Uttaranchal Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam., 2011

General English

(Held on 10-4-2011) 

Directions—(Q. 1 to 12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the question—

One of the boys in a small village was sent out to the fields to look after some sheep. He was instructed bye the villagers to mind the sheep and take care of them. ‘Don't let them stray,’ said the villagers to him. “And keep a good look out for the wolves. Don't go far away’, and if you see a wolf coming near the sheep; shout out ‘wolf!’ as loudly as you can and we will come at once to help you.” ‘All right!’ said the boy, ‘I will be careful.’ So every morning he drove his sheep out to the hillside and watched them all day. And when evening came, he drove them home again. But after a few days he got rather tired of this lonely life. Nothing happened and no wolves came. So one afternoon he said to himself. “These villagers have given me a very useless job. I think I will play a trick on them, just for fun.”

So he got up and began shouting as loudly as he could, ‘Wolf ! Wolf !’ The people in the village heard him, and at once they came running with their sticks. ‘Wolf ! Wolf !’ shouted the boy; and they ran faster. At last they came up to him out of breath. “Where is the wolf ?” they panted. But the boy only laughed and said: “There is no wolf. I only shouted for fun. And it was fun to see you all running as hard as you could !” The men were very angry. “You mischievous boy !” they said. “If you play a trick like that again, we will beat you instead of the wolf.” And they went back to their work in the village. For some days the boy kept quiet. But he got restless again, and said to himself : “I wonder if they will come running again if I cry wolf once more. It was so much fun the last time.”

So once more he began shouting, ‘Wolf ! Wolf’ ! The villagers heard him. Some said, “That boy is up to his tricks again”. But others said, “it may be true this time; and if there really is a wolf, we shall lose some of our sheep.” So they seized their sticks, and ran out of the village to the sheep.

“Where is the wolf ? ” they shouted, as they came up. ‘Nowhere!’ said the boy laughing. “It was fun to see you running up the hill as fast as you could.” “We will teach you to play jokes,” shouted the angry men; and they seized the boy and gave him a good beating, and left him crying instead of laughing.

A few days later a wolf really did come. When the boy saw it, he was very frightened and began shouting ‘Wolf ! Wolf !’ The villagers heard him, but they said. “We won't make a fool of ourselves for a third time. You can't believe a boy after you have caught him lying twice.” So no one went to help him, and the wolf killed several sheep and frightened the boy nearly out of his wits. But he learnt his lesson.

1. What was the task given to the boy in the village ?
(A) The boy was asked to mind the sheep
(B) The boy was instructed to play a prank on the villagers
(C) The boy was asked to count the sheep on the hill side
(D) The boy was instructed to capture the wolf
(E) The boy was asked to feed the sheep to the wolf
Ans : (A)

2. Why did the boy yell out ‘Wolf’ the first time ?
(A) He was practising in case a wolf really appeared
(B) He wanted to scare the sheep
(C) He wanted to play a trick on the villagers
(D) He thought he saw a wolf
(E) He wanted to call out to the wolf
Ans : (C)

3. Why did the villagers beat the boy ?
1. The boy refused to look after the sheep.
2. The boy made them run up the hill for fun.
3. He let the wolf eat some of the sheep.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) Only (1) and (3)
Ans : (B)


4. Why did the villagers ignore the boy's shouts the third time?
(A) They were tired of playing games with the boy
(B) They could not understand what the boy was saying
(C) The boy had lied to them twice earlier
(D) They were tired of running after the boy
(E) They could not leave their work in the village
Ans : (C)

5. What could be an appropriate moral of the story ?
(A) Never tell lies
(B) Never play with animals
(C) Never shout ‘Help’
(D) Jokes do no harm
(E) Never chase wolves
Ans : (A)

6. What lesson did the boy learn from the villagers ?
1. The boy learnt not to joke around about serious matters.
2. The boy learnt never to make people run unnecessarily .
3. The boy learnt how to mind the sheep.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) Only (1) and (3)
Ans : (A)

7. Why did the boy feel that he was given a useless job?
(A) The sheep were always lethargic
(B) He could not play any tricks on the wolves
(C) There were no wolves in the area
(D) He felt he was wasting his time as no wolf came around
(E) The sheep never troubled him
Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following sentences is true of the boy as given in the passage ?
(A) The boy was poor
(B) The boy was trustworthy
(C) The boy had no friends
(D) The boy was useless
(E) The boy was mischievous
Ans : (E)

9. What could be an appropriate title for the story ?
(A) The boy who cried ‘Wolf’
(B) The imaginary ‘Wolf’
(C) The Lost Sheep
(D) The Honest Shepherd Boy
(E) The Villain Villagers
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 10 to 12) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. Hard
(A) Comfortably
(B) Calmly
(C) Tough
(D) Long
(E) Fast
Ans : (E)

11. Several
(A) Limited
(B) Large
(C) Few
(D) Many
(E) Unlimited
Ans : (D)

12. Useless
(A) Carefree
(B) Easy
(C) Fun
(D) Secure
(E) Futile
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 13 to 17) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e., ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

13. You can help (A) / yourself to some biscuits, (B) / although there are (C) / a less left. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

14. Each soldier were (A) / praised for his bravery, (B) / and was each (C) / given a medal. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

15. The aim of (A) / the organisation is to (B) / educate the public about (C) / the dangers of the smoking. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

16. People who smoke (A) / are not the only ones (B) / to be affect (C) / by lung cancer. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

17. There was no one`(A) /`from America (B) / between the many tourists (C) / in the train. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 18 to 24) Which of the group of words/phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the group of words printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

18. He has played for the national team in 65 matches so far—
(A) is playing
(B) have played
(C) playing
(D) play
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

19. Wait here until I will call you—
(A) am calling
(B) am going to call
(C) call
(D) shall call
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

20. Since the car broke down we must get a taxi—
(A) must have got
(B) had got to get
(C) had to get
(D) getting
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

21. The students made some research on the benefits of irrigation in agriculture—
(A) did some researches
(B) did some research
(C) made research
(D) took some research
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

22. The children were enjoyed taken to the zoo—
(A) enjoyed being taken
(B) were enjoyed taking
(C) enjoyed taking
(D) enjoyed
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

23. The park attendant told us not to throws litter on the ground—
(A) to don't throw
(B) not to have thrown
(C) not to throw
(D) not to thrown
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

24. There was too many people trying to get into the football stadium—
(A) There was too much
(B) There were too many
(C) There were too much
(D) It was too many
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 25 to 29) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence/group of sentences meaningfully complete in the context of the sentence.

25. Why do I always have to stay at home ? Anita …… her parents.
(A) questioned
(B) exclaimed
(C) said
(D) answered
(E) felt
Ans : (A)

26. My friends went to see the film …… our favourite actress was acting in it.
(A) if
(B) because
(C) so
(D) but
(E) also
Ans : (B)

27. …… we have a television set we do not watch anything on it.
(A) Although
(B) Inspite
(C) Besides
(D) But
(E) Just
Ans : (A)

28. We have not had a spare moment …… the morning.
(A) for
(B) since
(C) even
(D) by
(E) over
Ans : (C)

29. Amit is working …… for his examination.
(A) badly
(B) easily
(C) usually
(D) heavily
(E) hard
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 30 to 34) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

30. My friend (A) was bruised (B) quiet (C) badly in a recent accident. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

31. If you should (A) need more information, (B) please telefone (C) our main office. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

32. If you resist (A) the first temptation, (B) the next will be easier (C) to overcome. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

33. Stones (A) should not be throne (B) by those who live (C) in glass houses. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

34. Success (A) or failure (B) depends largely (C) on our own efferts. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 35 to 40) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
1. The inscription read : Greed is the root of all evil, remember this and you will be a better man.
2. But there was no treasure there, only an inscription on the underside of the rock.
3. The Arab felt sure there was a great treasure hidden beneath it and worked hard to turn it over.
4. An Arab while crossing a desert came across a huge rock half buried in the sand.
5. After several hours he finally succeeded.
6. Engraved on the rock were words turn me over and you will benefit from it.\

35. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

36. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 1
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

37. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 6
(D) 2
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

39. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 2
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

40. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 41 to 50) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A rich landowner was on his deathbed. Gasping for breath, he told his three sons to dig under his bed when he was gone, and saying that, gave up his life. Some days later, the sons dug at the spot and unearthed three pots. …41… one above the other. The topmost pot contained mud; the middle pot contained dried cow dung and the …42… pot contained straw. Below this pot there was a silver coin. The brothers were puzzled. “Obviously, father meant to …43… some message to us through the pots and their contents,” said the oldest brother. ‘But what ?’ They …44… for a while but …45… of them could come up with an explanation.

Finally they decided to …46… their doctor who was also a family friend. The doctor laughed when the brothers put their problem before him. “Your father loved puzzles.” he said, “and I think he could not resist setting up one last one. The interpretation is simple. The topmost pot contains mud you say, that …47… he wants his eldest son to have his fields. The second pot contains cow
dung. It means he wants his second son to have his …48… of cattle. The last pot contains straw. Now straw is golden-coloured, that means he wants his youngest son to have all his gold.” The brothers were happy with the way their father had apportioned his wealth and marvelled at the doctor's …49…. “But one thing remains unexplained,” said the youngest brother. “The silver coin at the bottom of the pots.” “Your father knew you would come to consult me,” smiled the doctor. “The coin is my …50…”.

41. (A) looking
(B) only
(C) stand
(D) stood
(E) placed
Ans : (E)

42. (A) least
(B) lowest
(C) less
(D) deep
(E) lesser
Ans : (B)

43. (A) convey
(B) tell
(C) say
(D) order
(E) teach
Ans : (A)

44. (A) think
(B) thought
(C) ponder
(D) relaxed
(E) taught
Ans : (B)

45. (A) no
(B) one
(C) either
(D) some
(E) none
Ans : (E)

46. (A) go
(B) asked
(C) told
(D) consult
(E) take
Ans : (D)

47. (A) meaning
(B) telling
(C) suggesting
(D) reflecting
(E) means
Ans : (E)

48. (A) flock
(B) herd
(C) gathering
(D) school
(E) all
Ans : (B)

49. (A) wisdom
(B) suggestion
(C) effort
(D) brilliant
(E) witty
Ans : (A)

50. (A) friendship
(B) pot
(C) keep
(D) fee
(E) desire
Ans : (D)

ESIC VARIOUS STATES UDC/MTS RECRUITMENT

ESIC, Goa: Advertisement for recruitment of Upper Division Clerks and Multi Tasking Staff

ESIC, Indore, MP: Advertisement for recruitment of Upper Division Clerks & Multi Tasking Staff


ESIC, Chandigarh:   Advertisement for recruitment of stenographer, Upper Division Clerk & Multi Tasking Staff


ESIC, Delhi: Detailed Advertisement for recruitment of Upper Division Clerks and Multi Tasking Staff in ESIC in Delhi [Head office, Regional office and Directorate (Medical) Delhi] - 2011


 Scheme of Examination
  Sample Question Papers for Computer Skill Test

ESIC, Hqrs.
  Sample Question Paper for Computer Skill Test in English for recruitment to the post of Stenographer in ESIC
  Sample Question Paper for Computer Skill Test in Hindi for recruitment to the post of Stenographer in ESIC

UTTAR BIHAR GRAMIN BANK RECRUITMENT

Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank (UBGB)
(Sponsored by Central Bank of India
Kalambagh Chowk, Muzaffarpur-842001

Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank invites Online applications for following posts :

1. Officer MMG Scale -III : 07 posts
2. Officer MMG Scale –II : 121 posts
3. Officer JMG Scale - I : 268  posts
4. Office Assistant (Multipurpose) : 406 posts
   

Application fee : Rs.400/- (Rs.50/- for SC/ST) to be paid by Challan form in any branch of Central Bank of India.

How to Apply : Apply Online at UBGB website from 28/12/2011 to 27/01/2012 only.


Please visit http://www.ubgb.in for details and application format.

TET ENGLISH PEDAGOGY

1. “Language is innate to all human beings” is
the belief of....
1) Cognitivists
2) Psycholinguists
3) Behaviourists
4) Experimentalists

2. “English is the gift of goddess saraswathi” is the quotation given by ....
1) Mahatma Gandhi
2) Jawaharlal Nehru
3) Rajaji
4) Prof. Gokak

3. The aim of English Education in pre Independent India was ....
1) Preparing the Indians to help the British Administration
2) To bring about cultural transmission
3) To ensure a co-ordination among different groups of people.
4) To expand trade and commerce links

4. Structural Approach was first introduced in....
1) Madras state
2) Hyderabad state
3) Bengal state
4) Delhi

5. The Word Method in the teaching of Reading was introduced by ....
1) Gray
2) Anderson
3) Comenius
4) Edmund Burke

6. Flower and Hayes regarded the following one of the skills as ‘Problem - Creating and solving skill’
1) Listening
2) Speaking
3) Reading
4) Writing

7. English has .... distinct phonemes
1) 44
2) 42
3) 26
4) 45

8. Chapter-4 of NCFTE-2009 deals with ....
1) Language Education
2) Teacher Education Programmes
3) School Education
4) Curriculum

9. “A language could best be taught” by using it actively in the class room was said by....
1) Asher
2) Dodson
3) Franke
4) Medinger

10. Dr. Wests Method lays stress on.....
1) Listening
2) Speaking
3) Reading
4) Writing

11. Intonation is variation in .....
1) Pitch
2) Sound
3) Organ
4) air

12. Lesson Plan is an example for .....
1) Long term plan
2) Mid term plan
3) Short term plan
4) Half yearly plan

13. “Bad writing is a sign of imperfect
education”- said by .....
1) Mahatma Gandhi
2) Jawaharlal Nehru
3) Radhakrishnan
4) D.S. Kothari

14. Teaching of poetry is meant for .....
1) development of aesthetic sense
2) intensive study of language
3) extensive reading
4) comprehension and composition

15. Find out the function word from the following.
1) and
2) champion
3) handsome
4) seizing

16. S-O-S approach is an alternative to-
1) Bilingual method
2) Audio lingual method
3) Direct method
4) GT Method

17. The repetition of same idea or item of information within the language is called as-
1) creativity
2) reduncy
3) prevarication
4) cultural transmission

18. Banishing mother tongue in the class room is the characteristic feature of ...... method
1) Direct
2) Bilingual
3) GT
4) Reading

19. Writing is the ....... representation of speech sounds
1) alphabetical
2) graphical
3) phonetic
4) systematic

20. A unit of written text or speech which is larger than a sentence is known as .......
1) a discourse
2) a phoneme
3) a phrase
4) an inflection

21. Which one of the following is considered as a great deterrent to learning English?
1) Lack of opportunity for the pupils to listen and use English outside the classroom
2) English is a difficult language to learn
3) English phonemes are unsuzupulous
4) English has a vast vocabulary

22. Example for Authentic Material is .....
1) English Reader
2) Supplementary Reader
3) News paper
4) All the above

23. Diagnostic Tests are administered to .....
1) Find out deficiencies of the students with a view to impart remediation
2) asses the suitability of a candidate for specific programme
3) test the proficiency for some placement
4) judge the students capabilities

24. Find out the correct statement with regard to ‘Evaluation’.
1) Evaluation is a more comprehensive process of measurement
2) Evaluation is both qualitative and quantitative
3) Evaluation is concerned with the measurement of the total teaching - learning process
4) All the above

25. CLT approach emphasises on learning by .....
1) imitation
2) repetition
3) use
4) playing

Answers: 1-2; 2-3; 3-1; 4-1; 5-3; 6-4; 7-1; 8-2;
9-3; 10-3; 11-1; 12-3; 13-1; 14-1; 15-1; 16-3;
17-2; 18-1; 19-2; 20-1; 21-1; 22-3; 23-1; 24-4; 25-3.

DMRC RECRUITMENT

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. (DMRC)
A Joint Venture of Govt. of India and Govt. of Delhi
Fire Brigade Lane, Barakhamba Road, New Delhi - 110001, India

Requirement of Diploma/ Degree/ Graduate/ ITI Holders in DMRC
 Applications are invited from dynamic, experienced and highly motivated persons of Indian Nationality for appointment for following category of 815 posts in  DMRC :

1. Station Controller/ Train Operator : 411 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.13500-25520/-
2. Customer Relations Assistant : 189 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.10170-18500/-
3. Jr. Engineers : 79 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.13500-25520/-
4. Maintainers : 114 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 8000-14140/-
5. Fire Inspector : 02 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.13500-25520/-
6. Office Assistant : 07 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 10170-18500/-
7. Account Assistant : 10 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 10170-18500/-
8. Store Assistant : 03 posts, Pay Scale : Rs. 10170-18500/- 

How to Apply : Eligible and willing candidates  may apply Online at DMRC website only from 30/12/2011 to 24/01/2012. Take printout of system generated registration slip and send it on or before 31/01/2012.

For further details and Apply online,  Please visit http://delhimetrorail.com/career.aspx from 30/12/2011 onwards.

Bank of India Recruitment of Specialist Officers and General Banking Officers

Bank of India  invites application from eligible candidates for recruitment of Specialist Officers and General Banking Officers.
Name of the Post & Number of Vacancies

• Specialist Officers: 193 vacancies
• General Banking Officers: 110 vacancies

Important Dates

• Date of Commencement of submission of application: 26 December 2011
• Closing date for submitting online application: 16 January 2012
• Last date for making changes in the application: 18 January 2012
• Date for Written Test: 19 February 2012
• Relevant date for Age/Qualification/Experience: 30 November 2011

Application Fee: No fee will be charged from SC/ ST/ PWD/ Ex- Servicemen candidates and fee for other category students is Rs 500.
The fees need to be paid in the form of challan available on the bank's website in any bank of India's branch in Bank Account Name: Recruitment of Specialist & General Banking Officers - PROJECT NO. 2011-12/4 and Bank's Account No. to be Credited: 012221110000013.
Selection Procedure: The selection procedure will comprise of written test, group discussion and/ or interview.
Candidates have to secure minimum qualifying marks in each of the objective test i.e. 40% for General Category (35% in case of SC/ST/OBC) and 50% average marks in all the objective test taken together for General Category (45% in case of SC/ST/OBC).
How to Apply

• The candidate should apply on-line through website http://www.bankofindia.co.in/
• Take out Print-out of Challan and make the payment of fees in any of the Bank of India branches on or before 16 January 2012
• Candidates should have a scanned (digital) image of his photograph and signature as per the specifications
• Candidates should Apply Online by re-visiting the Bank's website. After submitting application, they should note/ remember registration number and password for future reference.

For more information, please CLICK HERE
Apply Online

Corporation Bank Recruitment of Probationary Assistant Managers

Corporation Bank invited applications from eligible candidates for the post of Probationary Assistant Managers who have taken Common Written Examination for Probationary Officer/ Management Trainees conducted by IBPS and have a valid Score Card issued by IBPS.
Name of the Post & Number of Vacancies
Probationary Assistant Managers: 355 vacancies
Important Dates

• Opening date for online registration: 3 January 2012
• Closing date for online registration: 17 January 2012

Eligibility Criteria
Educational Qualification: The candidate should be a graduate in any discipline from a recognised university with minimum 55% marks. (For candidates belonging to SC/ST/PC category minimum 50% marks are required). Computer Knowledge in MS Office.
Essential Requirement: Minimum IBPS Score obtained in CWE for Pos/ MTs 2011-12:

• General Category: Marks in each subject 25, Aggregate Marks 151
• Reserved Category: Marks in each subject 21, Aggregate Marks (SC/ ST 126, OBC 141, PWD 106)

Age Limit: Minimum 20 years, Maximum 30 years
Application Fee: Fee for SC/ ST/ PWD/ Ex- Servicemen candidates is Rs 50 and fee for other category students is Rs 200.
The fees need to be paid in the form of challan available on the bank's website through CBS/ NEFT at any of the branches of Corporation Bank
Pay Scale: Rs 14500 - 600/7-18700-700/2-20100-800/7-25700 plus DA, HRA, CCA as per rules in force from time to time. Total emoluments will be Rs 23,223.
Selection Procedure: The candidates will be selected on the basis of merit ranking after adding the marks obtained in Common Written Examination (CWE) conducted by IBPS in September 2011 (including supplementary exam in November 2011) and interview.
Bank has the right to call only those candidates who have IBPS score in in the stipulated CWE. The total marks for interview will be 100. Candidates will have to obtain 40 marks (35 marks for reserved category) to qualify in the interview.
For more information, please CLICK HERE
Payment Receipt Format

High Court of Madhya Pradesh Recruitment of Assistant

High Court of Madhya Pradesh, Jabalpur invites online applications from interested and eligible candidates for recruitment to the various posts mentioned below.
Name of the Post and Number of Vacancies

• Assistant Grade- 3 in MP High Court: 70 vacancies
• Assistant Grade- 3 in MP State Law Service Authority: 106 vacancies
• Assistant Grade- 3 in MP District Courts: 290 vacancies
• Assistant Grade- 3 (English Knowing) in MP District Courts: 16 vacancies

Important Dates

• Closing date for online application: 23 January 2012
• Prelim Exam date: 19 February 2012

Eligibility Criteria
Age Limit (as on 1 January 2012): Minimum 18 years; maximum 35 years
Pay Scale
Assistant Grade- 3: Rs 5200- 20200 + Grade Pay Rs 1900 (for all posts)
Application Fee:  Application fee for General and other category is Rs 200, fee for OBC/ SC/ ST/ PH candidate (domicile of Madhya Pradesh) is Rs 100. Each candidate will be charged Rs 50 (extra) as portal fee.
Note: All those candidates belonging to states other than Madhya Pradesh shall be considered as GENERAL CATEGORY candidates.
Selection Procedure: The recruitment will be made based on the marks secured in the Prelims, followed by interview of successful candidates.
How to Apply: Candidates are required to apply Online through the link http://www.mponline.gov.in/ or http://www.mphighcourt.nic.in/
For more information, please CLICK HERE

IBPS Recruitment of Specialist Officers 2012

The system of Common Written Examination has been approved by each of the 19 participating Public Sector Banks and the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) with the consent of Government of India. The written examination for recruitment of Specialist Officers will be conducted by Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) tentatively on 11 March 2012.
The Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has been authorised by Indian Banks' Association and has received mandates to conduct these exams.

Name of the Post and Post Code

• Information Technology Officer (Scale-I)
• Agriculture Field Officer (Scale-I)
• Rajbhasha (Hindi) Officer (Scale-I)
• Law Officer (Scale-I)
• Technical Officer (Scale-I)
• HR/ Personnel Officer (Scale-I)
• Marketing Officer (Scale-I)
• Information Technology Officer (Scale-II)
• Law Officer (Scale-II)

Important Dates

• Opening date for Online Registration: 30 December 2011
• Last date for Online Registration: 21 January 2012
• Payment of Application Fees: 29 December 2011 to 20 January 2012 (both days inclusive)
• Date of Written Examination: 11 March 2012

Eligibility Criteria

Prospective Candidates should ensure that they fulfil the specified eligibility criteria before applying to various Public Sector Banks for the Common Written Examination (CWE). However merely applying for CWE/ appearing for the examination does not imply that a candidate will necessarily be eligible for employment in all or any of the 19 Public Sector Banks as each Bank will stipulate its own eligibility/ qualifying criteria.

How to Apply

Candidates can apply online only from 30 December 2011 to 21 January 2012 and no other mode of application will be accepted.
Before applying online, candidates should have the following documents.

• 1. Candidates can apply online on IBPS's website http://www.ibps.in/ from 29 December 2011.
• 2. Candidates are required to upload their photograph and signature as per the specifications given in the Guidelines for Scanning and Upload of Photograph and Signature.
• 3. Candidates should note their Registration Number and Password for future reference.
• 4. After applying on-line, the candidate should immediately take a printout of the system generated on-line application form, ensure the particulars filled in are accurate, and retain it for future reference. They should not send this print out to the IBPS.
• 5. No acknowledgment will be given for online registration. However a Registration Number and Password will be generated and an email/ sms intimation will be sent to the candidate's email ID/ Mobile Number specified in the online application form.
• 6. Request for change/correction in any particulars in the Application Form shall not be entertained under any circumstances AFTER THE LAST DATE FOR Editing/ Updating application details specified.

For more details please visit http://www.ibps.in/

CTET STUDY MATERIAL

1. Most important work of teacher is?

 

(A) to organize teaching work
(B) to deliver lecture in class
(C) to take care of children
(D) to evaluate the students

2. A teacher should be.

 

(A) Honest
(B) Dilligent
(C) Dutiful
(D) Punctual

3. Environmental education should be taught in schools because.

(A) it will affect environmental pollution
(B) it is important part of life
(C) it will provide job to teachers
(D) we cannot escape from environment

4. Navodaya Schools have been established to.

(A) increase number of school in rural areas
(B) provide good education in rural areas
(C) complete ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’
(D) check wastage of education in rural areas

5. At primary level, it is better to teach in mother language because.

 

(A) it develops self-confidence in children
(B) it makes learning easy
(C) it is helpful in intellectual development
(D) it helps children in learning in natural atmosphere

6. Women are better teacher at primary level because.

(A) they behave more patiently with children
(B) they are ready to work with low salary
(C) higher qualification is not needed in this profession
(D) they have less chances in other profession

7. You have been selected in all the four professions given below. Where would you like to go ?

(A) Teacher
(B) Police
(C) Army
(D) Bank

8. What is most important while writing on blackboard ?

(A) Good writing
(B) Clarity in writing
(C) Writing in big letters
(D) Writing in small letters

9. Some students send a greeting card to you on teacher’s day. What will you do ? You will.

(A) do nothing
(B) say thanks to them
(C) ask them to not to waste money
(D) reciprocate the good wishes to them

Child Development and Pedagogy Question Paper Answers Teacher Eligibility Test 2011-2012

10. A student comes late in your class. Then you will.

(A) inform to parents
(B) punish him
(C) try to know the reason
(D) not pay attention there

11. When the students become failed, it can be understood that.

(A) The system has failed
(B) The teachers failure
(C) The text-books failure
(D) The individual student’s failure

12. It is advantage of giving home work that students.

(A) remain busy at home
(B) study at home
(C) may be checked for their progress
(D) may develop habit of self study

15. A teacher has serious defect is he/she.

(A) is physically handicapped
(B) belongs to low socio-economic status
(C) has weak personality
(D) has immature mental development

16. The success of teacher is.

(A) high achievement of students
(B) good traits of his/her personality
(C) his/her good teaching
(D) his/her good character

17. A Deepawali fair is being organized in your school. What would you like to do ?

(A) only to visit the fair
(B) to take part in function
(C) to take a shop to sell something
(D) to distribute free water to visitors

18. The most important trait of a student is.

(A) sense of responsibility
(B) to speak truth
(C) co-operation
(D) obedience

19. The purpose of basic education scheme is.

(A) universalization of primary education
(B) to vocationalise the eduction
(C) to fulfil basic need of persons through education
(D) to make education compulsory for all

20. You are teaching a topic in class and a student ask a question unrelated to the topic. What will you do ?

 

(A) you will allow him to ask unrelated question
(B) you will not allow him to ask unrealated question
(C) you will consider it indiscipline and punish him
(D) you will answer the question after the class

21. If you are unable to get a job of teacher, then you will.

(A) start giving tuition at home
(B) remain at home till you get a job
(C) take some another job
(D) continue applying for teaching

22. A teacher can motivate the students by.

(A) giving suitable prizes
(B) giving proper guidance
(C) giving examples
(D) delivering speech in class

23. If a student does not pay any respect to you, then you will.

(A) ignore him
(B) award less marks in examination
(C) talk to his/her parents
(D) rebuke him

25. The aim of National Council for teacher education is.

(A) to open college of education
(B) to promote research in education
(C) to maintain standards in colleges of education
(D) to provide grant to colleges of education

26. Kindergarten system of education was contributed by.

(A) T. P. Nunn
(B) Spencer
(C) Froebel
(D) Montessori

27. ‘National Council of Educational Research and Training’ was established in.

(A) 1961
(B) 1962
(C) 1963
(D) 1964

28. Essay type test are not reliable because.

(A) their answers are different
(B) their results are different
(C) their checking is affected by examiner’s mood
(D) their responding styles are different

29. A guardian never comes to see you in school.You will?

(A) ignore the child
(B) write to the guardian
(C) go to meet him youself
(D) start punishing the child

30. To maintain interest among students in class, a teacher should?

(A) use blackboard
(B) discuss
(C) tell stories
(D) ask question

31. The purpose of new education policy is?

(A) to provide equal opportunity of education to all
(B) to improve the whole education system
(C) to link the education with employment
(D) to delink the degree with education

32. To raise the standard of education, it is necessary?

(A) to evaluate students continuously
(B) to give high salary to teachers
(C) to revise curriculum
(D) to make good school building

33. What is most important for a teacher ?

(A) to maintain discipline in class
(B) to be punctual in class
(C) to remove difficulties of students
(D) to be good orator

34. Why students should play games in school ?

(A) It makes them physically strong
(B) It makes work easier for teachers
(C) It helps in passing time
(D) It develops co-operation and physical balance

35. Family is a means of ?

(A) Informal education
(B) Formal education
(C) Non-formal education
(D) Distance education

36. There is tension among villagers and you are teacher there. What will you do ?

(A) You will inform “Gram Pradhan”
(B) You will try to pacify them
(C) You will report to police
(D) You will keep distance from them

37. A teacher can develop social values among students by ?

(A) telling them about great people
(B) developing sense of discipline
(C) behaving ideally
(D) telling them good stories

38. What will you do in leisure time in school ? You will.

(A) take rest in teacher’s room
(B) read magazines in library
(C) talk to clerks in office
(D) check home work of students

39. A teacher asks the questions in the class to ?

(A) keep students busy
(B) maintain discipline
(C) attract student’s attention
(D) teach

40. You like teaching profession because ?

(A) it has less responsibility
(B) you are interested in it
(C) it is easy
(D) it provide you more holidays

41. How the students should be motivated to get success in life ?

(A) Selected study
(B) Incidental study
(C) Intensive study
(D) Learning by recitation

42. In context of the habit of Absenteeism of student ?

(A) The principal and parents should get worried
(B) The officials of the schools should take action against them as per school’s discipline
(C) The teachers should take it as a serious problem
(D) They should be given less priority in the class room in relation to regular students

43. To whom the responsibility of organisation of curricular activities should be stored with ?

(A) The principal
(B) The teacher who is appointed for this work
(C) The teachers who take interest in it
(D) All the teachers

44. When the students try to solve the questions in some different way as taught by the teacher from prescribed books, then these students should be?

(A) Discouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(B) Encouraged to consult some other books on the subject
(C) Suggested to talk with their teacher after the period
(D) Suggested to follow the class room notes in order to get good mark in the examination

45. The experienced teachers do not require the detailed lesson plan of a topic because ?

(A) They can teach in a good manner without its help
(B) The number of curious students is very poor in the class
(C) When they commit some mistake, they do not face any challange from their students
(D) They can equip themselves with brief outline as they gain specialisation in it through experience

46. The problem of drop-out in which students leave their schooling in early years can be tackled in a
better way through?

(A) Reduction of the weight of curriculum
(B) Sympathy of teachers
(C) Attractive environment of the school
(D) Encouragement of the students

47. The ideal teacher?

(A) Teaches the whole curriculum
(B) Helps his students in learning
(C) Is a friend, philosopher and guide
(D) Maintains good discipline

48. The aim of education should be?

(A) To develop vocational skills in the students
(B) To develop social awareness in the students
(C) To prepare the students for examination
(D) To prepare the students for practical life

49. The best method of checking student’s homework is?

(A) To assign it to intelligent students of the class
(B) To check the answers in the class in group manner
(C) To check them with the help of specimen answer
(D) To check by the teacher himself in a regular way

50. A time bound testing programme for a students should be implemented in Shools so that?

(A) The progress of the students should be informed to their parents
(B) A regular practice can be carried out
(C) The students can be trained for final examinations
(D) The remedial programme can be adopted on the basis of the feedback from the results

51. The essential element of the syllabus for the children remained out of school should be?

(A) Literacy competencies
(B) Life-skills
(C) Numerical competencies
(D) Vocational competencies

53. The priority to girls education should be given because?

(A) The girls are more intelligent in comparison than the boys
(B) The girls are lesser in number than boys
(C) The girls were badly discriminated in favour of boys in the past
(D) Only girls are capable of leading for social change

54. The success of integrated education depends on?

(A) The support of community
(B) The excellence of text-books
(C) The highest quality of teaching-learning material
(D) The attitudinal changes in teachers

55. The quality of schools education is exclusively depending upon?

(A) Infrastructural facilities
(B) Financial provisions
(C) International support
(D) The quality of teacher education

56. The idea of Basic Education is propounded by?

(A) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Rabindranath Tagore

57. The most important indicator of quality of education in a school is?

(A) Infrastructural facilities of a school
(B) Classroom system
(C) Text-books and Teaching-learning material
(D) Student Achievement level

58. The best remedy of the student’s problems related with learning is?

(A) Suggestion for hard work
(B) Supervised study in Library
(C) Suggestion for private tuition
(D) Diagnostic teaching

59. The in-service teacher’ training can be made more effective by?
(A) Using training package which in wellprepared in advance
(B) Making it a residential programme
(C) Using co-operative approach
(D) Practising training followup procedures

60. Child Labour Prohibition Act (1986)?

(A) Prohibits all types of child labour upto 14 years of age of child
(B) Prohibits child labour in risk-taking works only
(C) Prohibits child labour during school hours only
(D) Prohibits child labour by imposing the responsibility of children’s education on the employers

Answers:
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (D) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (A) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (C) 30. (D)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (D)
51. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (A)

CTET ENGLISH STUDY MATERIAL

ACTIVE VOICE & PASSIVE VOICE

1. They give me a book.
a) A book was given to me by them
b) A book is given to me by them
c) A book is being given by them to me
d) A book has been given by them to me

2. I tell him a story
a) A story was told by me to him
b) A story is told to him by me
c) A story has been told to him by me
d) A story is being told by him to me

3. She is asking questions.
a) Questions had been asked by her
b) Questions were being asked by her
c) Questions are being asked by her
d) Questions are being to be asked by her

4. Who was stopping you?
a) By whom you were stopped?
b) By whom were you being stopped?
c) By whom are you being stopped?
d) By whom you are being stopped?

5. Who will bring a piece of chalk?
a) By whom would a piece of chalk be brought?
b) By whom a piece of chalk will be brought?
c) By whom could a piece of chalk be brought?
d) By whom will a piece of chalk be brought?

6. Who has taken my book?
a) By whom has my book been taken?
b) By whom been has taken my book?
c) By whom was my book been taken?
d) By whom had my book been taken?

7. They will send us to town
a) We shall be sent to town by them
b) They will be sent to town by us
c) We will be sending by them to town
d) We will be sent to town by them

8. We were taking him to our house
a) He was being taken by us to our house
b) He is being taken by us to our house
c) He has been taken by us to our house
d) He is been taken by us to our house

9. She has told them to come the next day
a) They has been told to come the next day by her
b) They have being told to come the next day by her
c) They have told to come the next day by her
d) They have been told to come the next day by her

10. He had asked her already
a) She was asked by him already
b) She had been asked by him already
c) She has been asked him already
d) She was being asked by him already

11. Who can tell me the answer?
a) By whom could the answer be told?
b) By whom the answer could be tell?
c) By whom can the answer be told?
d) By whom is the answer be told?

12. What can you do for me?
a) What could done by you for me
b) What could be done for me by you
c) What can be done by you for me
d) What could be done by you for me

13. What are you doing now?
a) What is being done by you now?
b) What was being done by you now?
c) What were being done by you now?
d) What will be done by you now?

14. A century has been secured very easily by him
a) How easily he has secured the century!
b) How easily he had secured the century!
c) How easily he secure the century
d) How easily he has been secured the century!

15. The sum was explained by the teacher very easily
a) How easily the teacher explained the sum!
b) How easily the teacher is explained the sum!
c) How easily the teacher explains the sum!
d) How easily the teacher will explain the sum!

16. They were being kept by him in the room
a) He has been kept in the room
b) He was keeping them in the room
c) He is keeping them in the room
d) He has been keeping them in the room

17. Let the letter be typed immediately
a) Type the letter immediately
b) Typed this letter immediately
c) Typed that letter immediately
d) Types that letter immediately

18. You are requested not to make a noise
a) Please don't make a noise
b) Please make not a noise
c) Please do made a noise
d) Please do make less noise

19. You are requested to help him this time
a) Kindly help him this time
b) Kindly helped him this time
c) Kindly helps him this time
d) Kindly do helps him this time

20. He will be taken to the office by me
a) I will take him to the office
b) I would take him to the office
c) I take him to the office
d) I took him to the office

21. The boy was complimented by the teacher
a) The teacher compliments the boy
b) The teacher compliment the boy
c) The teacher will compliment the boy
d) The teacher complimented the boy

22. Let something be done to him
a) Did something to him
b) Done something to him
c) Do something to him
d) Does something to him

23. She was taken to the hospital by them
a) They take her to the hospital
b) They took her to the hospital
c) They will take her to the hospital
d) They will be taking her to the hospital

24. A letter was written by my friend
a) My friend writes a letter
b) My friend wrote a letter
c) My friend is writing a letter
d) My friend will write a letter

25. The tiger was seen in the bushes by the hunter
a) The hunter see the tiger in the bushes
b) The hunter will see the tiger in the bushes
c) The hunter is seeing the tiger in the bushes
d) The hunter saw the tiger in the bushes

26. Clean the table.
a) The table is cleaned.
b) Let the table be cleaned.
c) You are requested to clean the table.
d) Let the table not be cleaned.

27. They have sung a song
a) A song have been sung by them.
b) A song has been sung by them.
c) They have been sung a song.
d) None of these

28. She is painting a cycle.
a) A cycle is painted by her.
b) She is being painted a cycle.
c) A cycle is being painted by her.
d) A cycle is being painting by her.

29. Who drew the picture?
a) By whom the picture was draw?
b) By whom was the picture drawn?
c) By whom are you being stopped?
d) By whom you are being stopped?

30. I saw him opening the box
a) The box was seen opening him.
b) The box was being opened while seeing.
c) The box was opening while seeing.
d) He was seen opening the box.

31. Manoj teaches us grammar.
a) We are taught grammar by Manoj.
b) Grammar was taught us by Manoj.
c) Grammar was teached us by Manoj.
d) Grammar was being taught us by Manoj.

32. Rani and Seetha will send us to town
a) We shall be sent to town by Rani and Seetha
b) Rani and Seetha will be sent to town by us
c) We will be sending by Rani and Seetha to town
d) We will be sent to town by Rani and Seetha

33. Please get me a glass of water.
a) You are requested to get me a glass of water.
b) Let me get a glass of water.
c) You are requested get me a glass of water.
d) Requested to get me a glass of water.

34. Please don't make a noise.
a) Noise was not be made by us.
b) Let a noise not be made.
c) Let a noise be made.

d) You are requested not to make a noise.
35. He found a good friend for him.
a) A good friend is found for him.
b) A good friend was found for him.
c) A good friend would be found for him.
d) A good friend will be found for him.

36. Who tells me the answer?
a) By whom could the answer be told?
b) By whom the answer is told?
c) By whom is the answer told?
d) By whom was the answer told?

37. What can I do for you?
a) What could done by me for you?
b) What could be done for you by me?
c) What can be done by me for you?
d) What could be done by me for you?

38. What were you doing now?
a) What was being done by you now?
b) What is being done by you now?
c) What will be being done by you now?
d) What will be done by you now?

39. No one told me about it.
a) I was not told about it.
b) I am not told about it.
c) It was not told about .
d) I will not be told about it.

40. Someone has picked my pocket.
a) My pocket has been picked.
b) My pockets have been picked.
c) My pocket has been pick up.
d) My pocket had been picked.

41. Don't do the work.
a) You are requested not to do the work.
b) Let the work not be done.
c) The work is not be done.
d) No one is done the work.

42. The storm was seen approaching.
a) They saw the storm was approaching.
b) They saw the storm approaching.
c) They have seen the storm approaching.
d) They have seen the storm was approaching.

43. He reads the News paper.
a) The News paper is read by him.
b) The News paper was read by him.
c) The News paper is readed by him.
d) The News paper is being read by him.

44. You are requested to get tickets.
a) Kindly get tickets.
b) Kindly got tickets.
c) Kindly tickets have been got.
d) Tickets are got by you, kindly.

45. She is completing the homework.
a) The homework is being completed by her.
b) The homework is completed by her.
c) The homework was being completed by her.
d) The homework is been being completed by her.

46. They are being asked many questions by the police
a) The police are asking them many questions
b) The police asked them many questions
c) The police is asking them many questions
d) The police will be asking them many questions

Answers
1) B 2) B 3) C 4) B 5) D
6) A 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) B
11) C 12) C 13) A 14) A 15) A
16) B 17) A 18) A 19) A 20) A
21) D 22) C 23) B 24) B 25) D
26) B 27) B 28) C 29) B 30) D
31) A 32) A 33) A 34) D 35) B
36) C 37) C 38) A 39) A 40) A
41) B 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) A

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2011

General Knowledge

(Held on 13-3-2011)

1. First share market in India was established in which of the following cities ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Chennai
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad
(E) Kolkata
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following is not decided by the Finance Minister while presenting Union Budget every year ?
(A) Rate of Income Tax
(B) Expenditure on Defence Services
(C) Relief packages to various sections of the society
(D) Repo and Reverse Repo
(E) Revenue Expected from various sources
Ans : (D)

3. Which country is at the top in production of silk in the world ?
(A) India
(B) Brazil
(C) Japan
(D) South Korea
(E) China
Ans : (E)

4. Who amongst the following is the President of France at present ?
(A) Hu Jintao
(B) Elena Vesnina
(C) Jakaya Kikwete
(D) Dilma Rousseff
(E) Nicolas Sarkozy
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is grown as oil seed ?
(A) Mustard
(B) Garlic
(C) Safed Musli
(D) Urad
(E) Clove
Ans : (A)


6. Which of the following is not an agricultural commodity ?
(A) Mango
(B) Clove
(C) Alum
(D) Onion
(E) Potato
Ans : (C)

7. Which organization is being given the status of Micro Finance Regulating Authority as per the bill introduced in the parliament ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) IDBI
(C) NABARD
(D) RBI
(E) SBI
Ans : (D)

8. GNP stands for—
(A) Group Net Product
(B) Gross National Product
(C) Grand Nuclear Process
(D) Group Networking Process
(E) Grand National Product
Ans : (B)

9. Some rural people still prefer to go to which of the following non institutional source for their credit needs ?
(A) Micro Finance Institutions
(B) Commercial Banks
(C) Urban Cooperative Banks
(D) Money Lenders
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. Nano car is launched by which of the following industrial groups ?
(A) Bajaj Group
(B) Maruti Suzuki Group
(C) Mahindra & Mahindra Group
(D) Reliance Group
(E) Tata Group
Ans : (E)

11. Term 'Balance of Payment' is used in relation to which of the following ?
(A) Diplomatic Relations
(B) Exports and Imports
(C) Annual production in a factory
(D) Deficit in Union Budget
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. Which of the following rates/ratios is not covered under the RBI Monetory and credit policy ?
(A) Bank rate
(B) Exchange rate of foreign currencies
(C) Repo Rate
(D) Reverse repo rate
(E) Cash reserve ratio
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following has given, Aadhaar' as its new brand name ?
(A) UIDAI
(B) Sports Ministry, GOI
(C) Ministry of Tourism, GOI
(D) NHAI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

14. Contribution to Prime Minister's Relief Fund enjoys Income Tax benefit Under various sections of the act upto the limit of—
(A) 50%
(B) 75%
(C) 100%
(D) 30%
(E) No exemption is available
Ans : (C)

15. Which of the following is not a food crop ?
(A) Paddy
(B) Wheat
(C) Bajra
(D) Jowar
(E) Jatropha
Ans : (E)

16. Which of the following is not an employment generating programme of Govt. of India ?
(A) NREGA
(B) PMGSY
(C) SGSRY
(D) TRYSEM
(E) OPAP
Ans : (E)

17. When the loan is granted by a bank for purchase of white goods it is called—
(A) Consumption loan
(B) White goods loan
(C) Consumer durable loan
(D) All the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

18. The term 'Power of Attorney' refers to……………
(A) Power entrusted to a person of authority
(B) A mandate to withdraw money from someone's Bank account
(C) An instrument by which a person is empowered to act for another person
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Which of the following gamest sports was not included in Commonwealth Games 2010 ?
(A) Table Tennis
(B) Hockey
(C) Weight lifting
(D) Golf
(E) Boxing
Ans : (D)

20. Which of the following is/are true about the 'Gram Nyayalayas' ?
1. These courts will be mobile courts and will function at Panchayat level.
2. The Magistrate of these courts will go to the villages in their area of coverage and will dispose off cases of the villages there itself.
3. Only civil suits related to the property of Rs. 5,00,000 and above will be disposed off in this way.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

21. The Reverse Mortgage Scheme was launched by some organizations a few years back. This was done to help which of the following sections of society ?
(A) Beneficiaries of the NREGA
(B) People living Below Poverty Line
(C) Youngsters
(D) Senior Citizens
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following metals is used for generation of nuclear Energy by most of the Nuclear Power Plants ?
(A) Zinc
(B) Platinum
(C) Uranium
(D) Nickel
(E) Barium
Ans : (C)

23. Which of the following is/are considered a Renewable Source of Energy ?
1. Wind Energy
2. Solar Energy
3. Nuclear Energy
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

24. Which of the following is/are true about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?
(A) The Act is now know as Indira Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) The Act is now applicable to all the districts of the country
(C) Minimum wage fixed under this Act is now Rs. 250 per day
(D) Employment is given now for 200 days in a year
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. Which of the following is the full form of the abbreviation IFRS as used in corporate/financial sector ?
(A) Indian Financial Reconciliation Standards
(B) Interpretation and Formal Reporting System
(C) International Financial Reporting Standards
(D) International Financial Reporting System
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

26. 'Heavy Water' is used in which of the following fields ?
(A) Thermal Power
(B) Cement industry
(C) Iron and Steel Industry
(D) Nuclear Power
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

27. At present who is the Governor of Reserve Bank of India?
(A) Dr. Y. V. Reddy
(B) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(C) Shri C. Chidambaram
(D) Dr. Subir Gokarn
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

28. One of the major emphasis of Basel II is that banks should have—
(A) Adequate Capital adequacy ratio
(B) Only few branches in Metro centres
(C) More and more branches in Rural areas should be opened
(D) Core banking mode of operations
(E) All the above
Ans : (A)

29. Amendments in which of the following bills presented in the Parliament will bring some changes in existing tax regime ?
(A) Direct Taxes Code (DTC) Bill
(B) Foreign Exchange Management Regulatory Bill
(C) Companies Act Bill
(D) Salaries and Perks for MPs Bill
(E) Finance Bill 2010-11
Ans : (A)

30. As per the reports in various newspapers many private companies are trying to obtain the licences to launch a banking company in India. Which of the following organizations/agencies issue the licence for the same ?
(A) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(B) Indian Institute of Banking and Finance (IIBF)
(C) Indian Bank Association
(D) Registrar of Companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

31. When is Income tax required to be deducted by the banks at source on interest accrued and paid by them on the fixed deposits? When the……………
(A) amount of interest accrued/payable is more than Rs. 5000 p. a.
(B) amount of interest accrued/payable is more than Rs. 10000 p. a.
(C) Interest is more than Rs. 20,000 p. a.
(D) customer is not valuable to the bank
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


32. Which of the following methods is being adopted by Banks for calculating and applying interest on Savings Bank accounts ?
(A) On monthly products based on minimum balance between 10th and last working day
(B) Daily balance is counted and interest is paid accordingly
(C) On average Quarterly balance
(D) On average half yearly balance
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)

33. Which one of the following is the objective of the flagship scheme 'Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana' (RSBY) ?
(A) To provide life insurance cover to rural households
(B) To provide health insurance cover to rural households
(C) To provide both life and health insurance cover to rural households
(D) To provide life and health insurance covers only to people living below poverty line
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Structure of Basel II is based on how many pillars ?
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) Three
(D) Eight
(E) Six
Ans : (C)

35. 'Pulitzer Prize' is given in the field of…………….
(A) Literature
(B) Social service
(C) Films
(D) Science
(E) Sports
Ans : (A)

36. Which of the following terms/trophies is related with the game of cricket ?
(A) Love
(B) Trump
(C) Grand slam
(D) Tee
(E) Ashes
Ans : (E)

37. Who amongst the following is the President of Pakistan ?
(A) Yusuf Raza Gillani
(B) Nawaz Sharif
(C) Shah Mehmood Qureshi
(D) Asif Ali Zardari
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

38. Prof. Muhammad Yunus, the recipient of the Nobel Peace Prize 2006, is the exponent of which of the following concepts in the field of banking ?
(A) Core Banking
(B) Micro Credit
(C) Retail Banking
(D) Real Time Gross Settlement
(E) Internet Banking
Ans : (B)

39. Which of the following phenomenon is considered responsible for 'Global Warming' ?
(A) Greenhouse Gas Effect
(B) Fox Fire
(C) Dry Farming
(D) Radioactivity
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

40. OPEC is a group of countries which are—
(A) Exporting oil
(B) Producing cotton
(C) Rich and developed
(D) Developing and poor
(E) Nuclear powers
Ans : (A)

41. TRAI regulates the functioning of which of the following ?
(A) Insurance
(B) Banking
(C) Stock Market
(D) Transport
(E) Telecom
Ans : (E)

42. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ?
(A) A Bend in the River
(B) A China Passage
(C) A Suitable Boy
(D) Five Point Someone
(E) A House for Mr. Biswas
Ans : (D)

43. VAT stands for-
(A) Value And Tax
(B) Value Added Tax
(C) Virtual Action Tasks
(D) Virtual Assessment Technique
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

44. 'Handshaking' in Networking parlance means—
(A) Connecting computers to a hub
(B) Distributed Networks
(C) Having same operating system on different computers
(D) Sending e-mail
(E) Receiving e-mails
Ans : (A)

45. 'Richter Scale' is used to measure which of the following ?
(A) Intensity of Tsunami Waves
(B) Intensity of Earthquake
(C) Density of salt in Sea water
(D) Flow of electric current
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46. Wimbledon Trophy is associated with—
(A) Football
(B) Cricket
(C) Hockey
(D) Basketball
(E) Lawn Tennis
Ans : (E)

47. Which of the following books is written by Arun Shourie ?
(A) A Bend in the River
(B) A Brush with Life
(C) A Secular Agenda
(D) A suitable Boy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

48. Which of the following aptly defines the term Financial–literacy ?
1. How to use credit responsibly
2. How to manage money
3. How to minimize financial risks
4. How to derive long term benefits from savings
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Both 3 and 4
(D) All 1, 2, 3 and 4
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

49. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of cinema ?
(A) Dada Saheb Phalke
(B) Arjuna
(C) Booker Prize
(D) Kalidas Samman
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

50. What is the maximum number of free transactions that can be undertaken by a customer by using ATM of other bank in a month ?
(A) 2 per month
(B) 5 per month
(C) 10 per month
(D) 15 per month
(E) No such restriction
Ans : (B)

Container Corporation of India Ltd. Recruitment

Container Corporation of India Ltd. (CONCOR)
(A Govt. of India Undertaking)

A Blue-Chip Mini-Ratna Company Container Corporation Of India popularly known as 'CONCOR' requires the following  professionals :

1. Sr. Assistant (Technical) : 36 posts in various regions, Pay Scale : Rs. 9120-3%-20500, Age : 28 years.
2. Assistant Supervisor (Civil) : 05 posts in various regions, Pay Scale : Rs. 11800-3%-28600, Age : 32 years.
3. Stenographer Grade-I : 13 posts in various regions, Pay Scale : Rs. 9120-3%-20500, Age : 28 years.

Application Fee : The candidates (except those belong to SC/ST, PH and Ex-servicemen category) are required to pay application of fee of Rs. 150/- for 1st and third posts and Rs.250/- for second posts in the form of Demand Draft in favour of “Container Corporation of India Ltd.” payable at New Delhi.

How to Apply: Application in the prescribed format should be sent to the following address on or before 09/01/2011 : 

Group General Manager (HR), Container Corporation of India Ltd., C-3, Mathura Road, Opp. Apollo Hospital, New Delhi-110076


Please view http://www.concorindia.com/upload/rectU/photo/img/pic109rect-add.pdf for details and application format.

TET ENGLISH PAPER-I &II

Each question has a set of four words. One of them is spelt wrongly. Pick it out.

1. 1) accommodate 2) administrator
3) advantageous 4) ambetious

2. 1) ammunition 2) appitite
3) apprentice 4) approximate

3. 1) appropriate 2) architecture
3) banquet 4) bankraptcy

4. 1) condem 2) confidant
3) confident 4) convenient

5. 1) condescension 2) column
3) correspondance
4) colloquial

6. 1) curriculum 2) councel
3) council 4) counterfeit

7. 1) dependent 2) dialogue
3) dailemma 4) dissatisfied

8. 1) goddess 2) gorgeous
3) grevance 4) harass

9. 1) hereditary 2) harricane
3) hygiene 4) independent

10. 1) indefatigable 2) influential
3) ingenuity 4) iregular

11. 1) irrelevant 2) incorregible
3) juggler 4) kitchen

12. 1) knave 2) knel
3) laboratory 4) laurel

13. 1) lavetory 2) liquor
3) lighting 4) lightening

14. 1) magneficence
2) magazine 3) massacre
4) martyr

15. 1) mathematics 2) medival
3) mercenary 4) melancholy

16. 1) missionary 2) mischievous
3) millionaire 4) miscelleneous

17. 1) mosquito 2) obnexious
3) occurred 4) occurrence

18. 1) omitted 2) omission
3) ominous 4) osacillate

19. 1) queue 2) quot
3) quinine 4) recede

20. 1) referee 2) referred
3) reharsal 4) reference

21. 1) reminiscence 2) reconciliation
3) restaurant 4) rhym

22. 1) rhythem 2) righteous
3) routine 4) rogue

23. 1) scissors 2) sculptare
3) schedule 4) seizure

24. 1) separate 2) shepherd
3) simultaneous 4) sovireign

25. 1) villainous 2) vicissitude
3) zoology 4) zeneth

26. 1) accessory 2) acelerate
3) accidentally
4) accommodation

27. 1) acclamation 2) accumulation
3) acquaintaince
4) accompaniment

28. 1) battalion 2) benificent
3) bequeath 4) boundary

29. 1) bureaucracy 2) celing
3) chancellor 4) chocolate

30. 1) cigarete 2) compete
3) complement 4) commitment

31. 1) commemorate 2) committee
3) concive 4) concession

32. 1) elementary 2) equilibrium
3) eroneous 4) exaggeration

33. 1) exhibhitor 2) explanation
3) extravagance 4) forgivable

34. 1) forgetable 2) freight
3) genius 4) genuine

35. 1) geomatry 2) geography
3) glutton 4) governor

36. 1) overhaul 2) overwelm
3) pamphlet 4) perennial

37. 1) perceive 2) permenence
3) pharmaceutical 4) physique

38. 1) phenomenon 2) pigeone
3) pneumonia 4) potato

39. 1) programme 2) pretentious
3) propraitor 4) quarrel

40. 1) splendour 2) stationary
3) stationery 4) sterotype

41. 1) strategem 2) stomach
3) superstitious 4) superintendent

42. 1) supervisor 2) surfit
3) symmetrical 4) technique

43. 1) tenacious 2) temparament
3) transgressor 4) transience

44. 1) transcendent 2) Vaseline
3) vaccination 4) viceous

45. 1) vocabulory 2) weight
3) Wednesday 4) worshipped

46. 1) sensitive 2) superb
3) superstition 4) surcastic

47. 1) visualise 2) vengeance
3) velacity 4) vagabond

48. 1) horizontal 2) hector
3) humedity 4) humour

49. 1) curtasy 2) cucumber
3) curiosity 4) civility

50. 1) discernible 2) druggist
3) eccstasy 4) efficiency

ANSWERS
1) 4 2) 2 3) 4 4) 1 5) 3
6) 2 7) 3 8) 3 9) 2 10) 4
11) 2 12) 2 13) 1 14) 1 15) 2
16) 4 17) 2 18) 4 19) 2 20) 3
21) 4 22) 1 23) 2 24) 4 25) 4
26) 2 27) 3 28) 2 29) 2 30) 1
31) 3 32) 3 33) 1 34) 1 35) 1
36) 2 37) 2 38) 2 39) 3 40) 4
41) 1 42) 2 43) 2 44) 4 45) 1
46) 4 47) 3 48) 3 49) 1 50) 3

TET ENGLISH PAPER-I &II

Questions on Articles
1. ____ man is mortal.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

2. Rajesh is____ Naradha. He is one of the promoters of quarrels in my village.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

3. She got____ first prize in English subject.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

4. India is one of the most populous countries in____ world.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

5. Raghu is____ Kumbakarna. No one can sleep like him in my colony.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

6. There is____ garden in front of our house.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

7. Gold is____ precious metal.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

8. This is ____ unimportant question.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

9. He is____ honourable man.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

10. We must help____ poor.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

11. The cow is____ useful animal.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

12. He is____ heir to the throne.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

13. ____ Ganga is a holy river.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

14. Let us discuss____ matter seriously.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

15. Is____ ocean blue?
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

16. Don't go out without ____ umbrella because it is raining.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

17. This is____ Atlantic ocean.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

18. The tiger is____ cruel animal.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

19. Don't hesitate to tell ____ truth.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

20. His father is____ university professor.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

21. He is____ European.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

22. Hindi is____ easy language.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

23. ____ sun rises in the east.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

24. ____ rich are making merry in their houses
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

25. ____ bird is on the branch.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

26. She is____ honest woman.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

27. Ramu is ______ good boy.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

28. You are____ student.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

29. English is not _____ easy subject.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

30. In our house we have____ cow, a buffalo and an ox.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none
31. ____Earth revolves round the Sun.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

32. I am going to____ market to buy vegetables.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

33. ______ elephant is a wild animal.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

34. Ravi got____ appointment.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

35. It is____ heroic deed.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

36. His father is____ M.P.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

37. He returned in____hour.

1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

38. Sanskrit is _____ sacred language.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none
39. He is____ honourable person.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

40. She went out with_____ umbrella.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

41. ____man standing at the gate is thirsty.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

42. ____unite we stand divide we fall.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none
43. ____Duke of Wellington was a great man.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

44. ____gold is a precious metal.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

45. He studied all____night.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

46. ____paternal aunt in Hyderabad is very nice.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

47. Father's sister is ____paternal aunt.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

48. I have____cough.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

49. The thief hit him on ______ neck.
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

50. He likes ______ chocolates
1) a 2) an 3) the 4) none

ANSWERS
1) 4 2) 1 3) 3 4) 3 5) 3
6) 1 7) 1 8) 2 9) 2 10) 3
11) 1 12) 3 13) 3 14) 3 15) 2
16) 2 17) 3 18) 1 19) 3 20) 1
21) 2 22) 2 23) 3 24) 3 25) 1
26) 2 27) 1 28) 1 29) 2 30) 1
31) 3 32) 4 33) 2 34) 2 35) 1
36) 2 37) 2 38) 1 39) 2 40) 2
41) 3 42) 4 43) 3 44) 4 45) 4
46) 3 47) 4 48) 1 49) 3 50) 4

Federal Bank Recruitment 2012

 Federal Bank, a leading Private Sector Bank invites applications from aspiring, young, talented and dynamic personnel who are looking for a challenging work environment and progressive career, for the following positions.
 
Qualification:- Graduation in any discipline with minimum 60% marks from any recognized University or other institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section 3 of UGC Act 1956.

Probation Period:- Selected candidates will be on probation for a minimum continuous period of one year.
Age limit:- 28-30 Years.
Mode of Selection:- Selection will be based on Group Discussion and Personal Interview.
Eligibility: Graduate
Job Location : Kerala
Last Date:  26 December 2011
Hiring Process:  Interview
How to Apply:- Eligible candidates are advised to apply online between 11.00 AM on 07.12.2011 and 5.00 PM on 26.12.2011 only through the Bank‟s website www.federalbank.co.in after carefully going through the instructions contained in this advertisement. No other means/mode of application will be accepted.
Click here For More Information

KPSC STAFF NURSE GRADE - II EXAM PAPER

                   

( Exam Held On: 21-05-2011)

1. Schizopherenia - like psychosis hallucinations can occur with abuse of:

(a)Cocaine

(b)Amphetamines

(c)Morphine
(d)Cannabis

2. Best laboratory method to diagnose AIDS is:
(a)ELISA
(b)Oxford test

(c)Western blot test

(d)RIA

3. A positive mantoux test is in duration above:

(a)10x10 mm

(b)20x20 mm
(c)15x15 mm
(d)5x5 mm

4. Which of the following lesions refers to Pulmonary tuberculosis?
(a)Simio’s focus
(b)Puhl’s lesion
(c)Ghon’s focus

(d)All are correct

5. Glycogen synthetase is increased by:

(a)Insulin

(b)Epinephrine
(c)GH
(d)Cortisone

6. The commonest 1 gG with maximum individual variation is:
(a)1g G2
(b)1g G4
(c)1g G3

(d)1g G1

7. The incubation period in filariasis is:
(a)1-2 months
(b)1-2 years

(c)5-10 months

(d)1-2 weeks

8. The incidence of infectious cases of Leprosy in India is:
(a)30%
(b)10%

(c)20%

(d)50%

9. All are oncogenic viruses EXCEPT:

(a)Reo virus

(b)Human papilloma virus
(c)Retro virus
(d)EB virus

10. Which toxin of streptococcus cause Chemolysis?

(a)Streptolysins

(b)Hyaluronidase
(c)Streptodarnanse
(d)Streptolysin

11. Good Pasteur’s syndrome is an example of which type of immunological injury?

(a)Type II

(b)Type IV
(c)Type III
(d)Type I

12. Classical pathway activation requires which ion?

(a)Magnesium

(b)Zinc
(c)Calcium
(d)None of these

13. Communist international may be classified as an institution in the class:

(a)Political

(b)Economic
(c)Cultural
(d)Social

14. Smallest DNA virus is:
(a)Adeno virus
(b)Pox virus

(c)Parvo virus

(d)Herpes virus

15. Opacity around colonies of Clostridium per fringes is due to:
(a)Lecithinase
(b)Cytokinin
(c)Demolace

(d)Theta toxin

16. Thymoma is associated with all EXCEPT:

(a)Hyper gamma globulinemia

(b)Thrombocytopenia
(c)Red cellaplasia
(d)Graves disease

17. Bollinger bodies are seen in:
(a)Cow pox
(b)Small pox

(c)Fowl pox

(d)Chicken pox

18. Generation time of tuberculosis bacillus is:
(a)20 minutes
(b)4 weeks

(c)48 hours

(d)20 days

19. Tyndallization is a type of:

(a)Pasteurization

(b)Lophotrichate
(c)Bipolar
(d)Intermittent sterilization

20. The reaginic antibody is:
(a)IgD
(b)IgG

(c)IgE

(d)IgA

21. The denominator for the breech presentation is:
(a)Coccyx
(b)Femur

(c)Sacrum

(d)Lumbar

22. Which of the following is a fibre in diet?
(a)Pectin
(b)Gum
(c)Hemicelluloses

(d)All of those

23. Recommended daily allowance of Vitamin B12 is:
(a)2 mg
(b)10 mg
(c)5 mg

(d)1 mg

24. Prevalence rate of psychoses in general population is:
(a)2%
(b)3%

(c)5%

(d)1%

25. All of the following are subtypes of schizophrenia, EXCEPT:
(a)Catatonic
(b)Hyberphrenia

(c)Hysterical

(d)Paranoid

26. Foetal kidneys starts functioning from:

(a)12 weeks

(b)10 weeks
(c)20 weeks
(d)16 weeks

27. The most commonly used colloidal solution to treat hypovolemic shock is:

(a)5% albumin

(b)6% hetastarch
(c)6% dextran
(d)Blood products

28. Delusions of guilt are more common in:
(a)Schizophrenia
(b)Mania

(c)Depression

(d)Paranoid disorder

29. Fallopian tube is lined by:
(a)Stratified epithelium
(b)Germinal epithelium

(c)Ciliated epithelium

(d)Columnar epithelium

30. Freud’s name of Freud is associated with:

(a)Oedipal complex

(b)Operant conditioning
(c)Scientific classification of psychiatric disorders
(d)Dreams

31. Who is known for promoting Human treatment of mentally ill?
(a)Fred
(b)Moniz

(c)Pinel

(d)Mesmer

32. The drug of choise for cardiac pain relief is:

(a)Morphine

(b)Demerol
(c)Codeine
(d)Dilauded

33. Xenographs used for value replacement have a viability of about:
(a)4 years
(b)12 years

(c)8 years

(d)2 years

34. Recommended daily dose of niacin is:
(a)4.4 mg/1000 k cal
(b)8.8 mg/ 1000 k cal

(c)6.6 mg/1000 k cal

(d)2.2 mg/1000 k cal

35. The negative feedback on parathormone secretion is by:
(a)Serum phosphorus
(b)Vitamin D3

(c)Serum calcium

(d)All of these

36. Incidence of Bulimia in obesity is:
(a)>5%
(b)>12%
(c)>10%

(d)>1%

37. Which was the first phenothiazine to be used in Psychiatry:
(a)Triflupromazine

(b)Promethazine

(c)Trifluopenazine
(d)Chlorpromazine

38. Which of the following best describes the type of emotional arousal which can improve performance at a task?

(a)High levels
(b)Prolonged intense levels
(c)Intense burst

(d)Low levels

39.Interavtion of a persons constitution and personality with his:

(a)Environment

(b)Financial situation
(c)Work situation
(d)Family

40. RBC’s are enlarged in infection with:

(a)P. malaria

(b)P. vivax

(c)P. falciparom
(d)P.ovale

41. The following are characterized by brady cardiac EXCEPT:

(a)Brucellosis

(b)Yellow fever
(c)Leptospirosis
(d)Typhoid

42. Contact dermatitis is:

(a)Type II

(b)Type IV

(c)Type III

(d)Type I hypersensitivity