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Monday, January 30, 2012
Sunday, January 29, 2012
Thursday, January 26, 2012
Marketing Aptitude and Computer Knowledge for SBI Clerk Exam 2012
Marketing Aptitude and Computer Knowledge
1. FDI stands for _
(a) Foreign Direct Investment
(b) Foreign Diverse Investment
(c) Frequent Direct Interest
(d) Follow-up Discreet Intent
2. The following is not a function of the DGFT
(a) DGFT entrusted with the responsibility of implementing various policies regarding trade for example, Foreign Trade Policy.
(b) DGFT is the licensing authority for exporters, importers, and export and import business.
(c) DGFT can prohibit, restrict and regulate exports and imports
(d) DGFT acts as market regulator controlling foreign company stocks
3. What is Rupee depreciation?
(a) Rupee depreciation means that rupee has become less valuable with respect to dolllar
(b) Rupee depreciation means dollar has become less valuable than rupee
(c) Rupee depreciation means a situation when value of rupee is same as euro
(d) Rupee depreciation happens when the combined value of dollar and euro is more than rupee
4. Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) notified that the Commerce Ministry on on 11 January 2012 lowered the minimum export price of onions by $100 a tonne to $150 a tonne.What was the purpose
(a) To enhance import
(b) To boost export
(c) To lower prices in the domestic market
(d) To facilitate crop clearance
5. Indirect tax does not include _
(a) Customs
(b) Central Excise
(c) Sales Tax
(d) Service Tax
6. Telecom Commission, the decision-making body of the Department of Telecommunications recommended a uniform licence fee of what per cent of adjusted gross revenues (AGR) as against the prevalent rate of 6-8 per cent?
(a) 10%
(b) 8%
(c) 5.2%
(d) 9.3%
7. What is the current repo rate (as on January 2012) fixed by the RBI?
(a) 8%
(b) 8.5%
(c) 7.5%
(d) 7%
8. CRISIL is a _
(a) Credit rating agency
(b) Employment exchange watchdog
(c) Infrastructure sector guide
(d) Market regulator
9. A committee on mutual funds, constituted by SEBI in december 2011 recommended to the regulator’s board to break down the bifurcation within the fee structure known as expense ratio. Which of the following facts are not true with regard to the above statement?
A. Currently mutual funds are allowed to charge up to 2.25% as expense ratio. fund houses are allowed to accept only 1.25% as asset management charges
B. Funds with large corpuses currently charge 1.55% as expenses charges
C. SEBI was suggested to keep overall scheme expenses unchanged at 2.25% for schemes with assets under management not exceeding Rs 400 crore
D. Expense ratio is more than important in debt schemes where the rate of return is not hig.
(a) 1 & 2
(b) 3 & 4
(c) 1 & 3
(d) Only 2
(e) None of the above
10. The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DoT) on 5 December 2011 transferred indigenously-developed Gigabit Passive Optical Network (GPON) technology to seven telecom equipment manufacturers. Which of the following facts about the technology is not true?
A. The GPON technology is a pivotal component required for broadband connectivity over optical fibre.
B. C-DOT indigenously designed and developed GPON technology, which can be used to provide triple play (voice, video and data) through fibre-based networks
C. The GPON technology was tested, validated, field-evaluated and made operational in MTNL's/VSNL’s network in Ajmer (Rajasthan)
D. The technology will help fulfil requirements of major national programmes like the National Optical Fibre Network and the State Wide Area Network
(a) Only 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 4
(d) 1 & 2
11. By Public Sector we mean
(a) Government ownership on commerce and trade
(b) Capitalist ownership on commerce and trade
(c) Private ownership on trade
(d) None of these
12. IN which list does Economic Planning belong to
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) Not any specified list
13. _ forms a part of the Interest Rate Policy
(a) Fiscal Policy
(b) Industrial Policy
(c) Monetary Policy
(d) None of these
14. The share of road transport in total transport of the country is–
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 60%
(d) 80%
15. Which percentage of Central Taxes have been recommended by the 12th Finance Commission to be transferred to States ?
(a) 28.5%
(b) 29.5%
(c) 30.5%
(d) 31.5%
16. 'Customisation' means __
(a) Tailor-made products for each customer
(b) Customers selling goods
(c) Tailor-made products for each staff
(d) A selling process
(e) None of these
17. A Marketing Survey is required for __
(a) deciding marketing strategies
(b) deciding Product strategies
(c) deciding pricing strategies
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
18. Cross-selling means __
(a) Selling with a cross face
(b) Cross country marketing
(c) Selling other products to existing customers
(d) Selling to friends
19. Credit cards are used for -
(a) Cash withdrawals
(b) Purchase of air tickets
(c) Purchase of consumable items from retail outlets
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
20. 13th Finance Commission has been constituted under the Chairmanship of—
(a) Y. S. P. Thorat
(b) Vijai L. Kelkar
(c) T. S. Vijayan
(d) Laxmi Narayan
21. SEBI is a—
(a) Statutory body
(b) Advisory body
(c) Constitutional body
(d) Non-statutory body
22. Pradhanmantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojna is related to—
(a) Communication
(b) Social Integration
(c) Linking of Rivers
(d) Development of Highways
23. Targeted power capacity addition for 11th plan period is—
(a) 41110 MW
(b) 66463 MW
(c) 68963 MW
(d) 86283 MW
24. NABARD was established on the recommendation of—
(a) Public Account Committee
(b) Shivaraman Committee
(c) Narsimham Committee
(d) None of these
25. Which company is providing mobile service with name ‘Cell one’ to the consumers ?
(a) MTNL
(b) BSNL
(c) Reliance Infocom
(d) Bharti Tele
26. VAT is imposed—
(a) Directly on consumer
(b) On final stage of production
(c) On first stage of production
(d) On all stages between production and final sale
27. Which of these do not grant any tax rebate ?
(a) National Saving Certificate
(b) Indira Vikas Patra
(c) National Saving Scheme
(d) Public Providend Fund
28. Which of the following is public sector organisation ?
A. FCI Food Corporation of India
B. FCI Fertilizer Corporation of India
C. Cotton Corporation of India
D. Jute Corporation of India
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2, 3
(c) Only 3, 4
(d) All of these
29. Which bank in India performs duties of Central Bank ?
(a) Central Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Above (A) and (B)
30. Mixed Economy means—
(a) Co-existence of small and large industries
(b) Promoting both Agriculture and Industries in the economy
(c) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(d) Co-existence of rich and poor
31. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for—
(a) Internet Banking
(b) Credit Card
(c) Cash with Bank
(d) Cash with Public
32. A CD ROM disk
(a) cannot be erased and rewritten
(b) has more storage capacity than a CD-R
(c) holds less data than a floppy disk
(d) can be written to oniy once
(e) None of the above
33. Storage device found inside the computer.
(a) CD-ROM
(b) Zip Disk
(c) Super Disk
(d) Hard Disk
(e) None of the above
34. Which of these keys is not on the number keypad?
(a) Ctrl
(b) Del
(c) Enter
(d) NumLock
(e) None of the above
35. The computer monitor is which type of device?
(a) Input
(b) Output
(c) Processing
(d) Software
(e) None of the above
36. RAM is and !...., _
(a) volatile, temporary
(b) nonvolatile, permanent
(c) nonvolatile, temporary
(d) volatile, permanent
(e) None of the above
37. What menu is selected to cut, copy, and paste?
(a) File
(b) Edit
(c) Too Is
(d) Table
(e) None of the above
38. A device that provides emergency power to your computer, conditions the voltage, and protects against power surges is called a _
(a) PSU = Power Supply Unit
(b) USP = Universal Surge Protector
(c) UPPS = Universal Power Protection and Supply
(d) UPS = Uninterruptible Power Supply
(e) None of the above
39. Secondary storage
(a) does not require constant power
(b) does not use magnetic media
(c) consists of four main types of devices
(d) does not store information for later retrieval
(e) None of the above
40. Deleted data remains on a disk until
(a) the data is overwritten
(b) the recycle bin is emptied
(c) a file compression utility is used
(d) the disk is scanned
(e) None of the above
41. What is the term for how words will appear on a page?
(a) text formatting
(b) Character formatting
(c) Point size
(d) Typeface
(e) None of these
42. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as
(a) pulling
(b) pushing
(c) downloading
(d) transferring
(e) None of these
43. When sending an e-rnail. the ........ line describes the contents of the message.
(a) subject
(b) to
(c) contents
(d) cc
(e) None of these
44. The software that allows users to surf the Internet is called alan
(a) Search engine
(b) Internet Service Provider (ISP)
(c) Multimedia application
(d) Browser
(e) None of these
45. A CD-RW disk
(a) has a faster access than an internal disk
(b) is a form of optical disk, so it can only be written once
(c) holds less data than a floppy disk
(d) can be erased and rewritten
(e) None of these
46. The" first page of a Web site is called the
(a) Home page
(b) Index
(c) Java Script
(d) Bookmark
(e) None of these
47. A contains buttons and menus that provide quick access to commonly used commands.
(a) menu bar
(b) toolbar
(c) window
(d) action bar
(e) None of these
48. Ctrl, shift and alt are called __ keys.
(a) adjustment
(b) function
(c) modifier
(d) alphanumeric
(e) None of these
49. Memory unit is one part of __ .
(a) Control unit
(b) Central Processing Unit
(c) Input device
(d) Output device
(e) None of these
50. An example of a telecommunications device is a
(a) keyboard
(b) mouse
(c) printer
(d) modem
(e) None of these
51. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment?
(a) Keyboard
(b) Mouse
(c) Joystick
(d) Trackball
(e) None of these
52. Which of the following is not an.output device?
(a) Plotter
(b) Printer
(c) Monitor
(d) Touch Screen
(e) None of these
53. Every component of your computer is either
(a) software or CPUIRAM
(b) input devices or output devices
(c) application software or, system software
(d) hardware or software
(e) None of these
54. What is an E-mail attachment?
(a) A receipt sent by the recipient
(b) A separate document from another program sent along with an E-mail message
(c) A malicious parasite that feeds off your messages and destroys the contents
(d) A list of CC or BCC recipients
(e) None of these
55. What is correcting errors in a program called?'
(a) Interpreting
(b) Translating
(c) Debugging
(d) Compiling
(e) None of these
56. What is the main folder on a storage device called?
(a) Platform
(b) Interface
(c) Root directory
(D) Device driver
(E) None of these
57. 'DOS' floppy disk does not have—
(a) A Boot Record
(b) A File Allocation Table
(c) A Root Directory
(d) Virtual Memory
(e) BIOS
58. The word FIP stands for—
(a) File Translate Protocol
(b) File Transit Protocol
(c) File Typing Protocol
(d) File Transfer Protocol
(e) None of these
59. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?
(a) Through a power cable
(b) From an external power supply
(c) Directly from the computer's power supply
(d) Through the USB cable
(e) None of these
60. …………….are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.
(a) Cookies
(b) Plug-ins
(c) Scripts
(d) ASPs
(e) None of these
61. A proxy server is used for the which of the following?
(a) To provide security against unauthorized users
(b) To process client requests for web pages
(c) To process client requests for database access
(d) To provide TCP/IP
(e) None of these
62. In the the portion lebelled http is the—
(a) host
(b) domain name
(c) protocol
(d) top-level domain
(e) None of these
63.The number of pixels displayed on a screen is known as the screen—
(a) resolution
(b) colour depth
(c) refresh rate
(d) viewing size
(e) None of these
64. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are example of—
(a) application software
(b) system software
(c) operating system software
(d) platform software
(e) None of these
65. A————is approximately a million bytes.
(a) gigabyte
(b) kilobyte
(c) megabyte
(d) terabyte
(e) None of these
66. A computer cannot 'boot' if it does not have the
(a) Compiler
(b) Loader
(c) Operating System
(d) Assembler
(e) None of these
67. To view information on the web you must have a
(a) cable modem
(b) web browser
(c) Domain Name Server
(d) hypertext viewer
(e) None of these
68. What type of computer could be found in a digital watch?
(a) Mainframe computer
(b) Super computer
(c) Embedded computer
(d) Notebook computer
(e) None of these
69. The arrow keys can be used to
(a) delete text
(b) move the cursor in the text that has already been entered
(c) save the document
(d) move the cursor while deleting text
(e) None of these
70. Office LANS, which are scattered geographically on large scale, can be connected by the use of corporate
(a) CAN
(b) LAN
(c) DAN
(d) WAN
(e) TAN
71. Directory in directory is called
(a) Mini directory
(b) Junior directory
(c) Part directory
(d) Sub directory
(e) None of these
72. A __ is a microprocessor-based computing device.
(a) personal computer
(b) mainframe
(c) workstation
(d) server
(e) None of these
73. RAM can be thought of as the __ for the computer's processor.
(a) factory
(b) operating room
(c) waiting room
(d) planning room
(e) None of these
74. One thousand bytes is a __
(a) kilobyte
(b) megabyte
(c) gigabyte
(d) terabyte
(e) None of these
75. What is the term for how words will appear on a page?
(a) text formatting
(b) Character formatting
(c) Point size
(d) Typeface
(e) None of these
76. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as
(a) pulling
(b) pushing
(c) downloading
(d) transferring
(e) None of these
77. When sending an e-rnail. the ........ line describes the contents of the message.
(a) subject
(b) to
(c) contents
(d) cc
(e) None of these
78. The software that allows users to surf the Internet is called alan
(a) Search engine
(b) Internet Service Provider (ISP)
(c) Multimedia application
(d) Browser
(e) None of these
79. A CD-RW disk
(a) has a faster access than an internal disk
(b) is a form of optical disk, so it can only be written once
(c) holds less data than a floppy disk
(d) can be erased and rewritten
(e) None of these
80. The" first page of a Web site is called the
(a) Home page
(b) Index
(c) Java Script
(d) Bookmark
(e) None of these
81. A contains buttons and menus that provide quick access to commonly used commands.
(a) menu bar
(b) toolbar
(c) window
(d) action bar
(e) None of these
82. Ctrl, shift and alt are called __ keys.
(a) adjustment
(b) function
(c) modifier
(d) alphanumeric
(e) None of these
83. Which ofthe following menu types is also called a drop-down menu?
(a) fly-but
(b) cascading
(c) pop-up
(d) pull-down
(e) None of these
84. Data (information) is stored in computer as
(a) files
(b) directories
(c) floppies
(d) matter
(e) None of these
85. Memory unit is one part of __ .
(a) Control unit
(b) Central Processing Unit
(c) Input device
(d) Output device
(e) None of these
86. An example of a telecommunications device is a
(a) keyboard
(b) mouse
(c) printer
(d) modem
(e) None of these
87. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment?
(a) Keyboard
(b) Mouse
(c) Joystick
(d) Trackball
(e) None of these
88. Which of the following is not an.output device?
(a) Plotter
(b) Printer
(c) Monitor
(d) Touch Screen
(e) None of these
89. Every component of your computer is either
(a) software or CPUIRAM
(b) input devices or output devices
(c) application software or, system software
(d) hardware or software
(e) None of these
90. What is an E-mail attachment?
(a) A receipt sent by the recipient
(b) A separate document from another program sent along with an E-mail message
(c) A malicious parasite that feeds off your messages and destroys the contents
(d) A list of CC or BCC recipients
(e) None of these
91. What is correcting errors in a program called?'
(a) Interpreting
(b) Translating
(c) Debugging
(d) Compiling
(e) None of these
92. What is the main folder on a storage device called?
(a) Platform
(b) Interface
(c) Root directory
(d) Device driver
(e) None of these
93. 'DOS' floppy disk does not have—
(a) A Boot Record
(b) A File Allocation Table
(c) A Root Directory
(d) Virtual Memory
(e) BIOS
94. The word FIP stands for—
(a) File Translate Protocol
(b) File Transit Protocol
(c) File Typing Protocol
(d) File Transfer Protocol
(e) None of these
95. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?
(a) Through a power cable
(b) From an external power supply
(c) Directly from the computer's power supply
(d) Through the USB cable
(e) None of these
96. …………….are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.
(a) Cookies
(b) Plug-ins
(c) Scripts
(d) ASPs
(e) None of these
97. A proxy server is used for the which of the following?
(a) To provide security against unauthorized users
(b) To process client requests for web pages
(c) To process client requests for database access
(d) To provide TCP/IP
(e) None of these
98. In the the portion lebelled http is the—
(a) host
(b) domain name
(c) protocol
(d) top-level domain
(e) None of these
99.The number of pixels displayed on a screen is known as the screen—
(a) resolution
(b) colour depth
(c) refresh rate
(d) viewing size
(e) None of these
100. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are example of—
(a) application software
(b) system software
(c) operating system software
(d) platform software
(e) None of these
| Answers | |||||||
| 1. | (a) | 26. | (d) | 51. | (b) | 76. | (c) |
| 2. | (d) | 27. | (b) | 52. | (e) | 77. | (a) |
| 3. | (a) | 28. | (d) | 53. | (d) | 78. | (d) |
| 4. | (b) | 29. | (c) | 54. | (b) | 79. | (d) |
| 5. | (c) | 30. | (c) | 55. | (c) | 80. | (a) |
| 6. | (b) | 31. | (b) | 56. | (c) | 81. | (b) |
| 7. | (b) | 32. | (a) | 57. | (d) | 82. | (b) |
| 8. | (a) | 33. | (d) | 58. | (a) | 83. | (c) |
| 9. | (d) | 34. | (a) | 59. | (d) | 84. | (a) |
| 10. | (b) | 35. | (b) | 60. | (a) | 85. | (b) |
| 11. | (a) | 36. | (a) | 61. | (a) | 86. | (d) |
| 12. | (c) | 37. | (b) | 62. | (c) | 87. | (b) |
| 13. | (c) | 38. | (d) | 63. | (a) | 88. | (d) |
| 14. | (d) | 39. | (a) | 64. | (a) | 89. | (d) |
| 15. | (c) | 40. | (b) | 65. | (c) | 90. | (b) |
| 16. | (a) | 41. | (a) | 66. | (c) | 91. | (c) |
| 17. | (d) | 42. | (c) | 67. | (b) | 92. | (c) |
| 18. | (c) | 43. | (a) | 68. | (c) | 93. | (d) |
| 19. | (d) | 44. | (d) | 69. | (b) | 94. | (a) |
| 20. | (b) | 45. | (d) | 70. | (d) | 95. | (d) |
| 21. | (a) | 46. | (a) | 71. | (d) | 96. | (a) |
| 22. | (d) | 47. | (b) | 72. | (a) | 97. | (a) |
| 23. | (b) | 48. | (b) | 73. | (c) | 98. | (c) |
| 24. | (b) | 49. | (b) | 74. | (a) | 99. | (a) |
| 25. | (b) | 50. | (d) | 75. | (a) | 100. | (a) |
Punjab National Bank Management Trainee Recruitment
Punjab National Bank (PNB)
(A Government of India Undertaking)
Head Office: 7,Bhikaiji Cama Place, New Delhi-110066
Punjab National Bank (PNB), a leading public sector bank invites Online application from Indian citizens for the following 775 posts of Management Trainees for those candidates who have valid CWE score card (minimum 138 for General, 125 for OBC and 113 for SC/ST/PWD) :
How to Apply : Apply Online only at Punjab National Bank website from 30/01/2012 to 13/02/2012.
Kindly visit https://www.pnbindia.in/En/ui/Recruitment.aspx for Detailed information, payment voucher and a link to online submission of Application from will be available from 30/01/2012.
- Management Trainee : 775 posts (UR-392, SC-116, ST-58, OBC-209) (PWD-24) in JMG-I Scale Rs.14500-25700, Age : 20-28 years,
How to Apply : Apply Online only at Punjab National Bank website from 30/01/2012 to 13/02/2012.
Kindly visit https://www.pnbindia.in/En/ui/Recruitment.aspx for Detailed information, payment voucher and a link to online submission of Application from will be available from 30/01/2012.
Wednesday, January 25, 2012
CANARA BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT
Canara Bank
(A Government of India Undertaking)
Recruitment Cell, Personnel Wing
Head Office (Annexe), 14, Naveen Complex, M G Road, Bangalore – 560001
Recruitment of Probationary Officers (PO) - 2012Head Office (Annexe), 14, Naveen Complex, M G Road, Bangalore – 560001
Canara Bank, a leading Public Sector Bank, invites Online applications from Indian Citizens for appointment of following Probationary Officers only from the candidates who have valid CWE score card :
- Probationary Officer (PO) : 2000 posts in JMG-I scale Rs.14500-25700/-
How to Apply : Apply Online, submission of Online application through Canal Bank website from 30/01/2012 to 15/02/2012 only.
Please visit http://canarabank.com/English/Scripts/RPO-1-2012.aspx for more details and online submission of application from 30/01/2012 onwards.
UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS EXAM SOLVED PAPER 2011
General Studies Paper – II
(a) List the Central Asian Republics and identify those of particular strategic and economic importance to India. Examine the opportunities and bottlenecks in enhancing relations with these countries.
Answer:
Central Asian Republics include Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan, Although all of them are important for India from the perspective of trade, security, energy security, civilisational link, but the ones particularly important are Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan and Tajikistan.
Kazakhstan is one of the fastest growing economies of Central Asia and a politically stable nation. India has signed civil nuclear agreement with Kazakhstan and agreed to give India a foothold in the oil rich Caspian through Satapayev block. Central Asian republics are important to India for its energy security (vast reserves of oil, gas and radioactive material), a potential market for its growing trade, strategically vital to safeguard India’s interest in Central Asia, West Asia and Africa. TAPI gas pipeline agreement signed recently involving Turkmenistan promises to address some of India’s energy needs through supply of natural gas. Central Asian Republic are also potential markets for export of Indian pharmaceuticals, IT services, entertainment services etc.
These nation are also part of regional groupings like SCO which will play crucial role in regional stability and prosperity in Asia and hence in the world.
On the flip side of it, some of these nations are not politically stable, lack vibrant democracy, and are marred by ethnic clashes which make it difficult for the businesses to operate. Lack of infrastructure and land connectivity also places obstacles in the smooth business activity. The same product that would take more than a month to reach these nations from India can be obtained within a week from China, Turkey or Europe. Terrorism emanating from the Central Asian region like from Fergana valley is another area of concern and challenge for India.
(b) Critically examine the security and strategic implications of the so-called ‘string of pearls’ theory for India.
Answer:
String of pearls theory refers to China building deep water ports in the Indian Ocean like Gwadar (Pakistan), Hambantota (Sri Lanka), Sittwe(Mayanmar), Chittagong (Bangladesh) as a part of the strategy to encircle India. China denies this and claims that it is not directed against any nation. It is rather for securing its energy supplies and sea routes for its trade.
Several western analysts including some Indian Defence analyst think otherwise and claim that it is part of China’s strategy to contain India in the event of any future conflict. India is surrounded by sea from three sides and a naval dominance of China or any other nation in Indian Ocean is certainly a security concern for India. String of pearls makes China India’s maritime neighbour and give the opportunity to China to have a two front situation against India in case of a conflict.
Strategically China’s growing indulgence with India’s neighbours like Sri Lanka or Bangladesh through these ports gives China an extra lever to use against India. It can be used both as soft and a hard power to gain strategic depth inside India’s neighbourhood.
India’s rise on the world stage is guided mostly by its economic might in terms of its rising GDP and share in world trade which depends largely on the sea routes through which the trade is conducted. Any dominance on the sea routes can be used against India’s growth and thus requires India to take cognizance of the String of Pearls strategy by china.
(c) “Compared to the South Asian Trade Area (SAFTA), the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multisectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation Free Trade Area (BIMSTEC FTA) seems to be more promising.” Critically evaluate.
Answer:
BIMSTEC was initiated with the goal to combine the 'Look West' policy of Thailand and ASEAN with the 'Look East' policy of India and South Asia. So it could be explained that BIMSTEC is a link between ASEAN and SAARC. BIMSTEC provides a unique link between South Asia and Southeast Asia bringing together 1.3 billion people - 21 percent of the world population.
Compared to south Asian free trade area (SAFTA), the BIMSTEC FTA seems to be more promising. A deeper economic integration process within South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC) sometime suffers because of political tension between India and Pakistan. Such things are less likely to happen in case of BIMSTEC. It is believed that negotiation under the BIMSTEC umbrella will be easier than under SAFTA because all the BIMSTEC members are purely guided by economic interests rather than by political interests. Many countries in SAFTA have less favorable geographical location in terms of being land locked and thus have adverse affect on trade as compared to BIMSTEC nations. BIMSTEC being a link between South Asia and South East Asia also opens up vast opportunities for trade as compared to SAFTA which is limited to mainly South Asia.
When compared in terms of their economic structure, namely, value addition of services, industry, and agriculture sector, to gross domestic product (GDP), BIMSTEC nations have many similarities. Except in case of Thailand, the industrial sector constitutes roughly a fourth of GDP in all countries. All these economies are predominantly associated with service related activities. Although majority of the population still lives in rural areas, all of these nations are becoming increasingly urbanised. Geographical proximity along with similar economic profile indicates complementarities in consumption, production, and trading pattern. All these factors make BIMSTEC FTA more promising.
2. Answer any three of the following in about 150 words each: 15×3=36
(a) Subsequent to the Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG) waiver in 2008, what are the agreements on nuclear energy that India has signed with different countries?
Answer:
Subsequent to NSG waiver India has signed Civil Nuclear Cooperation with nine nations and South Korea is the latest in the list. The NSG waiver ended nuclear apartheid of almost three decades for India where world declined to share any nuclear technology and resources with India even for non military purposes.
India has also incorporated enrichment and reprocessing agreements with several nations like Russia and France after the NSG waiver. Countries have guaranteed fuel supply to Indian nuclear reactors which were running much below their capacity due to lack of nuclear fuel.
India has also passed legislation on nuclear liabilities and is progressing towards ratifying Convention for Supplementary Convention which will bring India in line with the international regime and facilitate nuclear suppliers of other nations to do business with India.
(b) Trace the progress of India’s efforts for a joint counter-terrorism strategy with China. What are the likely implications of the recent Xinjiang violence on these efforts?
Answer:
India and China have completed two rounds of joint anti terrorism exercise in 2007 and 2008. Although the symbolic importance of these exercises is immense, both countries could explore cooperation in preventive measures particularly intelligence sharing; and hotline for critical situations to tackle the menace of terrorism. The two sides could consider maximizing their cooperation in the field of counter-terrorism and further consolidating strategic partnership between the two.
China’s Xinjiang problem is connected with the network of cross border and transnational terrorism. Xinjiang is a case in point of the ethno-religious separatist problem in the Xinjiang region.
Even after having such immense opportunities, India and China defense cooperation has been stalled due Chinese policy of stapled visa or denial of visa for Indian army officers from Jammu and Kashmir region and the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Bring out the importance of the Small and Medium Enterprises Expo and Conference held in Dubai last year for Indian business.
Answer:
The 2010 SME Conference theme was Meet, discuss, start. Last year’s conference was designed to provide information and assistance to all sizes of small businesses, as well as to those from the government who work with them. The conference created opportunities for small business owners and entrepreneurs to network, build alliances, and learn about new products, services and trends. Relevant educational presentations provided participants with new strategies and tools that can be put into action.
The conference was important for Indian business because of following reasons
• Opportunities for SME
• Strategies to boost the business environment for SMEs
• Investments and financing SME growth
• Banking and financial service innovations for SMEs
• Technologies that can help SME growth
• Women Entrepreneur
Small and Medium Enterprises Expo and Conference, offered great platform to small units to promote their brands, products and services, as well as to explore business opportunities in the Middle East and North African markets.
Besides giving a major impetus to networking activities with other visiting countries such as Pakistan, Mauritius, Nigeria and Vietnam, the event offered Indian SMEs the opportunity to acquaint themselves with the latest technologies in their industries and form alliances with international clients. Indian SMEs from sectors such as plastic, petrochemicals, garments and textiles, and art and handicrafts, among others gained from the participation at the expo.
(d) What are the salient features of the political and economic relationship between India and South Africa?
Answer:
South Africa has emerged as an important ally for India in recent times. Apart from having civilisational links and India’s close support during the apartheid movement and Mahatma Gandhi’s proximity with the cause South Africa is also a symbol of India’s engagement with the African people and society.
India and South Africa are part of IBSA and BRICS. IBSA represents south-south alliance while BRICS is concerned more with the economic cooperation among the member states. India and South Africa have given coordinated response in G20 and WTO. South Africa is an important destination for investment by the Inidan Business Community and a joint CEOs forum has been set up between the two nations to deepen economic cooperation and raise the level of bilateral trade.
The two nations have demanded reforms of the international institutions, given coordinated responses in the climate change negotiations with the developed nations. They coordinated and put a joint stand on the issue of Syria which provided a third alternative or a middle path in dealing with such issues of international intervention. The two nations also have a shared understanding of Iran’s nuclear issue.
3. Answer either of the following in about 250 words: 20
(a) “The causes and implications of the Jasmine Revolution and its spread are as much economic in nature as they are political.” Critically evaluate.
Answer:
The region of West Asia and North Africa is in a state of flux and going through a turbulent phase. The ripples that started in Tunisia from Jasmine revolution has spread far and wide. Many regimes like in Egypt and Libya have fallen since then while some have been truly shaken like in Syria, Behrain and Yemen.
The region shares some common economic and political characteristics that have resulted in this. These regimes have been more or less dictatorial in nature, giving minimum or no political liberties to its citizens. The freedom of speech, expression and movement has been restricted in past with no credible democracy. Elections were often rigged and constitutions manipulated to suit the ruling elite. The growing reach of media and social networking sites on the other hand opened the window for their people to peep into the outside free world. This raised their expectations from their own rulers and also provided a platform to organise protests against the regimes. Underlying ethnic and sect tensions against the regimes have also added fuel to the fire.
Economic reasons like high rate of unemployment among youth as in case of Tunisia, and low per capita income have also resulted in these revolts. The rulers in these nations have indulged in lavish life style and amassed treasures while the fellow citizens were starving and struggling with poor education, health and public utilities system. None of these nations had any proper higher education system which could ensure respectable jobs to its youth. Many countries like Bahrain and Saudi Arabia have distributed cash and benefits among its citizens since the start of Jasmine revolution but that does not address the systemic reforms that the people these nations are demanding.
(b) In the context of the ‘Euro-zone’ debt crisis, examine the proposed ‘six-pack’ solution. Do you think that this has a better chance of success than the earlier stability and growth pact?
Answer:
The six pack solution has been proposed for Euro Zone debt crisis which threatens to drag the world economy along with it into yet another full blown crisis. It is a set of legislative measures that gives European Commission the ability to impose sanctions on the eurozone countries that fail to control their debt and deficit. The rules are designed to prevent any future debt crisis of the present nature and thus give more sanctioning power to European Commission.
The European parliament will have the right to call finance ministers from countries that have been warned to hearings, while the European semester provides for the annual assessment of national budgets. Falsified debt and deficit statistics can lead to a fine of 0.2 per cent of gross domestic product. And countries will be obliged to act pre-emptively to maintain the health of economies threatened by imbalances such as a housing-bubble.
The legislation would discourage member states from evading their responsibilities to each other to ensure the stability of the eurozone. The rules would provide for enhanced monitoring and surveillance of imbalances like unemployment, credit growth and housing bubble etc. This would also give right signals to the financial markets about the seriousness of the EU and its resolve to handle any future debt crisis.
4. Answer any four of the following in about 150 words each: 12×4=48
(a) “As regards the increasing rates of melting of Arctic Sea ice, the interests of the Arctic Council nations may not coincide with those of the wider world”. Explain.
Answer:
The climate change has increased the rate of melting of the Arctic Sea Ice. This has increased the access of earlier hidden oil and gas resources. Many Arctic countries like Russia, Denmark, Canada and Iceland have rushed to claim their sovereignty over these resources. They see the climate change as an opportunity to exploit these hidden resources. They also provide new opportunities for fishing and shipping.
Wider world on the other hand is concerned about the increasing rate of melting of Arctic Ice as this can threaten existence of some species, disturb the water and ocean cycle, adversely affect global average temperature, and can also lead to loosing climate history stored in these ice sheets. This is a ecologically sensitive area and highly unregulated thus causes concerns for the world at large.
(b) Is there still a role for the concept of balance of power in contemporary international politics? Discuss.
Answer:
The balance of power in the contemporary international politics can be used not only in terms of one super power balancing the other or regional balance of power but also the balance between hard and soft power. The disintegration of USSR tilted the balance of power in favour of America but economic rise of China has started to threaten the numero uno position of USA.
Several example of balance of power in international politics is seen. USA uses Israel as a tool to balance power in West Asia. NAM during the cold war era was used by developing countries to balance the relationship between two superpowers. The doctrine that neighbour’s neighbour is a friend is seen in several situations like China having all weather friendship with Pakistan to balance India. Chinese allege that USA is using its neighbours to contain the rise of China.
The growing economic prowess of emerging economies like India, China, Brazil and South Africa is being used in international forums like G20 or WTO to balance the developed nations. Thus the concept is very much alive even though it might have weakened a bit in the interconnected globalized world with supra national organisations like United Nations playing a key role in international politics.
(c) “Strategic interests seem to be replacing commercial interests for the host country with regard to Cam Ranh bay.” Amplify.
Answer:
Vietnam opened its Cam Ranh Bay after eight years of its closure. The bay is in the northeast of Ho Chi Minh City. It is one of the best deepwater shelters in Southeast Asia. Ships can stop here for refuelling or repair. It enjoys a geo strategic significance as it is located near to key shipping lanes in the South China Sea. China’s aggressive policy in the South China Sea also led to this decision by Vietnam.
The Bay has been strategically crucial for great powers like Russia, Japan, France and USA in the history. Vietnam had not opened it after Russian withdrawal in 2002 but the recent claims by China seems to have led Vietnam to take this step. Opening of the Bay for the navies of many nations will indirectly strengthen Vietnam’s claim and right in the South China Sea and weaken Chinese position.
(d) To what extent has the withdrawal of al-Shabab from Mogadishu given peace a real chance in Somalia? Assess.
Answer:
Al-Shabab has withdrawn from most parts of the capital of Somalia but its fighters still control some areas, including Deynile. The Islamist group withdrew after a government offensive to retake the city and clear the way for foreign aid destined for drought and famine victims. African Union troops has helped push back the rebels.
Al-Shabab once controlled nearly all of Mogadishu and still controls large swaths of central and southern Somalia. The group has tightly controlled the delivery of aid to famine victims in its territory, and has banned access for many international aid agencies. Thus its withdrawal provides real opportunity for peace but it also depends on how this opportunity is utilised by the Somalis government.
Al-Shabab on the other hand has claimed that the retreat was a strategic move and it will remain nearby and continue its effort to topple the United Nations-backed government.
(e) On a Formula-one (F-1) racing car track, information to drivers is generally signalled through the standardized use of flags of different colours. Describe the meaning associated with any six of the flags listed below:
(i) White Flag
Answer:
When the white flag is waved by the race marshals, it means the drivers should immediately slow down, as it indicates the presence of a safety car, ambulance or towing truck ahead, on the track. In this situation, overtaking is strictly prohibited.
(ii) Black Flag
Answer:
Once a race marshal waves the black flag and it attaches the race number to the car to it that means the driver is disqualified for the ongoing race. After seeing the black flag, a driver must enter the pits within the next lap and report immediately to the Clerk of the Course.
(iii) Yellow Flag
Answer:
Indicates danger ahead and overtaking is prohibited. A single waved yellow flag means slow down, a double waved yellow warns that the driver must be prepared to stop if necessary.
(iv) Blue Flag
Answer:
Shown to a driver to indicate that a faster car is behind him and trying to overtake. Shown both to lapped cars and those racing. A lapped car must allow the faster car past after seeing a maximum of three blue flags or risk being penalised.
(v) Black and White Flag divided diagonally
Answer:
Shown with car number to indicate a warning for unsportsmanlike behaviour. A black flag may follow if the driver takes no heed of the warning.
(vi) Chequered Flag
Answer:
This shows that the race has ended. Shown first to the winner, and then to every car to cross the line behind them.
(vii) Yellow and Red Striped Flag
Answer:
The track is slippery. This usually warns of oil or water on the track.
5. Comment on any thirteen of the following in about 50 words each: 5×13=65
(a) International Year of Chemistry
Answer:
The United Nations declared 2011 to be the International Year of Chemistry. The year 2011 marks the 100th anniversary of the founding of the International Association of Chemical Societies, as well as the year Madame Marie Curie won the Nobel Prize – which celebrates the contributions of women to science. The Year hopes to promote the appreciation of chemistry in meeting world needs and the future development of chemistry.
(b) The scourge of e-waste
Answer:
e-waste constitutes of used, obsolete, and end of life cycle electronics product which if disposed in an unscientific manner can lead to pollution of air, water and soil. Acid bath, land fill and burning are used for the disposal of e-waste leading to pollution through heavy metals (like cadmium, mercury, and nickel) poly vinyl chloride and poly chlorinated biphenyl. e-waste is from developed countries is being dumped to developing countries causing large scale health hazards.
(c) Designer poultry eggs
Answer:
Designer eggs are for beauty conscious consumers, as well as persons affected with diabetes and heart-disease. It will be bacteria-free, rich in protein and high on calorific value. The designer eggs are produced through a scientific method adopted for nurturing the layer with the right feed so that they lay high quality eggs. The composition of the feed leads to the desired composition of the eggs.
(d) INSPIRE programme of the Department of Science and Technology
Answer:
Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research (INSPIRE)" is an innovative programme sponsored and managed by the Department of Science & Technology for attraction of talent to Science. The basic objective of INSPIRE is to communicate to the youth of the country the excitements of creative pursuit of science, attract talent to the study of science at an early age and thus build the required critical human resource pool for strengthening and expanding the Science & Technology system and R&D base.
(e) The Kessler syndrome with reference to space debris
Answer:
The Kessler Syndrome is a future scenario when the amount of space junk reaches a high enough density that each collision will produce sufficient fragments that generate a slow cascade effect; producing more collisions and debris, eventually causing our species to become incapable of launching space craft. It was first proposed in 1978 by Donald J. Kessler when debris that accumulates in space is increasing faster than what debris falls out of orbit and burns up.
(f) Omega-3 fatty acids in our food
Answer:
Omega-3 fatty acids are polyunsaturated fats found naturally in oily fish, nuts, seeds, and leafy green vegetables. Omega-3 fatty acids are thought to protect against heart disease, inflammation, and certain types of cancer, diabetes, Alzheimer’s disease, and macular degeneration (a leading cause of vision loss). Omega-3 fatty acids are critical for proper brain development and neurological function in developing babies, too.
(g) Difference between ‘spin-drying’ and ‘tumble-drying’ technology with reference to drying of washed clothes
Answer:
Spin drying technology for drying washed clothes saves time as the high speed and RPM (revolutions per minute) allows the clothes to get rid of water quickly due to centrifugal force. Tumble drying technology on the other hand works mainly on the heated air being passed through the clothes to dry them up. Heat and not spinning speed is used to dry the clothes through this technology.
(h) The admonishing population of vultures
Answer:
The vulture population has been declining which was a cause of concern. Use of diclofenac with the cattle population is partly responsible for this decline. Bombay Natural History Society has taken up conservation and awareness efforts which have positively impacted the vulture population. Vulture breeding centres are set up in Pinjore(Haryana), Rani forest (Assam) to arrest the declining population. The slender billed, white backed vultures are among the endangered species.
(i) ‘Arsenic-bug’ and the significance of its discovery
Answer:
NASA-supported researchers have discovered the first known microorganism on Earth able to thrive and reproduce using the toxic chemical arsenic. The microorganism, which lives in California's Mono Lake, substitutes arsenic for phosphorus in the backbone of its DNA and other cellular components. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorus and sulfur are the six basic building blocks of all known forms of life on Earth. This finding will alter biology textbooks and expand the scope of the search for life beyond Earth.
(j) F-22 ‘Raptor’ aircraft
Answer:
Developed by Lockheed Martin/Boeing, the F-22A Raptor is a supersonic, dual-engine fighter jet. The F-22 is designed for stealth, supercruise speed and super-agility.
It is a fifth generation aircraft. . It has additional capabilities that include ground attack, electronic warfare, and signals intelligence roles. It lost the Indian bid to Eurofighter and French Rafale recently.
(k) ‘Concentrated’ solar energy and’ photovoltaic’ solar energy
Answer:
Concentrating solar power (CSP) technologies use mirrors to reflect and concentrate sunlight onto receivers that collect the solar energy and convert it to heat. This thermal energy can then be used to produce electricity via a steam turbine or heat engine driving a generator.Photovoltaic solar energy is method of converting solar energy into electrical energy using photovoltaic cells having semiconductors that exhibit photoelectric effects. Photovoltaic cells could use any of the semiconductors like silicon, selenium, gallium.
(l) Analog hybrid and IP systems in CCTV technology
Answer:
Monitoring and surveillance applications were traditionally done by analog CCTV technology. Analog CCTV systems are generally maintenance intensive, offer no remote accessibility, and are notoriously difficult to integrate with other systems. IP systems in CCTV technology gets rid of these obstacles. It provides ease of use, advanced search capabilities, simultaneous record and playback, no image degradation, improved compression and storage, and integration potential. IP CCTV technology allows us to take advantage of many new technologies like LAN, Broadband, VPN etc.
(m) Various applications of Kevlar
Answer:
Originally developed as a replacement for steel in radial tires, Kevlar is now used in a wide range of applications. The Kevlar tire technology has been applied to aeroplane, car, racing vehicle and truck tires. Some components of Kevlar are used in an array of rackets, such as tennis, badminton and squash rackets. Canoes and kayaks were also improved when Kevlar technology was applied there.
(n) Differences between Compact Disc (CD), Digital Versatile Disc (DVD) and Blu-ray Disc.
Answer:
The Compact Disc is an optical disc used to store digital data. A DVD is an optical disc storage media format, developed by Philips, Sony, Toshiba, and Panasonic. DVDs offer higher storage capacity than Compact Discs while having the same dimensions. Blu-ray Disc is an optical disc storage medium designed to supersede the DVD format. The plastic disc is 120 mm in diameter and 1.2 mm thick, the same size as DVDs and CDs. Blu-ray Discs contain 25 GB per layer. Blue ray gets its name from the blue laser used to read the data. It allows information to be stored at a greater density as compared to red laser being used in DVD.
6. Comment on the following in about 50 words each: 5×5=25
(a) Functions of the World Customs Organisation (WCO)
Answer:
The World Customs Organization is the only intergovernmental organisation exclusively focused on Customs matters. WCO is recognised as the voice of the global Customs community. It works in the areas covering the development of global standards, the simplification and harmonisation of Customs procedures, trade supply chain security, the facilitation of international trade, the enhancement of Customs enforcement and compliance activities, anti-counterfeiting and piracy initiatives, public-private partnerships, integrity promotion, and sustainable global Customs capacity building programmes.
(b) Success of international intervention of Cote d’Ivoire (Ivory Coast)
Answer:
UN Security council had authorised the intervention in Cote d’Ivoire to end the standoff created by the Gbagbo who had refused to give power after defeat in Presidential elections. UN peacekeeping French forces intervened and the intervention in Côte d'Ivoire worked. Within a week, former president Laurent Gbagbo, who had refused to accept defeat in an election and plunged his country into a steadily escalating spiral of violence and repression, was in custody, and within two weeks the majority of his forces had surrendered or rallied to the new President's side.
(c) Strategic adopted by Colombia to eliminate its drug cartels
Answer:
Columbia has adopted a comprehensive strategy to eliminate drug cartels which involves reducing or eliminating corruption from the police force, judiciary and all the drug enforcement agencies. Several operations involving undercover agents were also undertaken to expose the financial network used by the drug mafia for money laundering. Columbia is also making international efforts to have a coordinated response to the menace of drug trafficking.
(d) World Food Programme (WFP) of the United Nations (UN)
Answer:
WFP is the United Nations frontline agency in the fight against global hunger. WFP is the food aid arm of the United Nations system. Food aid is one of the many instruments that can help to promote food security. The policies governing the use of World Food Programme food aid is oriented towards the objective of eradicating hunger and poverty. The ultimate objective of food aid is the elimination of the need for food aid.
(e) Sculpture of the broken chair in front of the UN building at Geneva
Answer:
Sculpture of the broken chair symbolises opposition to land mines and cluster bombs, and acts as a reminder to politicians and others visiting Geneva. The sculpture was erected by Handicap International and is a work by the Swiss artist Daniel Berset.
7. Why each of the following been in the news recently? (each answer in a sentence or two only); 2×10=20
(a) Tiangong – 1
Answer:
It is a Chinese space laboratory module,and is an experimental testbed to demonstrate the rendezvous and docking capabilities needed to support a space station complex.
(b) K-computer
Answer:
It is a supercomputer produced by Fujitsu at the RIKEN Advanced Institute for Computational Science campus in Kobe, Japan. The K computer is based on distributed memory architecture.
(c) Gliese 581 g
Answer:
It is a hypothetical extrasolar planet of the red dwarf star Gliese 581, in the constellation of Libra. It is the sixth planet discovered in the Gliese 581 planetary system and the fourth in order of increasing distance from the star.
(d) MABEL robot
Answer:
It is believed to be the world’s fastest bipedal robot with knees. It is built with funding from the National Science Foundation and the Defence Advanced Research Projects Agency, USA.
(e) Operation Shady Rat
Answer:
It is referred to the series of cyber attacks starting from mid 2006. It is characterized by McAfee as a five year targeted operation by one specific actor. It refers to targeting of several athletic organisations around the time of Summer 2008 Olympics.
(f) SAGA-220
Answer:
It is the fastest super computer of India developed by ISRO. Its speed is 220 teraflops.
(g) Billion Acts of Green
Answer:
The goal of Billion Acts of Green campaign is to reach a billion acts of environmental service and advocacy before Rio +20 to be held in 2012.
(h) L’Aquila earthquake
Answer:
Six scientists have been accused for manslaughter over the 2009 L’Aquila earthquake. Prosecutors allege the defendants gave a falsely reassuring statement before the quake after studying hundreds of tremors that had shaken the city.
(i) OPERA detector at Gran Sasso
Answer:
Oscillation Project with Emulsion-Racking Apparatus is an experiment to detect neutrinos. OPERA researchers have observed muon neutrinos travelling apparently at faster than the speed of light.
(j) Saturn’s Titan
Answer:
Titan is the largest moon of Saturn and the second largest moon in the solar system. It is the only natural satellite known to have a dense atmosphere.
8. Why have the following been in the news recently? (each answer in a sentence or two only): 2×5=10
(a) ‘News International’ newspaper
Answer:
News International is the UK arm of Murdoch's global News Corp empire and publishes four British newspapers: the Times, the Sunday Times, the Sun and the News of the World, as well as the weekly Times Literary Supplement.
(b) Mustafa Abdul-Jalil
Answer:
He is the Chairman of the National Transitional Council of Libya, and as such serves as head of state in Libya's caretaker government which was formed as a result of the 2011 Libyan civil war.
(c) Abel Kirui
Answer:
Kenya's Abel Kirui is a marathon runner who retained his world championships title in emphatic fashion, recording the largest winning margin in championship history.
(d) Natalie Portman
Answer:
She is a hollywood actress who has won the Oscar for the best actress for her performance in the movie Black Swan.
(e) Nawaf Salam
Answer:
He is a Lebanese diplomat, academic, and jurist. He is currently serving as Lebanon's Ambassador and Permanent Representative to the United Nations in New York.
9. (a) List the requisites of a good table:
Present the following in a suitable tabular form: 5
In 1980 out of a total of 1750 workers of a factory, 1200 were members of a union. The number of women employed was 200 of which 175 did not belong to the union. In 1985 the number of union workers increased to 1580 of which 1290 were men. On the other hand the number of non-union workers fell down to 208 of which 180 were men. In 1990 there were 1800 employees who belonged to the union and 50 who did not belong to the union. Of all the employees in 1990, 300 were women of which only 8 did not belong to the union.
Answer:
| Male | Female | |||
| Union | Non Union | Union | Non Union | |
| 1980 | 1175 | 375 | 25 | 175 |
| 1985 | 1290 | 180 | 290 | 28 |
| 1990 | 1508 | 42 | 292 | 8 |
| Marks | No. Of Students |
| 50-55 | 6 |
| 55-60 | 10 |
| 60-65 | 22 |
| 65-70 | 30 |
| 70-75 | 16 |
| 75-80 | 12 |
| 80-100 | 15 |
| No. of tablets | No. of Persons cured |
| 4-8 | 11 |
| 8-12 | 13 |
| 12-16 | 16 |
| 16-20 | 14 |
| 20-24 | ? |
| 24-28 | 9 |
| 28-32 | 17 |
| 32-36 | 6 |
| 36-40 | 4 |
Answer:
| No. of tablets | Middle Point | No. of Persons cured | Product |
| 4-8 | 6 | 11 | 66 |
| 8-12 | 10 | 13 | 130 |
| 12-16 | 14 | 16 | 224 |
| 16-20 | 18 | 14 | 252 |
| 20-24 | 22 | x | 22x |
| 24-28 | 26 | 9 | 234 |
| 28-32 | 30 | 17 | 510 |
| 32-36 | 34 | 6 | 204 |
| 36-40 | 38 | 4 | 152 |
| 1772+22x/90+x = 19.9 |
| 1772 +22x = 1791 + 19.9x |
| 2.1x = 19 |
| x = 9 |
| Life time (hours) | No. of tubes |
| 300-399 | 14 |
| 400-499 | 46 |
| 500-599 | 58 |
| 600-699 | 76 |
| 700-799 | 68 |
| 800-899 | 62 |
| 900-999 | 48 |
| 1000-1099 | 22 |
| 1100-1199 | 6 |
(i) Relative frequency of sixth class.
Answer: See Answer table below
Relative frequency of sixth class is = Frequency of that class/ Total frequency = 62/ 400 = 0.155 = 15.5%
(ii) Percentage of tubes whose life-time does not exceed 600 hours.
Answer:Percentage of tubes whose life-time does not exceed 600 hours = 29.5% from table below
(iii) Percentage of tubes whose life time is greater than or equal to 900 hours.
Answer:Percentage of tubes whose life time is greater than or equal to 900 hours = 19% from table below
(iv) Percentage of tubes whose life time is at least 500 but less than 1000 hours.
Answer:Percentage of tubes whose life time is at least 500 but less than 1000 hours = (Less than 1000 hours – Less than 500 hours) / 400 = (372 – 60)/ 400 = 312/400 = 78%
| Life time | Less than | Cumulative Fr | Percentage | More than | Cumulative Fr | Percentage | No. of tubes |
| 299.5-399.5 | 399.5 | 14 | 3.50% | 299.5 | 400.00 | 100.00% | 14 |
| 399.5-499.5 | 499.5 | 60.00 | 15.00% | 399.5 | 386.00 | 96.50% | 46 |
| 499.5-599.5 | 599.5 | 118.00 | 29.50% | 499.5 | 340.00 | 85.00% | 58 |
| 599.5-699.5 | 699.5 | 194.00 | 48.50% | 599.5 | 282.00 | 70.50% | 76 |
| 699.5-799.5 | 799.5 | 262.00 | 65.50% | 699.5 | 206.00 | 51.50% | 68 |
| 799.5-899.5 | 899.5 | 324.00 | 81.00% | 799.5 | 138.00 | 34.50% | 62 |
| 899.5-999.5 | 999.5 | 372.00 | 93.00% | 899.5 | 76.00 | 19.00% | 48 |
| 999.5-1099.5 | 1099.5 | 394.00 | 98.50% | 999.5 | 28.00 | 7.00% | 22 |
| 1099.5-1199.5 | 1199.5 | 400.00 | 100.00% | 1099.50 | 6.00 | 1.50% | 6 |
10. (a) A car travels 25 km at 25 kph, 25 km at 50 kph, and 25 km at 75 kph. Find the average speed of the car for the entire journey.
Answer:
| Distance in km | Speed in kph | Time taken in hr = Distance/ Speed | |
| 25 | 25 | 1.00 | |
| 25 | 50 | 0.50 | |
| 25 | 75 | 0.33 | |
| Total | 75 | 1.83 | |
| Average Speed in kph | Total Distance/ Total Time | 40.91 |
Answer:
Incorrect Total = 200*50 = 10000
Correct Total = 10000 + (192-92) + (88-8) = 10180
Correct Mean = 10180/ 200 = 50.9
(c) Students were asked how long it took them to walk to school on a particular morning. A cumulative frequency distribution was formed.
| Time taken (minutes) | c.f. |
| <5 | 28 |
| <10 | 45 |
| <15 | 81 |
| <20 | 143 |
| <25 | 280 |
| <30 | 349 |
| <35 | 374 |
| <40 | 395 |
| <45 | 400 |
(ii) Estimate how many students took less than 18 minutes.
(ii) 6% of students took x minutes or longer. Find x. 6
(d) An investor buys ` 1200 worth of shares in a company each month. During the first five months he bought the shares at a price of ` 10, ` 12, ` 15, ` 20 and ` 24 per share. After 5 months, what is the average price paid for the shares by him? 4
Answer:
Number of shares in first month = 1200/10 = 120
Number of shares in second month = 1200/12 = 100
Number of shares in third month = 1200/15 = 80
Number of shares in fourth month = 1200/20 = 60
Number of shares in fifth month = 1200/24 = 50
Total number of shares = 410
Total money spent = 1200*5 = 6000
Average price for shares = 6000/ 410 = 14.6
Tuesday, January 24, 2012
PNB Specialist Officers Exam, 2011
Punjab National Bank (Specialist Officers) Exam., 2011English Language : Solved Paper(Held on 28-8-2011)
GENERAL ENGLISH
(EXAM HELD ON: 18-08-2011)
Directions–(Q. 1-15) Read the following passage to answer the given questions based on it. Some words / phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The advent of technology has fundamentally changed our lives, but one thing is for sure: The velocity of technological change will accelerate in an exponential manner with significant ramifications for all of us. Just imagine: over half of the scientists and engineers who have ever lived are alive today. China adds about 6.5 million graduates every year, half of them engineers and scientists. It is not only the sheer number of "innovators" who will push the boundaries of science, technology and ultimately life-change, but also the greater degree of interconnectivity which accelerates the generation of knowledge and creates a much more entrepreneurial environment for innovation and change.
What is particularly striking is this dimension of change. Today's technological evolution no longer solely affects what we are doing, but also who we are. Of course, the Internet is in many ways still a tool, but it has also become part of our DNA. This is true for governments (just think of WikiLeaks), for businesses and for individuals. In some way, we are "outsourcing" parts of ourselves – and this raises the question: Who owns our 'inner most' self -our desires or our mobile phone records, capturing where we are going and with whom we are meeting. Is it technology companies, our local phone providers, or is it still us ?
It is not only the velocity and nature of change, but also the increasing multiplicity of actors which characterizes the world of today and tomorrow. Ten years ago, the Group of Eight (G-8) countries represented more than 60% of the world's economic power. Today, much more than half of the world's economic growth is produced by so-called emerging countries. This multiplicity of actors not only highlights the geographic expansion and the extension of multi-stakeholder impact, but it also underscores the fact that power is shifting from the top down and from the centre to the periphery -leaving almost seven billion people who want to have their say and the capability to do so.
The geoeconomic and geopolitical power shifts taking place will fundamentally change our lifestyles – equally, so too will the cultural seismic shifts that are occurring. Going forward, prevailing Western values will have to increasingly accommodate Asian values, and vice-versa. By 2025, four of the five largest economies in the world will be non-Western and close to half of the Fortune 500 companies will originate in emerging countries. This will have a direct impact on all of us in terms of new brands, new lifestyles and new industrial ownership structures.
All of these accelerated trends – velocity, multiplicity, interconnectivity – are creating a completely new world in which the mastering of complexities will be the key challenge. Of course, the more complex the system is, the greater the risk of systemic breakdowns.
1. Which of the following is predicted about world' s largest economies by 2025 ?
(A) Three out of the five largest economies will be Asian
(B) Four out of the five largest economies will be western
(C) Three out of the five largest economies will be non-western
(D) The top five largest economies will be non-western
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
2. Which of the following is indicated about technology ?
(A) Technology changes will be more rapid now
(B) Technology will not bring about major societal changes now
(C) Number of innovations has gone down now
(D) Technologically advanced countries will represent 60% of world's economic power
(E) Telecommunication will see more advancement as compared to other areas
Ans : (A)
3. Which of the following would, in future, be true about cultural changes ?
(A) Western culture will affect Asian culture
(B) Asian culture will affect western culture
(C) Both western and Asian culture and values will adjust and mingle with each other
(D) No culture will be able to influence the other culture
(E) Inspite of other rapid changes, cultural changes will be slow
Ans : (C)
4. Which of the following is predicted about the Fortune 500 Companies ?
(A) Many of these companies will shift their base to the emerging countries
(B) Fortune 500 will be replaced by Fortune 2025
(C) Many new companies initiated in emerging countries will find place in Fortune 500
(D) None of the presently included countries will remain in Fortune 500 group by 2025
(E) The share of western countries will be less than 20% in Fortune 500
Ans : (C)
5. Which of the following may be the best title for the passage ?
(A) Technology
(B) New world complexities
(C) Convergence of Asian Values
(D) Innennost Vs outerself
(E) Changing lifestyle by 2025
Ans : (B)
6. Which of the following is true about world economy?
(A) The share of G-8 countries in the economic growth is just 10%
(B) More countries from western world now contribute to the world's economy
(C) There are five countries which contribute about 60% of world's economic growth
(D) More than 50% of world's economic growth now comes from developing countries
(E) The growth rate of GDP of most of the western countries is much more than what it was 10 years ago
Ans : (D)
7. Which of the following best describes the meaning of "push the boundaries" as used in the passage ?
(A) accept the challenge
(B) creating more competition
(C) prove to the world
(D) achieve the unimaginable
(E) take technology from one area to the other
Ans : (A)
8. Which of the following has now become a part of our DNA ?
(A) Global cooperation
(B) Internet
(C) Western values
(D) Complex life style
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
9. Which of the following would be the key challenge in the new world ?
(A) Controlling geopolitical power shifts
(B) Mastering the emerging complexities
(C) Pushing the boundaries of science
(D) Overcoming the power of internet
(E) The power shift from the centre to the periphery
Ans : (E)
Directions–(Q. 10-13) Choose the word(s) which is most nearly the same in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.
10. accommodate(A) alter
(B) domesticate
(C) barrack
(D) include
(E) abide
Ans : (D)
11. ramifications
(A) ractifications
(B) backlashes
(C) consequences
(D) issues
(E) reverberations
Ans : (C)
12. accelerated
(A) new found
(B) unexpected
(C) rabid
(D) systemic
(E) fast paced
Ans : (E)
13. advent
(A) over-use
(B) importance
(C) approach
(D) arrival
(E) assurance
Ans : (D)
Directions–(Q. 14-15) Choose I the word(s) which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold, as used in the passage.
14. striking
(A) friendly
(B) undistinguished
(C) interlocking
(D) noticeable
(E) non-colliding
Ans : (B)
15. key
(A) subsidiary
(B) closed
(C) primal
(D) locked
(E) over-ruled
Ans : (A)
Directions–(Q. 16-25) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
Delhi and Mumbai are the fifth and third cheapest cities of the world, out of 134 ...(16)..., says a news report. This comes as a ...(17)..., naturally, to those who live in these places and have been led to. ..(18) ... that they lead a pretty expensive life. Particularly what with the global commodity price boom pushing up material prices and all kinds of labour costs. With their considerable experience in 'arranging' surveys to deliver the desired results, many a Dilliwala or Mumbaikar might be tempted to ...(19)... the survey which came up with these results was ...(20)... by some sponsor or the other. Such cynicism goes out of the ...(21) ...when the same news report reveals that the survey was conducted by a respectable organisation. ...(22) ...a scrutiny of the top five cities and the two Indian cities, neighbours at the bottom yields a clue.
Tokyo leads the pack, followed by Oslo, Kobe, Paris and Zurich. One cannot readily vouch for Paris, but the other four are some of the most placid peaceful cities of the world. When we come to the bottom of the ranking, giving ...(23)... to Delhi and Mumbai are Tehran. Tunis and Karachi, the last mentioned being crowned the cheapest city of them all. Karachi gives the game away immediately, lifting all ...(24)... over what exactly is cheap in these places jostling for space at the bottom of the list. Life liberty and human dignity are what goes ...(25)... in these towns and what makes Delhi and Mumbai worthy contenders in the race to global cheapness. When crime goes unchecked, even after being widely reported and condemned, and criminals run rampant, life gets degraded, deformed, even extinguished. Life, in other words, gets cheap. Call it the lighter side of death.
16. (A) bigger
(B) participated
(C) sought
(D) designed
(E) surveyed
Ans : (E)
17. (A) reckoner
(B) shock
(C) mistake
(D) grief
(E) relief
Ans : (B)
18. (A) style
(B) believe
(C) display
(D) pretend
(E) deny
Ans : (B)
19. (A) deny
(B) protest
(C) oppose
(D) conclude
(E) conduct
Ans : (D)
20. (A) matched
(B) improved
(C) sponsored
(D) rejected
(E) manipulated
Ans : (E)
21. (A) doubt
(B) wisdom
(C) city
(D) door
(E) senses
Ans : (D)
22. (A) But
(B) Whether
(C) Would
(D) If
(E) As
Ans : (A)
23. (A) competing
(B) hints
(C) company
(D) significance
(E) threat
Ans : (C)
24. (A) inhibition
(B) definitions
(C) dependency
(D) mystery
(E) censor
Ans : (D)
25. (A) cheap
(B) unreported
(C) miss
(D) complex
(E) jostling
Ans : (A)
Directions–(Q. 26-35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it or a wrong word has been used. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence which has been lettered (A), (B), (C) or (D). The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
26. To begun with (A) / three agencies were (B) / retained to study (C) / and submit recommendations. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
27. To clamp down on illegal mining (A) / that loses money for the Exchequer, (B) / local people need to empowered (C) / to vet and oversee operations. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
28. In real terms, it (A) / means passing up on (B) / opportunities that presents (C) / themselves to us. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
29. The failure to control (A) / losses or increase revenues (B) / in a market growing (C) / in double digit is significantly. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
30. There have been (A) / marked changes, (B) / but social rather (C) / then economic. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
31. Notwithstand his (A) / frequent indisposition, (B) / he has diligently attended (C) / every single court hearing. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
32. The administration continued to (A) / improve bilateral relations, (B) / while deepening and (C) / formalizing the economic dialogue. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
33. The cause of rising crimes (A) / against women has its roots (B) / in the skewed sex ratio which (C) / males outnumber females. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
34. Now that more and more (A) / internet sites are tailored (B) / their services to the requirements of individual users, (C) / queries may yield different outcomes for different people. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
35. These are among (A) / the many contentious points (B) / that the author make (C) / in his controversial book. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
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