83 OSCAR AWARD WINNERS

The King's Speech" won the top Academy Award, for best picture, giving the British royals drama a total of four Oscars.

The acclaimed film about the efforts of the future King George VI to overcome a crippling stammer went into the event with a leading 12 nominations. It won such key awards as best actor for its star, Colin Firth.

The best picture award was accepted by its producers, Iain Canning, Emile Sherman and Gareth Unwin.

The nine other contenders were "Black Swan," "The Fighter," "Inception," "The Kids Are All Right," "127 Hours," "The Social Network," "Toy Story 3," "True Grit" and "Winter's Bone."

British actor Colin Firth won the Academy Award for his lead role as stammering wartime monarch King George VI in "The King's Speech."

WINNERS LIST:

BEST PICTURE: The King's Speech (Iain Canning, Emile Sherman and Gareth Unwin, Producers)

DIRECTING: The King's Speech (Tom Hooper)

ACTOR IN A LEADING ROLE: Colin Firth in The King's Speech

ACTRESS IN A LEADING ROLE: Natalie Portman in Black Swan

ACTOR IN A SUPPORTING ROLE: Christian Bale in The Fighter

ACTRESS IN A SUPPORTING ROLE: Melissa Leo in The Fighter

FOREIGN-LANGUAGE FILM: In a Better World (Denmark) (defeating Montrealer Denis Villeneuve’s Incendies)

ANIMATED FEATURE FILM: Toy Story 3 (Lee Unkrich)

WRITING (ADAPTED SCREENPLAY): The Social Network (Screenplay by Aaron Sorkin)

WRITING (ORIGINAL SCREENPLAY): The King's Speech (Screenplay by David Seidler)

SHORT FILM (ANIMATED): The Lost Thing (Shaun Tan and Andrew Ruhemann)

DOCUMENTARY (SHORT SUBJECT): Strangers No More (Karen Goodman and Kirk Simon)

SHORT FILM (LIVE ACTION): God of Love (Luke Matheny)

ART DIRECTION: Alice in Wonderland

MAKEUP: The Wolfman (Rick Baker and Dave Elsey)

COSTUME DESIGN: Alice in Wonderland (Colleen Atwood)

CINEMATOGRAPHY: Inception (Wally Pfister)

VISUAL EFFECTS: Inception (Paul Franklin, Chris Corbould, Andrew Lockley and Peter Bebb)

FILM EDITING: The Social Network (Angus Wall and Kirk Baxter)

DOCUMENTARY (FEATURE): Inside Job (Charles Ferguson and Audrey Marrs)

MUSIC (ORIGINAL SCORE): The Social Network (Trent Reznor and Atticus Ross)

MUSIC (ORIGINAL SONG): We Belong Together from Toy Story 3 (Music and Lyric by Randy Newman)

SOUND MIXING: Inception (Lora Hirschberg, Gary A. Rizzo and Ed Novick)

SOUND EDITING: Inception (Richard King)

UNION BUDGET 2011-12

The Union Budget 2011-12 aims to sustain economic growth, strengthen infrastructure, moderate the price rise, particularly of agricultural produce and reduce social imbalances through inclusive development. Presenting the budget 2011-12 in the Lok Sabha February 28, the Finance Minister Shri Pranab Mukherjee said that the budget is a transition towards a more transparent and result oriented economic management system in India. He said while developments on India’s external sector have been encouraging, continued high food prices have remained our principal concern. He said that the trend revealed shortcomings in distribution and marketing system. The Finance Minister said that huge differences between wholesale and retail prices are at the expense of remunerative prices for the farmers and competitive prices for consumers.

For sustaining growth tax reform will continue with the Direct Taxes Code (DTC) to be operationalised from April, 2012 while a Constitution Amendment Bill is proposed to be introduced during the current session of Parliament as a step towards roll out of the Goods and Services Tax (GST). He said the introduction of DTC and GST will result in moderation of rates, simplification of laws and better compliance. The Finance Minister re-iterated the Government’s resolve to move towards direct transfer of cash subsidy to people living below poverty line in a phased manner. He said that the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) has improved the availability of fertilizers and the Government is actively considering extension of NBS regime to cover urea.

Finance Minister announced a number of measures to strengthen the agricultural sector particularly in the areas of pulses, vegetables and oil palm . He announced Rs. 300 crore expenditure to promote 60,000 pulses villages in rain fed areas for increasing crop productivity and strengthening market linkages. He also proposed to spend Rs. 300 crore to promote oil palm plantation in 60,000 hectares and Rs. 300 crore for the initiative on vegetable cluster. Rs. 400 crore is proposed to be spent to improve rice based cropping system in the Eastern Region. Capital investment in fertilizer production is proposed to be included as an infrastructure sub-sector since investment in the sector is capital intensive.

The allocation for social sector has been increased by 17% to Rs. 1,60,887 crore which amounts to 36.4% of the total plan allocation. Bharat Nirman, which includes Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY), accelerated irrigation benefit programme, Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana, Indira Awas Yojana, National Rural Drinking Water Programme and Rural Telephony have together been allocated Rs. 58,000 crore. Remuneration for Anganwadi workers have been increased to Rs. 3000 per month from Rs. 1500 per month while the Anganwadi helpers will get Rs. 1500 per month. This will be effective from 1^st April 2011 benefiting about 22 lakh Anganwadi workers and helpers.

The allocation on education has been increased by 24% to Rs. 52,057 crore. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan gets Rs. 21,000 crore which is 40% higher than the previous year’s allocation of Rs. 15,000 crore. The Finance Minister also proposed to introduce a scholarship scheme for needy students belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes studying in classes IX and X. It would benefit about 40 lakh students. Plan allocation for Health has also been increased by 20 per cent to Rs. 26,760 crores. The Rashtriya Swasthaya Bima Yojana will be extended to the unorganized sector workers in hazardous mining and associated industries.

Underlining the need to strengthen Public Sector Banks (PSBs) the Finance Minister proposed to provide Rs. 6000 crore to maintain tier 1 capital to risk weighted asset ratio. He also proposed to infuse Rs. 500 crore into Regional Rural Banks (RRB) . A Women’s Self Help Groups Development Fund with a corpus of Rs. 500 crore is proposed to be created. He also proposed to create a micro finance equity fund of Rs. 100 crore with Small Industrial Development Bank of India (SIDBI) for providing equity to smaller micro finance institutions. Rs. 3000 crore will be provided to NABARD to help handloom weaver cooperative societies to become financially viable.

Interest subvention of 1 per cent on housing loans will now be available for loans upto Rs. 15 lakh where the cost of house does not exceed Rs. 25 lakh. The present limit for the loan amount is Rs. 10 lakh while the cost of the house should not exceed Rs. 20 lakh.

The total plan expenditure has been increased by 18.3 per cent to Rs. 4,41,547 crore and the non-plan expenditure increases by 10.9 per cent to Rs. 8,16,182 crore. The gross tax receipts are estimated to grow by 24.9 per cent to Rs. 9,32,440. Rs. 2,01,733 crore will be transferred to the Sates and UTs as plan and non plan transfers. This also marks a rise of 23 per cent over budget estimates of last year. The fiscal deficit is estimated at Rs. 4,12,817 crore which works out to 4.6 per cent of the GDP.

Turning to the direct taxes, the Finance Minister proposed to increase the exemption limit for general category individual tax payers by Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 1,80,000 per year. This will provide a uniform tax relief of Rs. 2000 to every tax payer of this category. The benefit for senior citizens will now be available at 60 years of age and the exemption limit will go up from Rs. 2,40,000 to Rs. 2,50,000. Those who are 80 years and above have been brought under a new category called very senior citizens and the exemption limit in this category will be Rs. 5 lakhs.

The minimum alternate tax rate has been hiked from 18 per cent to 18.5 per cent of book profits. Developers of Special Economic Zones as well as units operating MAT in SEZs have been brought under MAT. Tax benefit for investment in long term infrastructural bonds will continue for one more year. Income from foreign subsidiaries of Indian Company will now attract a lower tax of 15 per cent tax on dividends.

Turning to indirect tax, the finance Minister said that there are 370 items that enjoy the exemption from Central Excise Duty but are chargeable to VAT. He proposed to withdraw the exemption on 130 of these items. The remaining 240 items would be brought into the tax net when GST is introduced. A nominal 1 per cent central excise duty is being imposed on 130 items. The basic customs duty has been reduced from 30 to 5 per cent on raw silk, from 5 to 2.5 per cent on certain textile intermediates and from 7.5 per cent to 5 per cent on certain inputs for manufacture of technical fibre and yarn. Stainless steel scrap has been fully exempted from customs. Export duty on iron ore has been increased to 20 per cent ad valorem both for lumps and fines. The basic customs duty on pet coke and gypsum has been reduced 2.5 per cent to give relief to cement industry.

On the service tax front a few new services have been brought under tax net. Hotel accommodation in excess of Rs. 1000 per day and service provided by air conditioned restaurants with licence to serve liquor have been brought under the tax net. Service tax on air travel has been raised by Rs. 50 in case of domestic air travel and Rs. 250 on international journey by economy class. Services provided by Life Insurance Company in the area of investment and some more legal services have also been brought under tax net.

Finance Minister said the proposals on direct taxes are estimated to result in a revenue loss of Rs. 11,500 crore while those on the service tax will yield Rs. 4000 crore more. The Finance Minister has kept the disinvestment target at Rs. 40,000 crore for the coming year. He, however, reiterated that the Government is committed to retain at least 51 percent ownership and management control of the CPSUs. He said that as an emerging economy India stands at the threshold at the decade which presents immense possibilities. He said we have the voice on the global stage and we must not let the recent trends and tensions hold us back from converting these possibilities into realities.

Union Budget 2011-12 Highlights:

· Critical institutional reforms set pace for double-digit growth

· Scaled up flow of resources infuses dynamism in rural economy

· GDP estimated to have grown at 8.6% in 2010-11

· Exports grown by 9.6%, imports by 17.6% in April-January 2010-11 over corresponding period last year

· Indian economy expected to grow at 9% in 2011-12.

· Five-fold strategy to deal with black money. Group of Ministers to suggest ways for tackling corruption

· Public Debt Management Agency of India Bill to come up next financial year

· Direct Tax Code (DTC) to be effective from April 01, 2012

· Phased move towards direct transfer cash subsidy to BPL people for better delivery of kerosene, LPG and fertilizer mooted

· Rs.40,000 crore to be raised through disinvestment in 2011-12

· FDI policy to be liberalized further

· SEBI registered mutual funds permitted to accept subscription from foreign investors who meet KYC requirement

· FII limit for investment in corporate bonds in infrastructure sector raised

· Additional banking license to private sector players proposed

· Rs.6000 crore to be provided in 2011-12 for maintaining minimum Tier I Capital to Risk Weighted Asset Ratio (CRAR) of 8% in public sector banks

· Rs.500 crore to be provided to regional rural banks to maintain 9% CRAR

· India Microfinance Equity Fund of Rs.100 crore to be created by SIDBI

· Rs. 500 crore Women SHG Development Fund to be created

· Micro Small and Medium Enterprises MSME gets boost as Rs. 5000 crore provided to SIDBI and Rs.3000 crore to NABARD

· Existing housing loan limit enhanced to Rs.25 lakh for dwelling units

· Provision under Rural housing Fund enhanced to Rs.3000 crore

· Allocation under Rashtirya Krishi Vikas yojna (RKVY) increased to Rs.7860 crore

· Allocation of Rs.300 crore to promote 60000 pulses villages in rainfed areas

· Rs. 300 crore vegetable initiative to achieve competitive prices

· Rs.300 crore to promote higher production of nutri-cereals

· Rs.300 crore to promote animal based protein

· Rs.300 crore Accelerated Fodder Development Programme to benefit farmers in 25000 villages

· Credit flow to farmers raised from Rs.3,75,000 crore to Rs.4,75,000 crore

· Rs.10,000 crore for NABARD’s Short Term Rural Credit Fund for 2011-12

· 15 more mega food parks during 2011-12

· National food security bill to be introduced this year

· Capital investment in storage capacity to be eligible for viability gap funding

· 23.3% increase in allocation for infrastructure

· Tax-free bonds of Rs.30,000 crore proposed by government undertakings

· Environmental concerns relating to infrastructure projects to be considered by Group of Ministers

· National Mission for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles to be launched

· 7 Mega clusters for leather products to be set up

· Allocation for social sector increased by 17% amounting to 36.4% of total plan allocation

· Bharat Nirman allocation increased by Rs.10,000 crore

· Rural broadband connectivity to all 2.5 lakh panchayats in three years.

· Bill to amend Indian Stamp Act to introduce. Rs.300 crore scheme for modernization stamp and registration administration

· Significant increase in remuneration of Angawadi workers and helpers

· Allocation for education increased by24%. Rs.21,000 crore allocated for Sarv Shikshya Abhiyan registering an increase of 40%

· 1500 institute of higher learning to be connected by March 2012 with Knowledge Knowledge Network.

· National Innovation Council set up. Additional Rs.500 crore for National Skill Development Fund

· Plan allocation for health stepped up by20%

· Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme liberalized further

· Rs.200 crore for Green India Mission

· Rs.200 crore for cleaning of rivers

· Rs.8000 crore provided for development needs of J&K

· 10 lakhs Aadhaar(UID) numbers to be generated everyday from 1^st October

· Fiscal deficit kept at 4.6% of GDP for 2011-12

· Income Tax exemption limit for general category in individual tax payers enhanced from Rs.1,60,000 to Rs.1,80,000

· Qualifying age for senior citizens lowered to 60; senior citizen above 80 year to get Rs.5,00,000 IT exemption

· Surcharge on corporate lowered to 5%

FCI Management Trainee (General/Depot) Solved Paper

Reasoning

(BASED ON MEMORY)

1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
Ans. (A)2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
Ans. (B)
3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
Ans. (D)
4. acme : mace :: alga: ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
Ans. (D)
5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
Ans. (D)
6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
Ans. (C)
7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D)G
Ans. (C)
8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans. (D)
9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
Ans. (C)
10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(C) 52
(B) 49
(D) 56
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the other three.
11. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)
12. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
Ans. (B)
13. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
Ans. (B)
14. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.
15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)
16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
Ans. (B)
17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
18. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
Ans. (C)
19. (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
Ans. (A)
20. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
Ans. (A)
21. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
Ans. (B)
22. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
Ans. (B)
23. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (D)
24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
Ans. (D)
25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
Ans. (C)
26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
Ans. (B)
27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
Ans. (A)
28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
Ans. (C)
29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (B)
30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (D)
31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
Ans. (A)
32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
Ans. (C)
35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
Ans. (C)
36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
Ans. (D)
37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
Ans. (D)
38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
Ans. (D)
39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (A)
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (C)
41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
Ans. (D)
42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded
in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
Ans. (D)
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
Ans. (B)
44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Ans. (B)
45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
Ans. (D)
46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
Ans. (B)
47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to …….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)
48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to………
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
Ans. (D)
49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
Ans. (B)
50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Ans. (B)

FCI Management Trainee (General/Depot/Movement) Solved Paper

Management Trainee (General/Depot/Movement) Question Papers

1. Who of the following brought the Sikh Kingdom of Punjab under direct British rule
by an official proclamation?
(A) Lord Hastings
(B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) Lord Minto
(D) Lord Dalhousie
Ans. (D)
2. India is comparatively not rich in which one of the following minerals compared to the other three?
(A) Bauxite
(B) Copper
(C) Iron
(D) Manganese
Ans. (B)
3. Among the following, which one has recorded the highest population growth rate during 1991-2001?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Manipur
(C) Nagaland
(D) Sikkim
Ans. (C)
4. In which one of the following regions does the Indus river originate?
(A) Laddakh
(B) Lahaul
(C) Nepal
(D) Tibet
Ans. (A)
5. What is the term used to denote the temperature at which the water vapour present in the atmosphere is sufficient to saturate?
(A) Condensation point
(B) Dew point
(C) Sublimation point
(D) Saturation point
Ans. (D)
6. The earth’s reflectivity of solar radiation, termed albedo, is highest in which one of the following?
(A) Cropland
(B) Forest area
(C) Sand desert
(D) Snow area
Ans. (D)
7. Who of the following wrote the book Precepts of Jesus?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy
(B) Devendranath Tagore
(C) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(D) Keshab Chandra Sen
Ans. (A)
8. Who for the first time saw bacteria through a microscope made by himself?
(A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
(B) Louis Pasteur
(C) Robert Hooke
(D) Robert Virchow
Ans. (A)
9. Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration?
(A) Dictyosomes
(B) Endoplasmic reticula
(C) Lysosomes
(D) Mitochondria
Ans. (D)
10. To which of the following types of animals are Salamanders closely related ?
(A) Dolphins and Whales
(B) Frogs and Toads
(C) Prawns and Crabs
(D) Seals and Walruses
Ans. (B)
11. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A seed is a ripened —
(A) ovary
(B) flower
(C) gynoecium
(D) ovule
Ans. (D)
12. Historical materialism is a tenet of which one of the following political theories ?
(A) Capitalism
(B) Liberalism
(C) Fascism
(D) Marxism
Ans. (D)
13. What is ‘Look East Policy’ often in the news?
(A) Government of India’s initiative for the infrastructural development in the North Eastern States
(B) India’s search for oil and gas in its Eastern shoreline
(C) India’s collaboration with some East Asian countries in the exploration of oil and gas
(D) India’s continuing pursuit of close relations with South-East Asian countries
Ans. (D)
14. Who of the following published a famous pamphlet known as ‘Right of Mass’ and urged the people in England, America and France to fight for their liberty ?
(A) Thomas Jefferson
(B) Thomas Paine
(C) John Locke
(D) Jean Jacques Rousseau
Ans. (B)
15. Who of the following invented the cotton gin that separates the seeds from cotton three hundred times faster than by hand?
(A) Eli Whitney
(B) George Stephenson
(C) McAdam
(D) James Watt
Ans. (A)
16. Whose duty is it to recommend to the President of India on the issue of the distribution and allocation of the net proceeds of taxes in the context of Centre State fiscal relations ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Union Ministry of Finance
(D) Finance Commission
Ans. (D)
17. In the Union Government, under whose charge is the Cabinet Secretariat?
(A) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(B) The President of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) The Union Home Minister
Ans. (C)
18. Which Five-Year Plan had an objective of “Rapid Industrialization with particular emphasis on development of basic and heavy industries”?
(A) First
(C) Third
(B) Second
(D) Fourth
Ans. (B)
19. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given rulers of ancient India?
(A) Ashoka — Kanishka — Milinda
(B) Milinda — Ashoka — Kanishka
(C) Ashoka — Milinda — Kanishka
(D) Milinda — Kanishka — Ashoka
Ans. (C)
20. Which one of the following is not a disease caused by virus?
(A) Bird-flu
(B) Chickenpox
(C) Cholera
(D) Dengue
Ans. (C)
21. In terms of the evolution of organisms, which one among the following is the most advanced?
(A) Bat
(C) Shark
(B) Pigeon
(D) Vulture
Ans. (A)
22. Which one of the following is not a genetic disorder?
(A) Colour blindness
(B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Hemophilia
(D) Xerophthalmia
Ans. (D)
23. Which one of the following is an enzyme?
(A) Gastrin
(B) Keratin
(C) Trypsin
(D) Vasopressin
Ans. (C)
24. In human body, which one of the following secretes hormones as well as digestive enzymes ?
(A) Oesophagus
(B) Pancreas
(C) Spleen
(D) Large intestine
Ans. (B)
25. In the human body, which of the following store / stores extra blood for release when
shortages occur?
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Spleen
(D) Lymph nodes
Ans. (C)
26. A bullet travelling horizontally hits a block kept at rest on a horizontal surface and gets embedded into it, the two together then move with a uniform velocity. Which one of the following conservation laws holds?
(A) Conservation of angular momentum
(B) Conservation of kinetic energy
(C) Conservation of linear momentum
(D) Conservation of velocity
Ans. (C)
27. Which one of the following is correct?
A negatively charged glass rod has always—
(A) less electrons than protons
(B) less electrons than neutrons
(C) less protons than electrons
(D) less neutrons than protons
Ans. (C)
28. Who among the following was sent by Lord Harding’s to South Africa to plead the cause of Indians led by the young Gandhi?
(A) B. G. Tilak
(B) G. K. Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Motilal Nehru
Ans. (B)
29. Which one of the following is not a current of North Atlantic Ocean?
(A) Falkland Current
(B) Canary Current
(C) Labrador Current
(D) Gulf Stream
Ans. (A)
30. Which one of the following States does not share boundary with Jharkhand ?
(A) Chattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (B)
31. Through which States does Vamsadhara river flow?
(A) Andhra Pradesh and Chattisgarh only
(B) Chattisgarh and Orissa only
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa only
(D) Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh and Orissa
Ans. (C)
32. Whose entry into India resulted in the introduction of maize crop in India?
(A) Dutch
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
Ans. (D)
33. The efforts of who of the following led to the “Age of Consent Act, 1891”?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) M. G. Ranade
(C) Surendra Nath Bannerjee
(D) Mulbari
Ans. (D)
34. What was the name of the party formed by Subhas Chandra Bose after leaving Indian
National Congress?
(A) Congress Socialist Party
(B) Forward Bloc
(C) Indian National Conference
(D) Swaraj Party
Ans. (B)
35. Among the following who was a prominent leader of Khilafat Movement?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans. (B)
36. Who was the architect of the ‘Drain Theory’ and the author of the book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Ramesh Chandra Dutt
Ans. (A)
37. The Civil Disobedience Movement started with which of the following?
(A) No-tax campaign in Bardoli district
(B) Demonstration of Akali Sikhs at Nabha
(C) Demonstration against the Simon Commission
(D) Dandi March
Ans. (D)
38. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide
Ans. (B)
39. Which dance form are Birju Maharaj and Gopi Krishna renowned for?
(A) Kathak
(B) Chhau
(C) Kathakali
(D) Odissi
Ans. (A)
401. Which is the official language of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep?
(A) Tamil
(B) Marathi
(C) Malayalam
(D) Konkani
Ans. (C)
41. Who is known as the ‘Father of India’s missile programme’?
(A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) R. Santhanam
(C) Raja Ramanna
(D) Homi Bhabha
Ans. (A)
42. The birthday of which sportsperson is celebrated as National Sports Day?
(A) Sunil Gavaskar
(B) PT. Usha
(C) Prakash Padukone
(D) Dhyan Chand
Ans. (D)
43. Who among the following holds a record of the fastest 100 test wickets taken by an Indian bowler?
(A) Erapalli Prasanna
(B) Bhagawat Chandrasekhar
(C) Bishan Singh Bedi
(D) Kapil Dev
Ans. (D)
44 In which city were the first Asian Games held?
(A) Bangkok
(B) Kuala Lumpur
(C) New Delhi
(D) Moscow
Ans. (C)
45. The First Five Year Plan covered the period—
(A) 1951-56
(B) 1952-57
(C) 1947-52
(D) 1950-55
Ans. (A)
46. The breadth of the railway broad gauge is approximately—
(A) 1.67m
(B) 1.33m
(C) 2.00m
(D) 1.83m
Ans. (A)
47. Modulation used in a GSM mobile phone is—
(A) PSK
(B) BPSK
(C) MSK
(D) GMSK
Ans. (D)
48. The light in optical fibre cable propagates due to—
(A) Refraction
(B) Diffraction
(C) Total internal reflection
(D) Interference
Ans. (C)
49. When a TV receiver is switched n, the picture comes late, Why ?
(A) Video bandwidth is large
(B) Video signal takes longer to arrive
(C) Electron emission takes time
(D) All of the above.
Ans. (C)
50. Seismograph is used in the study of—
(A) Moon
(B) Earthquake
(C) Floods
(D) Tides
Ans. (B)

FCI Management Trainee (Accounts) Previous Solved Paper

1. According to the concept of conservation, the stock in trade is valued at—
(A) Cost price
(B) Market price
(C) Cost or market price which ever is higher
(D) Cost or market price which ever is lower
Ans. (D)
2. The concept of conservation will have the effect of—
(A) Over statement of assets
(B) Understatement of assets
(C) Understatement of liabilities
(D) Understatement of provision for bad and doubtful debts
Ans. (B)
3. Non-financial information is not recorded in accounts due to—
(A) Accrual concept
(B) Entity concept
(C) Dual aspect concept
(D) Money measurement concept
Ans. (D)
4. Balance in ‘Nazrana’s a/c’ in the books of lessee is shown in—
(A) Landlords a/c
(B) P&L a/c
(C) Balance sheet assets side
(D) Balance sheet liabilities side
Ans. (C)
5. The hire-buyer charges depreciation on—
(A) Cash price of the asset
(B) Hire purchase price of the asset
(C) Higher of the two
(D) Lower of the two
Ans. (A)
6. In hire-purchase system, hire-buyer can maintain his accounts under—
(A) Asset accrued method
(B) Total cash price method
(C) Any of the two methods
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
7. If the rate of gross profit for department X is 25% of cost, the amount of gross profit on sales of Rs. 100000 will be-—
(A) Rs. 16667
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 33333
Ans. (B)
8. Provision for bad debts of a foreign branch is converted at—
(A) Opening rate of exchange
(B) Closing rate of exchange
(C) Average rate of exchange
(D) Rate applicable to debtors
Ans. (B)
9. If goods are transferred from ‘X’ department to ‘Y’ department at cost +25%, the amount of stock reserve on closing stock of Rs. 20000 in ‘Y’ department will be—
(A) Rs. 4000
(B) Rs. 5000
(C) Rs. 6000
(D) Rs. 3333
Ans. (A)
10. If out of the bills of Rs. 10000 discounted by the insolvent bills of Rs. 4000 are likely be dishonoured, unsecured creditors will include in respect of them an amount of—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs.6000
(C) Rs. 4000
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
11. Partnership firm engaged in banking business can have maximum—
(A) 5 partners
(B) 10 partners
(C) 20 partners
(D) Any number of partners
Ans. (B)
12. Suppose, the partnership deed provides for a salary of Rs. 5000 p.m. to partner ‘X’. If ‘X’ withdraws only Rs. 3000 in a month, the remaining Rs. 2000 will be—
(A) Debited to his capital a/c
(B) Credited to his drawing a/c
(C) Credited to his current a/c
(D) Credited to P & L adjustment a/c
Ans. (A)
13. In absence of any provisions in the partnership agreement, partners can charge on the loans given by them to the firm—
(A) Interest at 6% p.a.
(B) Interest at 12% p.a.
(C) Interest at 15% p.a.
(D) No interest
Ans. (A)
14. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2 D is admitted for 1/10th share, the new ratio will be—
(A) 4 : 4 : 3 : 2
(B) 4: 3 : 2: 1
(C) 5 : 4 : 3 : 2
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
15. A and B shared profit in the ratio of 3 : 2 C was admitted as a partner for 1/5th share. He acquires 3/20th from A and 1/20th from B. The new profit sharing ratio would be—
(A) 10:6:4
(B) 6:10:4
(C) 8:8:4
(D) 9:7:4
Ans. (D)
16. Goodwill of a firm of A and B is valued at Rs. 60000. Goodwill appears in the books at Rs. 24000. C is admitted for 1/4th share. He will be required to bring for goodwill—
(A) Rs.21000
(B) Rs.9000
(C) Rs. 15000
(D) Rs. 6000
Ans. (D)
17. A plant worth Rs. 800000 has been insured for Rs. 600000. The loss on account of fire is Rs. 500000. The insurance company under average clause will bear the loss to extent of—
(A) Rs. 500000
(C) Rs. 800000
(B) Rs.600000
(D) Rs. 375000
Ans. (A)
18. It is not an item of Income with reference to a voyage a/c—
(A) Passage money
(B) Freight
(C) Primage
(D) Address commission
Ans. (D)
19. The formats of the profit and loss account and Balance sheet in the case of a banking company have been revised w.e.f.—
(A) 1st April 1949
(B) 1st April 1991
(C) 1st April 1992
(D) 1st April 1956
Ans. (C)
20. If accured outstanding premium is given in the trial balance of a general insurance company, then it will be shown in—
(A) Revenue Account
(B) Balance Sheet
(C) Both revenue Account & Balance Sheet
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
21. Inventory is valued at lower of the cost or net realisable value on account of the accounting principle of—
(A) Realisation
(B) Consistency
(C) Conservatism
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
22. In the period of rising prices, LIFO method may result in—
(A) Lowering the profit
(B) Raising the profit
(C) Raising the tax liability
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
23. Given,
Total assets turnover 4
Net Profits 10%
Total Assets Rs. 50000
Net profit will be—
(A) Rs. 15000
(B) Rs. 10000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs.20000
Ans. (D)
24. A company auditor addresses his audit report to-
(A) Board of directors
(B) Members
(C) Managing director
(D) Company secretary
Ans. (B)
25. Bonus shares means shares issued to—
(A) Workers
(B) Existing equity shareholders
(C) Preferential shareholders in lieu of dividend
(D) Debenture holders in lieu of interest
Ans. (B)
26. Which of the following does not call for physical verification?
(A) Stock
(B) Plant
(C) Loose tools
(D) Goodwill
Ans. (D)
27. Cash from operations is equal to—
(A) Net profit + increase in current assets
(B) Net profit + decrease in current liabilities
(C) Profit from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and liabilities
(D) Fund from operation ± Adjustment of increase and decrease in current assets and current liabilities
Ans. (C)
28. Average profit of a firm is Rs. 9000 Firm’s capital is Rs. 60000 and normal return on business is expected at 10%. The goodwill by capitalisation method will be-
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 25000
(D) Rs. 40000
Ans. (A)
29. Which of the following is not a current liability?
(A) Bank overdraft
(B) Redeemable debentures
(C) Account payable
(D) Provision for bad debts
Ans. (B)
30. Amount of under writing commission payable on the issue of debentures is limited to—
(A) 2%
(B) 2.5%
(C) 3%
(D) 5%
Ans. (B)
31. Which of the following acid test ratio can be said to be satisfactory?
(A) 2: 1
(C) 1: 1
(B) 1: 2
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
32. The two factor theory of motivation was propounded by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Herzberg
(C) McGregor
(D) Maslow
Ans. (B)
33. Which of the following leadership styles is most commonly found now a day?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Free rein
(D) Participative
Ans. (B)
34. Deciding in advance what is to be done in future is called—
(A) Management
(B) Coordination
(C) Planning
(D) Decision-making
Ans. (C)
35. The organisation structure where there is direct vertical relationship is called—
(A) Line organisation
(B) Chain organisation
(C) Command organisation
(D) All the above
Ans. (D)
36. When managers devote their attention only to those events where results are highly deviated from normal; ft is called—
(A) Management by objective
(B) Management by exception
(C) Management by crisis
(D) Management by choice
Ans. (B)
37. Under delegation of authority—
(A) Authority is given to subordinates
(B) Authority flows from top to bottom
(C) Delegator of authority is not received of accountability
(D) All the above happens
Ans. (D)
38. The process of determining by observation and study and reporting pertinent information relating to the nature of specific job is called—
(A) Job specification
(B) Job evaluation
(C) Job analysis
(D) Job description
Ans. (C)
39. In case of a private company—
(A) There is restriction on the right to transfer of shares
(B) The number of members is restricted
(C) Invitation to public for the subscription of shares is prohibited
(D) All of the above
Ans. (D)
40. A person at anyone time can not be DIRECT of more than—
(A) 1 Company
(B) 7 Companies
(C) 15 Companies
(D) 20 Companies
Ans. (C)
41. Certificate of commencement of business is not required by a—
(A) Public company
(B) Any type of company
(C) Private company
(D) Private company subsidiary to a public company
Ans. (C)
42. Henry Fayol is known for—
(A) Scientific management
(B) Rationalisation
(C) Industrial psychology
(D) Principles of managements
Ans. (D)
43. The principle of unity of command’ implies—
(A) Unity of thought and action
(B) Unity amongst subordinates
(C) Instructions from staff authority
(D) Instructions from line authority
Ans. (D)
44. A company has equity capital of Rs. 200000. Preference capital of Rs. 100000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100000, long term loan of Rs. 200000 and short term loan of Rs. 100000. The capital gearing ratio will be—
(A) 1:1
(B) 0.5: 1
(C) 0.4: 1
(D) None of the above
Ans. (C)
45. In case of a company, total assets less outside liabilities is called—
(A) Net working capital
(B) Gross working capital
(C) Deferred liabilities
(D) Net worth
Ans. (D)
46. If opening sales is Rs. 10000 purchases Rs. 30000 direct expenses Rs. 4000 and closing stock Rs. 5000 the costs of goods is sold would be—
(A) Rs. 39000
(B) Rs. 40000
(C) Rs.41000
(D) Rs. 44000
Ans. (A)
47. Premium on issue of shares is shown in balance sheet as—
(A) An asset
(B) A liability
(C) An expense
(D) A revenue
Ans. (B)
48. Which of the following is known as ‘backbone of auditing’?
(A) Verification of assets
(B) Internal check
(C) Vouching
(D) Internal audit
Ans. (C)
49. A limited company? 100 shares of Rs. 10/- cash fully called up on which Rs. 4/- per share was paid up. The company reissued 50 shares at the rates of Rs. 8/- each. The amount transferred to capital reserve will be—
(A) Rs. 500
(B) Rs.200
(C) Rs. 250
(D) Rs. 100
Ans. (D)
50. Sale of long term investments indicates—
(A) A change in current assets
(B) Application of funds
(C) Increase in working capital
(D) Source of funds
Ans. (D)
51. Net working capital refers to—
(A) Current assets
(B) Current assets minus current liabilities
(C) Equity share capital minus fixed assets
(D) Retired earnings.
Ans. (B)
52. If sales Rs. 6000 gross profit is 1/3 on cost, purchases are R. 4900 and the closing stock is Rs. 900, the opening stock will be—
(A) Rs.400
(B) Rs.500
(C) Rs. 1100
(D) Rs. 2000
Ans. (B)
53. The primary objective of audit is—
(A) Detection and prevention of frauds
(B) Detection and prevention of errors
(C) Detection of frauds and errors
(D) To ensure the final accounts and statements exhibit true and fair position of business
Ans. (D)
54. ‘An auditor is a watch dog and not a blood hound’. This was observed in case of— (A) London oil storage company
(B) Kingston cotton Mills Limited
(C) London General Bank
(D) Delightful Cigarette Company Ltd.
Ans. (B)
55. If two or more sugar mills combine together, it is known—
(A) Horizontal combination
(B) Vertical combination
(C) Lateral combination
(D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
56. Surrender value is related to—
(A) Marine insurance
(B) General insurance
(C) Life insurance
(D) Fire insurance
Ans. (C)
57. Over capitalisation refer to—
(A) Excess of capital
(B) Excess rate of dividend payment, on shares
(C) Over estimation of rate of capitalisation
(D) Raising more capital than is warranted by its earning power
Ans. (D)
58. Motivation refers to—
(A) Coordinate the people
(B) Guide the working people
(C) Terrorise the people
(D) Inducing people to work willing by
Ans. (D)
59. Which of the following is not a barrier in communication—
(A) Fear and distrust
(B) Affection
(C) Perception
(D) Noise
Ans. (B)
60. “Management is an art of getting things done through and with formally organised group.” This definition has been by—
(A) Peter Drucker
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Harod Koontz
(D) F. W. Taylor
Ans. (C)
61. Foreign exchange for import of goods is sanctioned by—
(A) Exim Bank
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) State Bank
(D) Ministry of commerce
Ans. (B)
62. The cost of a machine having a span of life of 5 years is Rs. 10000. It has a scrap value of Rs. 1000. The amount of depreciation in the first year under the sum of year’s digit method will be—
(A) Rs. 1600
(B) Rs. 1800
(C) Rs. 2000
(D) Rs. 3000
Ans. (D)
63. Given:
Gross profit Rs. 60000
Gross profit ratio: 20%
Debtor’s velocity 2 months
The amount of debtors will be—
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs. 50000
(C) Rs. 120000
(D) Rs.200000
Ans. (B)
64. Premium on issue of shares can be used for—
(A) Issue of Bonus shares
(B) Payment of Dividends
(C) Payment of operating expenses
(D) Redemption of debentures
Ans. (A)
65. If current ratio is 25, quick ratio (1) 5 and net working capital Rs. 15000. This value of inventory will be—
(A) Rs. 10000
(B) Rs. 15000
(C) Rs. 37500
(D) Rs. 52500
Ans. (A)
66. Unclaimed dividend is shown on the liability side of the balance sheet under the heading—
(A) Revenue and surplus
(B) Provisions
(C) Current liabilities
(D) Miscellaneous items
Ans. (C)
67. Accounting standards in India are prescribed by—
(A) Company Law Board
(B) Institute of charted accountants of India
(C) Institute of coat and works accountants of India
(D) Indian standard Board
Ans. (B)
68. Which of the following is not correct—
(A) Purchase + Opening stock—Cost of goods sold = Closing stock
(B) Opening stock + Purchases — Closing stock = Cost of goods sold
(C) Closing stock + Cost of goods sold — Purchases = Opening stock
(D) Cost of goods sold — Closing stock + Purchases = Opening stock
Ans. (D)
69. A company bought assets worth Rs. 360000 and in lieu issued debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 10%. The number of debentures issued will be—
(A) 3000
(B) 3600
(C) 3960
(D) 400
Ans. (D)
70. A person got insured his goods worth Rs. 10000 for Rs. 80QO against fire. Loss by fire to him was Rs. 9000. He can claim—
(A) Rs. 8000
(B) Rs. 9000
(C) Rs. 10000
(D) Rs. 7200
Ans. (D)
71. The data obtained from a newspaper are—
(A) Primary data
(B) Secondary data
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
72. Current Ratio of a firm is 3: 1 and working capital is Rs. 60000. What will be the amount of current Assets—
(A) Rs. 30000
(B) Rs90000
(C) Rs. 120000
(D) Rs. 180000
Ans. (B)
73. The income from that house property is taxable under the head “Income from House property”.
(A) The assessee has ownership on that house
(B) The assessee uses that house for his business
(C) The assessee himself lives in that house
(D) The assessee has let out that house on rent for residence
Ans. (A)
74. Following is the deduction in respect of repair under the head of income from house property—
(A) 25% of Annual Value
(B) 30% of Net Annual Value
(C) 1/5 of Annual Value
(D) 1/5 of Net Annual Value
Ans. (B)
75. Single entry system can not be maintained by—
(A) Sole proprietorship
(B) Partnership concerns
(C) Joint stock company
(D) All of these
Ans. (D)
76. Cash account will not be affected by—
(A) Cash paid to creditors
(B) Discount received
(C) Cash sales
(D) Cash received from debtors
Ans. (B)
77. Maximum standard Deduction for employees getting gross salary not more than Rs.
100000 is allowed—
(A) Rs. 20000
(B) Rs. 25000
(C) Rs. 30000
(D) Rs. 33000
Ans. (C)
78. Tax audit is compulsory in case of a person carrying on business whose gross receipt) turnover/sales and exceeds—
(A) Rs. 50 Lakhs
(B) Rs. 40 Lakhs
(C) Rs. l0 Lakhs
(D) Rs. 25 Lakhs
Ans. (B)
79. Mr. Rastogi of Meerut was declared insolvent. One of his liabilities related to one months rent due to his landlord. This liability will be treated as—
(A) Preferential Creditor
(B) Partly Secured Creditor
(C) Fully Secured Creditor
(D) Unsecured Creditor
Ans. (A)
80. When two or more companies liquidate to form a new company. It is called—
(A) Amalgamation
(B) Absorption
(C) Reconstruction
(D) Purchase of Business
Ans. (A)
81. A, B and C are partners in a firm. If D is to be admitted to the firm as a new partner—
(A) Old firm has to be dissolved
(B) Old partnership has to be dissolved
(C) Both the old firm and the old partnership have to be dissolved
(D) No need to dissolve either firm or the partnership
Ans. (D)
82. Remington sold one typewriter to Ramesh Chandra under installment purchase system on 1st January 1996, payment for which was to be made as under—
On 01.01.1996 - Rs. 3000
On 31.12.1996 - Rs. 1700
On 31.12.1997 - Rs. 3600
On 31.12.1998 - Rs. 2300
On 31.12.1999 - Rs. 1100
Interest at 10% p.a. is included in each installment. The total interest charged amount to-
(A) Rs.2100
(B) Rs. 1950
(C) Rs. 1800
(D) Rs. 1700
Ans. (B)
83. The liquidator of a company is entit1edio a remuneration of 2% on assets realised, and 3% on the amount distributed to unsecured creditors. The assets realised Rs. 100000 including cash balance of Rs. 3000. Amount available for distribution to unsecured creditors before paying liquidators remui4eration was Rs. 46350 liquidator’s remuneration will be—
(A) Rs.3100
(C) Rs. 3290
(B) Rs.3140
(D) Rs. 3350
Ans. (C)
84. EXIM Bank was established on—
(A) 1st Dec 1984
(B) 1st June 1985
(C) 1st Jan 1982
(D) 1st July 1980
Ans. (C)
85. For capital gain being long term capital gain, an assessee should retain the assets for a period of—
(A) 40 months
(B) 36 months
(C) More than 36 months
(D) Less than 36 months
Ans. (C)
86. The salary received by a member of parliament is—
(A) Exempt from Tax
(B) Taxable under the head of salary
(C) Taxable under the head of other sources
(D) Taxable under the lead of business
Ans. (C)
87. For the purpose of income tax it is necessary for agriculture income that—
(A) Land should be used for agricultural activities
(B) Land should be used for godown
(C) Land should be used for irrigation
(D) None of above
Ans. (A)
88. Depreciation is allowed on—
(A) Tangible Assets
(B) Current Assets
(C) Fixed Assets
(D) Intangible Assets
Ans. (C)
89. When shares are forfeited, the share capital account is debited by—
(A) Nominal value of forfeited shares
(B) Paid up amount of forfeited shares
(C) Called up amount on forfeited shares
(D) Forfeited amount of shares
Ans. (C)
90. The term ‘POIM’ for the four functions of management. Planning, organisation, integration and measuring was given by.—
(A) F.W. Taylor
(B) Harold Smiddy
(C) Tanon Brown
(D) Peter F. Drucker
Ans. (B)

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION 2011

UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION (UPSC)
Dholpur House, Shahjahan road, New Delhi - 110069

Civil Service Examination, 2011

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will hold the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2011 on 12/06/2011 for recruitment of nearly 880 various posts of Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS), Indian Police Service (IPS) and certain other Group 'A' and Group 'B' Central Services / Posts.

Eligibility:

• Age : Not less than 21 years and not more than 30 years as on 01/08/2011. The upper age is relaxable for SC/ST/OBC and certain other categories of candidates to the extent specified in the Notice.
• Educational Qualification: Degree of a recognised university or an equivalent qualification.
• Physical Standards: Candidates must be physically fit according to the Regulations given in notice.
• Number of Attempts: The maximum number of attempts permissible to different categories of aspirants, who are otherwise eligible will be as follows:
  
  
  • General Category : Four
  • Physical Handicapped : Seven
  • OBC : Seven
  • SC / ST : No Limit

Offline Application Form: The candidates must apply in the Common Application Form devised by the Commission for its examinations, which can be purchased from the designated Head Post Offices/ Post offices throughout the country against cash payment of Rs. 30/- only. OR published in the Employment News.

Online Application Submission : Candidates can apply Online also at http://upsconline.nic.in/ upto 21/03/2011.

Fee: Rs. 100/- through Central Recruitment Fee Stamp only. SC/ST/PH/Female candidates are exempted from payment (OBC candidates required to pay full fee) for the candidates applying offline. Those who are applying Online need to deposit Rs. 50/- in any branch of SBI

How To Apply Offline : All Offline applications must reach the "Controller of Examination, Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi-110069" either by hand or by Post/Speed Post or by courier on or before the 21/03/2011. [Candidates from far-flung areas can send application through post/speed post upto 28/03/2011]

Candidates can obtain details of the examination and can get information about registration of their applications, venues of the examination and syllabus etc will be posted on the website of the UPSC at http://upsc.gov.in/ or in the Employment News dated 19/02/2011.

FOR CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION 2011 Detailed Notification CLICK HERE