(D) Sthai, Antara, Sanchari, Aabhog

31. Arrange Re, Ga, Ma, Pa, Ni on string of Veena is descending order
(A) 4”, 6’ 9”, 12”, 20”
(B) 6”, 4’ 12”, 9”, 20”
(C) 20’’, 12’’ ,9”, 6’’ ,4 “
(D) 12’’, 9”, 6”, 4”, 20”

32. Which instrument Akbar, the great?
(A) DHOLAK
(B) MRIDANG
(C) NAKKARA
(D) DHOL

33. On which SHRUTI does PANCHAM fall in MADHYAMA
GRAM?
(A) 15th
(B) 16th
(C) 17th
(D) 18th

34. Which is the correct series of Shruties of Shuddy Swaras?
(A) 4324324
(B) 4243234
(C) 3244243
(D) 4324432

35. Name the western musicologist who adopted Hindu religion
(A) Martin Klinton
(B) Alen Danelue
(C) Mooplore
(D) Mark Legi

36. Name the GUITARIST of Hindustani music
(A) Pt. Shivkumar Sharma
(B) Hariprasad Chaurasiya
(C) Buddhaditya Mukharjee
(D) Pt. Brij Bhushan Kabra

37. Assertion (A) : Acharya K.C.D. Brihaspati was well versed in Sanskrit,wrote so many books which explored the mysterious of history etc, was a good singer, writer and a teacher.
Reason (R) Acharya Brihaspati worked a lot in the field of aesthetics and philosophy.
(A) (A) right (R) wrong
(B) (A) wrong (R) wrong
(C) (A) right (R) right
(D) (A) wrong (R) right

38. Assertion (A) : A vocalist who is an expert in Dhrupad he can also sing Khayal well.
Reason (R) : Dhrupad singer who is an expert in Laykari ,his voice is made very mejastic.
(A) (A) true (R) false
(B) (A) false (R) true
(C) (A) and (R) both false
(D) (A) true (R) true

39. In which Gharana of Tabla, Quades of Aadi Laya are mostly
played—
(A)Delhi
(B) Punjab
(C) Ajarada
(D) Farrukhabad

40. The Tall having 11 Matras
(A) Laxmi Taal
(B) GaneshTaal
(C) Rudra Taal
(D) Parvati Taal

ANSWERS:

1	B
2	C
3	A
4	B
5	A
6	B
7	B
8	A
9	D
10	A
11	C
12	B
13	C
14	D
15	A
16	D
17	B
18	C
19	C
20	D
21	A
22	D
23	D
24	C
25	C
26	A
27	C
28	A
29	B
30	D
31	A
32	C
33	B
34	D
35	B
36	D
37	C
38	B
39	C
40	C

RBI Grade B Exam Paper for Year 2009

General Awareness :

1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equality before law.
(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
(c) abolition of titles.
(d) abolition of untouchability.
2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.
(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.
(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.
3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four

4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) absolute monarchy
(c) constitutional monarchy
(d) polity.

5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.

6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.

7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny

8. The Vedas are known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.

9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.

11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.

12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?
(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income

13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in
(a) the agriculture sector.
(b) the factory sector.
(c) the service sector.
(d) All these sectors.

14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.

15. The famous slogan “GARIBI HATAO” (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)

16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which
(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans are floated.
(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.

17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.

18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall

19. Smoke is formed due to
(a) solid dispersed in gas.
(b) solid dispersed in liquid.
(c) gas dispersed in solid.
(d) gas dispersed in gas.

20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.

21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains
(a) Methane.
(b) Ethane and butane.
(c) propane and butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.

22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis

23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red

24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its
(a) better cleaning action.
(b) proper pigmental composition.
(c) high glorious nature.
(d) very low cost.

25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini

26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.

27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar

28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria

29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite

30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK

31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry

32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) ” all other things variable ”
(b) “other things increasing”
(c) “other things being equal”
(d) “all other things decreasing”

33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi

34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.

35. India’s biggest enterprise today is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.
(d) the India Telecommunication System.

36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.

37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India

38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit

39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its
(a) production.
(b) production and sale.
(c) Production and transportation.
(d) Production, transportation and sale.

40. In the US, the President is elected by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.

41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual

42. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing

43. Knowledge, technical skill, education ‘etc.’ in economics, are regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) human capital.
(c) tangible physical capital.
(d) working capital.

44. What is the range of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km

45. Nathu Laa, a place where India-China border trade has been resumed after 44 years, is located on the Indian border in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu and Kashmir.

46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.

47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft developed by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas

48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.

49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be held in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.

50. Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon

51. The title of the book recently written by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour – In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya and Aftermath
(d) Shining India and BJP.

52. What was the original name of “Nurjahan”?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara

53. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878

54. The province of Bengal was partitioned into two parts in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.

55. The essential features of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) worship of forces of nature.
(b) organized city life.
(c) pastoral farming.
(d) caste society.

56. Name the capital of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.

57. The Home Rule League was started by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang

58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb civil liberties.
(b) it proposed to partition India.
(c) it was an all-white commission Indian representation.
(d) it proposed measures for nationalism.

59. Storm of gases are visible in the chamber of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.

60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is associated with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.

61. The age of tree can be determined more or less accurately by
(a) counting the number of branches.
(b) measuring the height ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the diameter of the trunk.
(d) counting the number of rings in the trunk.

62. Of all micro-organisms, the most adaptable and versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae d) Fungi

63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an optical instrument used to see inside the alimentary canal
(b) it is device which is fitted on the chest of the patient to regularize the irregular heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals produced by the human muscles.

64. The disease in which the sugar level increase is known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis

65. The President of India is elected by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies.

66. The nitrogen present in the atmosphere is
(a) of no use to plants.
(b) injurious of plants.
(c) directly utilized by plants.
(d) utilized through micro-organisms.

67. Diamond and Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars

68. Kayak is kind of
(a) tribal tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.

69. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.

70. Rotation of crops means
(a) growing of different crops in succession to maintain soil fertility.
(b) some crops are growing again and again.
(c) two or more crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity.
(d) None of these.

71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron and Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario.

72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.

73. “Slash and Burn agriculture” is the name given to
(a) method of potato cultivation.
(b) process of deforestation.
(c) mixed framing.
(d) shifting cultivation.

74. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is
(a) excessive fuel wood collection.
(b) excessive soil erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) construction of roads.

75. Recharging of water table depends on
(a) amount of rainfall.
(b) relief of the area.
(c) vegetation of the area.
(d) amount of percolation.

Answers Part – I :
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d)
26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c)
36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c)
46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a)
56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d)
66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a)

FORTHCOMING COMPETITIVE EXAMS 2011

2011
January
● Indian Bank Probationary Officers Exam. (January 2)
● Union Bank of India Recruitment Project 2010 for Probationary Officer, Asstt. Manager (Marketing), Asstt. Manager (Rural Development) etc. (January 9)
● S.S.C. Stenographer (Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’) Re-examination, 2010. (January 9)
● Oriental Bank of Commerce Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam. (January 9)


● Punjab and Sind Bank Probationary Officers Scale-I Exam. (January 16)
● Clerical Recruitment Exam. in State Bank of India’s Associate Banks (January 16)
● Corporation Bank Officers Cadre Examination (January 16)
● Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Officers Scale-I Exam. (January 23)
● Punjab and Sind Bank Specialist Officers Exam. (January 23)
● I.D.B.I. Bank Executives Exam. (January 23)
● UCO Bank Probationary Officer in JMGS-I Exam. (January 30)
● GATE 2011 Online Exam. (January 30) (Papers : GG and TF, AE and MN)
● Punjab and Sind Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (January 30)
● Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank Office Assistants Exam. (January 30)
● U.P. PCS Review Officer/Assistant Review Officer etc. General Selection (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (January 30)
● National Insurance Company Ltd. Administrative Officer (Scale-I) Examination. (January 30)
● M.P. School Education Department, Principal Higher Secondary School Recruitment Exam. (January 30)

February
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. (For Class VI) (February 6)
● Reserve Bank of India Grade ‘B’ Officers Exam. (February 6)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher Preliminary Exam. (February 11)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT and Librarian, Primary Teacher (Pre.) Exam. (February 12)
● Central Bank of India Clerical Cadre Exam. (February 13)
● Assam Gramin Vikash Bank Office Assistant Exam. (February 13)
● UPSC Combined Defence Service Exam. (I), 2011 (February 13)
● GATE 2011 Offline Exam. (February 13) (Papers : AR, BT, CE CH, CS, ME, PH and PI, AG, CY EC, EE, IN, MA, XE, MT and XL)
● Assam Gramin Vikash Bank Officer Junior Management Scale-I Exam. (February 20)
● Madhya Pradesh State Services (Pre.) Exam., 2010 (February 20)
● Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I and Scale-II Examination (February 20)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I Exam. (February 20)
● Indian Air Force Airman Recruitment Test (Group ‘X’ Technical Trade) (February)
● LIC Assistant Administrative Officer (Generalists/Chartered Accountants/Company Secretary/Legal) Exam. (February 27)
● Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Office Assistants Exam.(February 27)

March/April
● Indian Navy Senior Secondary Recruitment Exam. (March-April)
● C.B.S.E. All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental Entrance Exam., 2011 (April 3)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Post Graduate Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 8)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT and Librarian, Primary Teacher (Mains) Exam. (April 9)
● I.I.T. Joint Entrance Exam., 2011 (April 10)
● Rajasthan Sub-Inspector Police Combined Competitive Exam., 2010 (April/May)