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ESIC LDC EXAM PAPER

(English)

Q. (1-7) Select the one word which is most similar to the given word

Q.1. Abysmal
(1) sickening
(2) gloomy
(3) sad
(4) bottomless

Q.2. Salient
(1) valiant
(2) variant
(3) prudent
(4) prominent

Q.3. Decamp
(1) move
(2) encamp
(3) flee
(4) hide

Q.4. Philanthropist
(1) benefactor
(2) beneficiary
(3) matron
(4) sponsor

Q.5. Exotic
(1) alien
(2) strange
(3) rare
(4) grand

Q.6. Incapacitate
(1) cripple
(2) strengthen
(3) imprison
(4) invent

Q.7. Congregation
(1) concentration
(2) meeting
(3) discussion
(4) judgment

Directions (8 -17): In the following questions. choose the words opposite in meaning to the given word.

Q.8. Suppress
(1) stir up
(2) rouse
(3) urge
(4) incite

Q.9. Loosen
(1) fasten
(2) accelerate
(3) delay
(4) paste

Q.10. Rebellion
(1) forgiveness
(2) retribution
(3) submission
(4) domination

Q.11. Idiosyncrasy
(1) insanity
(2) sanity
(3) generality
(4) singularity

Q.12. Sanguine
(1) diffident
(2) hopeless
(3) cynical
(4) 'morose

Q.13. Sobriety
(1) moderation
(2) drunkenness
(3) dizziness
(4) stupidity

Q.14. Extinct
(1) recent
(2) distinct
(3) alive
(4) ancient

Q.15. Fiendish
(1) diabolical
(2) devilish
(3) angelic
(4) friendly

Q.16. Subsequent
(1) eventual
(2) succeeding
(3) prior
(4) comparative

Q.17. Orthodox
(1) revolutionaxy
(2) heretical
(3) anarchist
(4) generous

Directions (18-27) : In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group. one word is wrongly spelt. Find the· mis­spelt word.

Q.18. (1) prioratise
(2) picturise
(3) visualise
(4) individualise

Q.19. (1) mendacious
(2) obnoxcious
(3) pernicious
(4) ferocious .

Q.20. (1) pennetrate
(2) irritate
(3) hesitate
(4) perforate

Q.21. (1) passagway
(2) causeway
(3) subway
(4) straightway

Q.22. (1) rapport
(2) support
(3) reppo
(4) purport

Q.23. (1) stationery
(2) 9ictionery
(3) revolutionaxy
(4) voluntary

Q.24. (1) temperature
(2) temperament
(3) tempastuous
(4) temptation

Q.25. (1) whether
(2) weathere
(3) whither
(4) wither

Q.26. (1) legible
(2) communiceble
(3) Incorrigible
(4) eligible

Q.27. (1) audapous
(2) auspicious
(3) caprisious
(4) credulous Directions


(141-150): In the following questions. four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase print­ed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase,

Q.28. Don't worry about the silly row. lt was just a storm in a tea cup .
(1) important matter' dealt with ease
(2) hot tea being served
(3) commotion over a trivial mat­ter


Q.29. The Rajput warriors set their face against the invader.
(1) became enemies
(2) turned away from
(3) faced difficulty
(4) opposed strongly

Q.30. Syria is now currying favor with America.
(1) pleasing
(2) favoring
(3) obliging
(4) ingratiating itself with'

Q.31. Our Principal is not a man to mince matters.
(1) to confuse issues
(2) to say something mildly
(3) to mix everything together
(4) to be very modest

Q.32. We tend to take for granted the conveniences of modern life.
(1) to consider
(2) to admit
(3) to accept readily
(4) to care for

Q.33. The prodigal son was left high and dry by his friends, when he lost all his money.
(1) wounded
(2) alone
(3) depressed
(4) neglected

Q.34. The success of his first novel com­pletely turned his head.
(1) made him vain
(2) made him look back
(3) changed him completely
(4) made him think

Q.35. She turns up her nose at this kind of dress.
(1) despises
(2) loves
(3) sees no harm in
(4) can just tolerate

Q.36. At last the rioters fell back.
(1) fell on the ground
(2) yielded
(3) ran back
(4) turned back


Q.37. The Madagascar Coup attempt ended in a fiasco.
(1) had no effect
(2) was an utter failure
(3) resulted in blood-shed
(4) was a disaster

Q.38-41. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions based on it.

Many organizations are concerned at the sustained increase in food prices, as indicated by recent data releases. Inflation in food articles has remained in double digits for six months in a row and has risen to 20% in the first week of December 2009. It is also apparent that the main driver of inflation is the increase in food prices, as WPI inflation outside the food and food products universe continues to be subdued and in some cases negative. This unprecedented increase in food prices has been caused primarily by supply side factors primarily due to decline in the kharif output. The price increase has been particularly severe in the case of products such as cereals (rice), pulses, vegetables (potatoes) and sugar. “The rise in the price of essential commodities will put pressure on the disposable income of the common people and may restrict the monetary and fiscal space for maneuverability”, said Mr. Chandrajit Banerjee, Director General, CII. CII suggests the some measures to respond to food price inflation. In the Short term, CII strongly feels that the government needs to urgently respond by offloading its stock of grains, which are currently far in excess of the buffer norms. State governments, in particular, need to put in place mechanisms for the widespread distribution of wheat and rice in order to check the shortages.

Q.38. Why state government needs to put its widespread distribution of wheat and rice in place?
1. As the are the main suppliers of main commodities.
2. Lack of communication between state and centre governmenent has led to unprecedented rise in food items.
3. Both 1 and 2 are applicable
4. None of these

Q.39. what has trigerred food items price to never before level?
1. Lack of good rain for two consecutives years
2. Illegal stock piling for food grains
3. Farmers inclination towards other high yield crops
4. None of these

Q.40. What is the true indication of rising food items cost?
a. WPI
b. YoY data
c. Media
d. Cant be determined from the passage

Q.41. The price increase has been particularly severe in the case of products except
1. cereals
2. vegetables
3. sugar
4. dirt products

27000 candidates selected as Clerks in SBI

The final results of SBI clerical recruitment were out last week amidst high expectations. According to reports, around 27000 candidates have been shortlisted through the selection process.

More engineers: As per ToI report, the number of candidates selected for clerk posts in SBI clerks recruitment is 27000, while approximately 88000 were called for personal interview held in the months of April/ May 2010.It is mentioned that 4000 engineering graduates, 8200 women & 2000 ex-servicemen are part of this final list of 27,000

The country`s largest public sector bank – State bank of India (SBI) announced recruitment of clerks during November 2009, for which over 35 lakh applied. Although the initial advertisement was made only for 11,000 posts, it seems SBI had to increase that number considering the delay in announcing the results, as more retirements would have taken place during those months.

Trend to continue? This news is no surprise as BE graduates were looking for a more secure jobs, since IT companies – one of the top recruiters of engg. graduates in India had to go slow on hiring last year.

Competitive Examinations Success Plan

Knowledge of previous years' questions is indispensable for channelising your studies in the right direction. Otherwise, you will simply grope in the dark.

The examiner is given a copy of the preceding years' question papers when he is asked to set the question paper for the current year.

If it is important for the examiner, you can appreciate how far more important it should be to you, the examinee.

Luckily, previous years' question papers, whether in solved or unsolved form, can be readily had.

In this respect, Competition Success Review and General Knowledge Today can certainly help you.

Once you have assessed the general scope and background of the subject as a whole, the next course to be followed is to analyse it in the light of the questions that have been asked in the past.

This will show you the important topics which, perhaps, attract a question every year, alternate year, and so on.

In the end, this will help you to determine the importance of topics in the order of priority and to work out a guess paper with reasonable accuracy, based on logical reasoning.

A comprehensive study of the previous years' question papers will give you an idea of the topics that recur.

It will also indicate the priority you should accord to different constituents of the syllabus.

Concentration on the subject of your study is extremely essential to get the maximum benefit in the minimum time.

Since you have drawn a time table, you have to make full use of your time by developing the ability to concentrate while you study your books or notes.

Concentration is not an ability we are born with. It can be easily acquired by some effort on your part. It springs from the emotional drive generated when you have an intense and burning desire to achieve something.

In short, it is related to the interest you have developed in the activity on which you wish to concentrate. The more the interest, the greater becomes your concentration. It comes as a by-product of interest.

Once you are interested in something, you can concentrate on it easily. You have, therefore, to find ways to develop and increase interest in the subject of study. Interest, in turn, is closely related to knowledge.

The greater the knowledge, the deeper becomes the interest. You can also develop and sustain interest through theprocess of motivation. Remind yourself often as to why you must succeed at the competitive examination in which you are appearing.

Think of the gains, power, position, prestige and status. Think of the bright and prosperous future you will have. Use your imagination and visualise the benefits. Whenever your interest slackens, obtain a fresh dose of enthusiasm and interest by thinking about your ultimate goal and by imagining how topping the list in this competitive examination is essential and how it will help you to attain that goal.

Isolation, calm and quiet environment help to build up concentration. Try and minimise the distracting factors. Concentration is also made easier with your time table.

If you plan your day and your week and if you perform each activity at the right time, you will find concentration coming to you automatically. Your plan, your daily programme and the habit of doing each task at its appointed hour will soon extend the time during which you can concentrate.

When you concentrate,you can understand and remember faster and better.

It is important that you remember what you read in order to write the best answers in the competitive examination. A study that leads to no lasting impression on the mind is all wasted.

Memory is, again, principally a question of interest. You will have no difficulty in remembering things which really interest you. You are emotionally involved with them.

Therefore, by various methods discussed here, you must create the necessary interest and involvement in the subjects of your study.

We learn the general rule that the more we know about anything, the more interesting it becomes. The cure for lack of interest is to keep learning more.

As your study develops, your wish to continue it strengthens. Next to interest, your memory depends on understanding.

It is much easier to remember something clearly understood than something which goes over your head. What you understand is easily remembered.

What you don't understand is an intolerable burden on the mind. Finally, concentration itself leads to absorption and retention.

You are likely to remember anything which you have studied with undivided attention or deep concentration.

Word-by-word memorisation is not the right answer, as the material and facts to be remembered are considerable. You should, therefore, remember the points to be covered under each paragraph.

When you think of answering a question, you must know in advance how many pages you are going to write and how many paragraphs are likely to be there.

The length of your answer is conditioned by the time factor and the marks allotted to the question. For the essay-type answers, you must remember the para headings.

In fact, para headings can be selected by you according to the facts you are going to write about in that paragraph.

Then, by arranging the first or second letters of the para headings, you can coin suitable catchwords which could be readily remembered.

For instance, if the first para is "Introduction", the first letter of the catchword can be T. If the title of the second para is "Nationalisation", 'N' becomes the second letter of the catchword.

By this process, you can coin words like "India", etc. In order to ensure that the significance of the catchwords stays in your memory, you must reduce them to writing. Besides, the writing should be repeated as often as possible so that there is no mix-up among many such catchwords you may have coined.

While preparing for a competitive examination you must rigidly follow a time-table. The earlier you begin, the better it is. Start with your difficult subjects first. You can give a total of three months for the entire study.

For intensive study and preparation of guess paper, allot ten days for each subject. Thus, in two months you would have covered all the six subjects. Next, the intensive revision should start.

Now give three days to each subject, which means a total of 18 days. Then the third revision can be done with two days for each subject. Finally, revise each subject before the examination according to the examination schedule.

LAW OFFICERS EXAM CONSTITUTIONAL LAW/CRIMINAL LAW QUESTIONS

1. Consider the following statements
1. Truth is not a justification for seditious utterances.
2. Truth which does not have some effect of promoting disaffection towards the government is a justification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Case) (Major Subject)
A. Amjad Khan Vs State 1. Public servant and contempt of court
B. T.R.Thananjaya Vs Vasudevan 2. Common Intention to commit an offence
C. Gurdatta Mat Vs State of UP 3. Right of private defense
4. Inflicted injury leading to murder
Codes:
A B C
(a) 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 2
(c) 2 4 1
(d) 3 1 4
Ans. (a)

3. Consider the following statements:
Anything is said to have been done dishonestly if it has been done with intention to
1. cause wrongful loss to any person and wrongful gain to another person.
2. cause injury to any person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)

4. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The general defenses provided in General. Exceptions in the Indian Penal Code (IPC) can be pleaded
(a) for IPC offences only
(b) for IPC offences and offences under local law only
(c) for IPC offences and offences under special law only
(d) for IPC offences and offences under local or special
Ans. (d)
5. Which of the following is/are the essential elements (s) to be proved for prosecuting a public servant for criminal misappropriation?
1. Custody
2. Entrustment
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both l and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)

6. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Whether an article supplied for a minor, amounts to be necessary or not is
(a) a question of law
(b) a question of fact
(e) mixed question of law and
(d) decided solely at the discretion of the guardian
Ans. (b)

7. ‘A’ enters into a bet with ‘B’. ‘A’ promises that he will pay Rs. 50,000/- to ‘B’ if Australia defeats India in one day international being played at Delhi. ‘B’ in turn promises to pay Rs. 50,000/- to ‘A’ if India defeats Australia. India defeats Australia and ‘B’ instead of paying the amount to ‘A’ executes a promissory note in favour of ‘A’, promising that he will pay money On or before a specified date. No witness attests the promissory note. The promissory note is not registered, ‘B’ fails to pay within the stipulated time. On the basis of the above, which one of the following is the correct answer?
(a) The promissory note has no validity in the eye of law because it is not attested
(b) The promissory note has no validity in the eye of law because it is not registered
(c) The promissory note has no validity in the eye of law because it is for debt due on wagering contract
(d) The promissory note has no validity in the eye of law because betting should involve only cash transactions
Ans. (c)

8. Which one of the following statements is correct in regard to a contract for sale of immovable property?
(a) Time is always the essence of the contract
(b) Time is never the essence of the contract
(c) Time would not be regarded as the essence of the contract unless it is shown that the parties intended so
(d) Since it is a sale of immovable property, even parties cannot intend to make time, the essence of the contract
Ans. (c)

9. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Doctrine of frustration comes into play
(a) when both the parties are frustrated
(b) when either of the parties is frustrated
(c) when the object has failed
(d) when there is commercial hardship
Ans. (c)

10. Consider the following statements:
1. Doctrine of frustration is not applicable when the rights and obligations of tjie parties arise under the Transfer of Property Act.
2. If and when there is frustration, the contract automatically comes to an end.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

11. Which one of the following statements is correct?
When a contract is caused by fraud, the contract is
(a) void or initio
(b) voidable from inception
(c) voidable by subsequent events
(d) valid
Ans. (b)

12. Consider the following statements:
Where the tender of performance is rejected by the other party,
1. the promisor has to still perform the contract but can claim damages.
2. the promisor is excused from further performance and is entitled to sue the promisee for breach of contract.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)

13. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Generally, quasi-contractual obligations are based on the theory of
(a) implied term
(b) just and reasonable solution
(c) implied-in-fact contract
(d) unjust enrichment
Ans. (d)
14. Assertion (A): If A does work B without his request or knowledge, he can sue for the value of his work.
Reason (R): Acquiescence can be presumed from silence
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans. (d)

15. Which one of the following statements is correct?
An agreement to which the consent of the promisee is freely given, is not void merely because the
(a) consideration is not there
(b) consideration is not adequate
(c) consideration is past
(d) consideration is not spelt out clearly
Ans. (b)

16. Consider the following statements:
1. Two manifestations of willingness to make the same bargain do not constitute a contract.
2. Contractual obligations arise if services are rendered which, in fact, fulfill the terms of an offer but are performed in ignorance that the offer exists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Case) (Principle)
A. Lalman Shukla Vs Gauri Dutt 1. Privity of contract
B. McPherson Vs Appana 2. General offer
C. Banwarilal Vs Sukhdarshan Dayal 3. Invitation to treat
D. M.C. Chackoo Vs State Bank of Travancore 4. Intention to create legal relationship
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 1
Ans. (b)
18. consider the following statements:
In Bhagvandas Goverdhandas Kedia Vs Girdharilal Parshottamdas and Co, it was laid down that
1. section 4 does not imply that the contract is made qua the proposer at one place and qua the acceptor at another place.
2. the communication of acceptance should be from a person who has the authority to accept. Information received from an unauthorized person is ineffective.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Cd) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)

19. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Promissory estopple is
(a) a variant of deception
(b) not a form of contract
(c) an equitable doctrine
(d) a type of offer
Ans. (c)

20. Consider the following statements:
1. Misrepresentation is also a subtle species of fraud.
2. Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 does not leave the matter to be determined according to the intention of the parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ant (c)

21 A, a public servant is authorized by warrant from court of justice to apprehend Z.B. knowing that fact and also that C is not Z, willfully represents to A that C is Z and thereby cause A to apprehend C. How does B abet?
(a) By way of instigation
(b) By way of conspiracy
(c) By way of aiding
(d) By way of supporting
Ans. (a)

22. Consider the following statements:
To constitute abetment it is
1. necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
2. not necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
23. necessary that the person abetted must have the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.
Which of the statement given above represent(s) the correct position of law?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. (a)

24. P instigates Q to cause the death of R. P gives a gun to Q to shoot at R. Q shoots at R in the presence of P causing R’s death.
Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) Both P and Q are liable for criminal conspiracy
(b) Both P and Q ire jointly liable for the murder of R
(c) Q is liable for murder, P is only an abettor
(d) Only P is liable for criminal conspiracy
Ans. (b)

25 What is the basic difference between an offence of abetment by conspiracy and the offence of criminal conspiracy?
(a) In case of conspiracy, mere agreement is enough whereas in case of abetment by conspiracy an act should have taken place in pursuance of conspiracy
(b) There is no difference at all
(c) In case of conspiracy, an act should also have taken place, but in case of abetment by conspiracy, no act needs to have taken place
(d) In case of abetment by conspiracy, there need not be an agreement whereas in case of criminal conspiracy, agreement is essential
Ans. (a)

26 Consider the following statements:
1. Intention is the essence of sedition.
2. Intention is irrelevant in sedition.
3. Result is the essence of sedition.
4. Intention and result both are important is sedition.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3
(d) 4
Ans. (a)

27. Which of the following cases will amount(s) to culpable homicide?
1. A police constable fired at an unruly mob in obedience to the orders of his higher officer and killed several persons.
2, A person killed one of the offenders at the time of commission of robbery.
3. Death is caused without premeditation in a sudden fight.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)

28. A cuts down a tree on B’s land with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of B’s possession, without B’s consent. A has committed. which offence?
(a) Criminal misappropriation
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Extortion
(d) Theft
Ans. (d)

29. The accused is a warehouse-keeper. The complainant, going on a journey, entrusts his furniture to the accused under a contract that the furniture would be returned on payment of stipulated sum of money. The accused sells the furniture. The accused is guilty of which one of the following?
(a) Criminal misappropriation
(b) Theft
(c) Robbery
(d) Criminal breach of trust
Ans. (d)

30. Consider the following statements:
1. A claim for damages arising out of breach of contract is not debt.
2. A person who enters into a contract with Government does not necessarily thereby undertake any public duty.
.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)

31. Consider the following statements:
The communication of an acceptance is complete
1. as against the acceptor when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer.
2. as against the proposer, when it is put in a course of transmission to him, so as to be out of the power of the acceptor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

32. Consider the following statements:
1. According to Justice Patterson, consideration may be some benefit to the plaintiff or some detriment to the defendant.
2. According to Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, the definition of consideration requires that the act or abstinence should be done by promisee only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)

33. What is the primary object of law of damages for a breach of contract?
(a) To enrich the party who sustained loss
(b) To give some type of compensation
(c) To punish the patty who committed breach of contract
(d) To put the party who sustained loss in the same position as if the contract has been performed
Ans. (d)

34. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
For breach of contract
(a) punitive damages are not recoverable
(b) damages are compensatory, not penal
(c) an inconvenience caused by the breach of contract is not taken into account while assessing damages
(d) motive for and the manner of breach are not taken into account while assessing damages
Ans. (c)

35. Which one of the following does not amount to fraud?
(a) Active concealment of fact
(b) A promise without any intention of performing it
(c) Suggestion as a fact of that which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true
(d) A representation made without knowing it to be false, honestly believing it to be true
Ans. (d)

36. Consider the following statements:
1. When consent to an agreement is caused by undue influence, the agreement is a contract voidable at the opinion of the party whose consent was so caused.
2. Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

37. Consider the following statements:
1. An agreement to agree in the future is void, for there is no certainty whether the parties will be able to agree.
2. Where only a part or a clause of the contract is uncertain, but the rest is capable of bearing a reasonably certain meaning, the contract will be void.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)

38. What is committing or threatening to commit any act forbidden by the J.P.C., or the unlawful detaining or threatening to detain any property to the prejudice of any person with the intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement called?
(a) Undue influence
(b) Fraud
(b) Coercion
(d) intimidation
Ans. (c)

39. Consider the following statements regarding fraud and misrepresentation:
1. Both render the contract voidable.
2. Misrepresentation is a cause of action in tort for damages.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)

40. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In cases of general offers, communication of acceptance is not necessary
(b) Acceptance has to be made in the manner prescribed by the proposer (if not prescribed, then in some usual and reasonable manner)
(c) A communication of acceptance to a person other than the offerer is no communication in the eyes of law
(d) The communication may not be made by acceptor himself
Ans. (d)

41. Which one of the following is an essential component of a valid contract?
(a) Social and economic pressures, the parties are exposed to
(b) Dominance of one party over the other
(c) Legal influence of the parties
(d) Competence and the contractual capacities of the parties
Ans. (d)

42. Which of the following agreement(s) is/are void?
1. Agreement without consideration.
2. Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings.
3. Agreement affected by fraud.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d) l and 2
Ans. (d)

43. What is an agreement to discover a treasure by magic?
(a) Valid contract as it is voluntarily concluded
(b) Void contract as it is impossible of performance
(c) Voidable contract as it amounts to misrepresentation
(d) Unenforceable contract as it is against notions of public policy
Ans. (b)

44. A contracts to pay B Rs. 10,000/- if B’s house is burnt.
What type of contract is this?
(a) Wagering contract
(b) Unlawful contract
(c) Contingent contract
(d) Voidable contract
Ans. (c)

45. A supplies to B- A lunatic with necessaries suitable to his condition in life. Can A recover the value of necessaries from B?
1. A cannot recover as B is not competent to make a contract.
2. A cannot recover as no legal action lies against B.
3. A can recover by making B’s property liable.
Which of the above is/are the valid reason(s)?
(a) l only
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans. (d)

46. Consider the following statements:
1. If an infant obtains property or goods by misrepresenting his age, he can be compelled to restore it even though the infant has sold the goods or converted them.
2. There is no estoppel against minor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)

47. Which one of the following is correct as per Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act 1872?
A contingent contract is a
(a) contract to do something only if some event, collateral to such contract, does not happen
(b) contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract happens
(c) contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract, does not happen
(d) contract not to do something. If some event, collateral to such contract happens
Ans. (c)

48. Consider the following statements:
1. A written and registered agreement based on natural love and affection between near relatives is enforceable without consideration.
2. An agreement to which the consent of the promisor is freely given is not void merely because the consideration is inadequate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

49. Consider the following statements:
1. A shopkeeper’s catalogue of price is not an offer.
2. An auctioneer’s announcement that specified goods will be sold by auction on a certain day is not an offer to hold the auction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

50. Which one of the following is explicitly stated in Section 2(b) of the Indian Contract Act 1872?
(a) A proposal, when accepted becomes a promise
(b) A proposal, when accepted become a contract
(c) A proposal, when accepted becomes an agreement
(d) A proposal, when accepted becomes assurance
Ans. (a)

51. By threat of suicide. A induced his wife and son to execute a contract.
What is it according to the Indian Contract Act?
(a) An unlawful contract
(b) voidable contract
(c) A void contract
(d) It is not a contract at all
Ans. (a)

52. Directions: The given item consists of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Assertion (A): A void contract is not necessarily illegal.
Reason (R): Every illegal contract is void.
Ans (b)

53. Supreme Court of India stuck down Section 303 of I.P.C. as unconstitutional in which one of the following cases
(a) Machhi Singh vs State of Punjab
(b) Bachan Singh vs State of Punjab
(a) Santa Singh vs State of Punjab
(d) Mithu vs State of Punjab
Ans. (d)

LAW OFFICERS EXAM QUESTIONS

1. The concept of possession, according to Savigny must have which of the following ingredient/ingredients?
(a) animus domini only
(b) corpus possessionis only
(c) animus domini and corpus possessionis
(d) quasi possessio
Ans. (c)

2. Persons in possession of an object has better title over it, against the whole world except the real owner. This principle has been illustrated in which one of the following cases?
(a) Armory vs Delamirie
(b) Bridges vs Hawkesworth
(c) R vs Moor
(d) Re Cohen’s case
Ans. (a)

3. Assertion (A): Law are means of achieving an .end, namely social control.
Reason (R): The ultimate end of law is to secure greatest happiness of the greatest number.
Ans. (b)

4. Assertion (A): Custom is per se law, independent of its prior recognition by the Sovereign or the Judge.
Reason (R): Custom is a source of law, but by itself is not law
Ans. (a)

5. Assertion (A): Idol is a person who can hold property.
Reason (R): Only human beings can be called ‘persons’, not the lifeless things.
Ans. (c)
6. According to the decision of B. Emmanuel vs State of Kerala, what is imperative to show the requisite respect to the National Anthem?
(a) To bow
(b) To sing the same
(c) To stand respectfully.
(d) To sing and stand respectfully
Ans. (c)

7. The right to freedom of religion guaranteed in Article 25 of the Constitution of India is subject to which of the following?
(a) Public order, morality and to the other provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India
(b) Public order, morality and health
(c) Reasonable restrictions in the interests of the security of the State
(d) Public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India.
Ans. (d)

8. Consider the following statements:
1. Admission of the tape recorded statements of an accused taken without his/her knowledge and without compulsion is valid.
2. No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

9. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India relates/relate to the protection and improvement of environment?
(a) Article 48A only
(b) Article 5lA only
(c) Both Article 48A and Article 5 1A
(d) Neither Article 48A nor Article 51A
Ans. (c)

10. Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament and State legislatures have concurrent power to make law prescribing punishment for untouchability.
2. Parliament may make law empowering any court to exercise powers of the Supreme Court to enforce the fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)

11. Consider the following statements:
1. The powers of High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India we wider than those of Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution of India.
2. Both High Court and Supreme Court have concurrent power to enforce the fundamental rights.
3. It is mandatory for a petitioner first to approach the High Court instead of approaching the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)

12. Which among the following is not a fundamental duty as enumerated in Article 51 A?
(a) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
(d) To cherish fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual
Ans. (a)

13. Consider the following statements:
1. After the President of India has asked the Council of Ministers to reconsider the advice given by the Council of Ministers, the President may not act in accordance with the advice rendered after such reconsideration.
2. The President of India can grant pardon under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, to any person convicted of any offence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)

14. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The same person can be appointed as Governor of three States.
(b) A Governor can be appointed only in consultation with Chief Minister of the State concerned
(c) A Governor has no power to entrust any of the functions of the State to Government of India even with the latter’s consent
(d) Only a person who has completed 30 years of age can be appointed as Governor of a State.
Ans. (a)

15. Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a High Court to be Attorney-General for India.
2. In the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in India.
3. The Attorney-General shall hold office during the presence of the President and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

16. Consider the following statements with respect to Article 107 of the Constitution of India:
1. A Bill pending in the Parliament shall lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses.
2. A Bill pending in the Council & States which has not been passed by the House of the People not lapse on dissolution of the House of the People.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)

17. Which one of the following is not covered under Article 20 of the Constitution of India?
(a) ex post facto laws
(b) Preventive detention
(c) Double jeopardy
(d) Self-incrimination
Ans. (b)

18. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Parliament may by law, provide for the appointment of a Joint State Public Service Commission to serve the needs of two or more States,
(a) when the President deems it to be necessary
(b) when the Governors of those States request the Centre to appoint such Commission
(c) when a resolution to that effect is passed by the legislatures of those States
(d) when the Parliament deems it to be necessary
Ans (c)

19. Which of the following are not the functions of Union Public Service Commission?
1. Disciplinary matters relating to Union civil servants.
2. Matters referred to under Article 16(4).
3. Manner in which Article 335 may be given effect.
4. Principles to be followed in making appointment of Union civil servants
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) l and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (c)

20. Which of the following statements is correct?
A joint session of the Parliament shall be:
1. convented by the Speaker under Article 108.
2. presided over by the senior most member of the House.
3. convened by the President under Article 108 to break impasse in the pas of a Bill.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

21. Consider the following statements:
On proclamation of emergency under Article 352(1), the Fundamental Rights guaranteed in Article 19 become automatically suspended by virtue of Article 358.
Additionally, the President of India may by order under Article 359(1) suspend:
1. the enforcement of all or any of the Fundamental Right (except Articles 20 and 21) as may be specified in his order.
2. the enforcement of all or any of the Fundamental Right except Article 21.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)

22. In which one of the following cases, did the Supreme Court observe that there is a need to confine the exercise of power under Article 356(1) strictly to the situation mentioned therein which is a condition precedent to the said exercise?
(a) S. R. Bommai vs Union of India
(b) Minerva Mills Ltd. vs Union of India
(c) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(d) State of Rajasthan vs Union of India
Ans. (a)

23. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Emergency shall
(a) be proclaimed by the President on his satisfaction
(b) be proclaimed by the President on the basis of the
recommendation of the Union C
(c) be declared under Article 353
(d) continue for a maximum period of three years
Ans. (b)

24. What does injuria sine damno mean?
(a) Damage without legal injury
(b) Damage without actual injury
(c) Damage in the form of legal injury only
(d) Damage in the form of legal and actual injury
Ans. (c)

25. Which of the following legal propositions are correct?
1. A person can claim damages even if he has suffered no loss.
2. A person can claim damages for such wrongs which are caused intentionally.
3. A person can claim damages f a wrong if it is caused by infringement of his legal right. Which of the statement given above are correct?
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)

26. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Tort is
(a) a civil wrong
(b) violation of legal right conferred by general law
(c) breach of duty imposed by general law
(d) breach of duty imposed by particular law
Ans. (d)

27. Which one of the following statements is correct?
When the act of defendant falls in tort and breach of contract, the defendant may be sued
(a) either in tort or breach of contract
(b) both in tort and breach of contract
(c) in tort only
(d) in breach of contract only
Ans. (b)

28. The guiding principle of foreseeability laid down in Wagon Mound’s case for determination of liability in tort has been followed in India in which one of the following cases?
(a) C. B. Singh vs The Cantonment Board, Agra
(b) Sushma Mitra vs M.P.S.R.T. Corporation
(c) Veeran vs Krishnamurthy
(4) Manindra Nath vs Mathuradas
Ans. (a

29. The Pigeon-hole theory, about the nature of tort, has been propounded by whom among the following?
(a) Salmond
(b) Winfield
(c) Street
(d) Pollock
Ans. (a)

30. A employs B, a surgeon, to attend his infant son C. By reason of B’s negligence C is injured.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) A can use B for tort only
(b) Both A and C can sue B for tort only
(c) A can sue B for tort or for breach of contract
(d) A can sue B neither for tort nor breath of contract
Ans. (b)

31. Consider the following statements:
1. Defamation is the publication of false statement intending to lower down the person in the estimation or right thinking members of the society.
2. Any word will be deemed defamatory which cause the plaintiff to be shunned or avoided by his neighbors
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

32. In Municipal Corporation of Delhi vs Subhagwanti, the Supreme Court applied which one of the following principles?
(a) Last opportunity rule
(b) Contributory negligence
(c) Basic negligence
(d) Res ipsa loquitur
Ans. (d)

33. Consider the following statements about legal propositions:
1. Joint tort-feasors can be sued jointly and severally.
2. They are liable for the whole damage resulting from the tort.
3. Damages may be recovered from all or either of them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Ans. (a)

34. Consider the following statements:
All persons are joint tort-feasors, who?
1. aid in the commission of wrongful act.
2. expect one and the same result of their act.
3. joined the act complained.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)

35. The joint liability in respect of joint tort-feasors arises in which one of the following circumstances?
1. Agency, when one person employs another to do an act which turns out to be a tort.
2. Vicarious liability, i.e., the liability arising from relations.
3. Joint action-where two or more persons combine together to commit an act which amounts to a tort.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) l and 3
Ans. (c)

36. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Truth is a defense is defamation, if the statement is true in
(a) substance only
(b) contents only
(c) contents as welt as substance
(d) its natural meaning
Ans. (a)

37. Private nuisance is an injury to the right of a person in respect of which one of the following?
(a) Possession of the property
(b) Ownership of property
(c) Enjoyment of property
(d) Both ownership and possession of property
Ans. (c)

38. The window panels of a building belonging to the defendant, which was by the side of a highway, had been broken one Friday in an air-raid. The plaintiff was injured by a glass falling from the window the next Thursday by which time no repairs had been got done by the defendant. In this case, which one of the following is correct?
(a) The defendant is liable for negligence
(b) The defendant is liable for nuisance
(c) The defendant is not liable either of nuisance or of negligence
(d) The defendant would get the defense of inevitable accident
Ans. (a)

39. Consider the following situation:
The plaintiff, while passing through the public way-near defendant’s premises injured by fall of snow accumulated on the roof of the defendant’s house as a result of severe storm, for which no warning had been given by the defendant to passer-by. It is a case of which one of the following?
(a) Nuisance only
(b) Negligence only
(c) Nuisance and negligence both
(d) An act of God
Ans. (d)

40. Which of the following is an important factor/are important factors to constitute the tort of nuisance?
1. Abnormal sensitivity on the part of the plaintiff.
2. Malice on the part of the defendant.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)

41. Which one of the following statement is correct? For the tort of false imprisonment
(a) the plaintiff must be restrained from moving to any direction
(b) the plaintiff must be restrained to move in particular direction
(c) the fact of imprisonment must be known to the plaintiff
(d) the imprisonment must be for a considerable period
Ans. (a)

42. Consider the following statements in regard to institute a case of malicious prosecution:
1. The proceeding must have been instituted by the defendant.
2. The proceeding must hate terminated in favour of the defendant.
3. The defendant must have acted without reasonable and probable cause.
4. The defendant must have acted maliciously.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) l, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) l, 2 and 4
Ans. (b)

43. Consider the following statements:
For the offence of adultery, under Section 497 I.P.C.
1. both the partners can be punished.
2. the wife shall not be punishable as an abettor.
3. the imprisonment for adultery may extend for a term of five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) l and 3
Ans. (c)

44. What is the prime object of criminal law?
(a) To punish the forbidden conduct
(b) To protect public property
(c) To protect public and private property
(d) To protect public by maintenance of law and order
Ans. (d)

45. Section 292 I.P.C. makes the selling, hiring distributing, publicly exhibiting, importing etc. of obscene books, pamphlets, writing, drawing etc.an offence.
Which one of the following is correct?
Mens rea is
(a) required only for selling and hiring books
(b) required Sly for exhibiting
(c) required only for importing and exporting
(d) not required at all for offences under S. 292
Ans. (d)

46. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against which one of the following in any court during the term of his office?
(a) President, Vice-President or Governor
(b) President, Prime Minister and Governor
(c) President and Governor only
(d) President, Vice-President and Prime Minister
Ans. (c)

47. The right of private defense of property extends to causing death of the wrongdoer under certain descriptions.
Which one of the following description is not included in those?
(a) Robbery
(b) House breaking by night
(c) Lurking house trespass by night
(d) Mischief by fire on any human dwelling
Ans. (c)

48. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List -II
A. Krishna Govind Patil v State of Maharashtra 1. Abetment
B. Sheo Dial Mal case 2. Proof of Conspiracy
C. Kehar Singh vs State 3. Common Intention
4. Joint liability
Codes:
A B C
(a) 3 1 2
(b) 2 4 3
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 2
Ans. (a)

49. Five persons attempted to take away the wife of one of them from her brother’s home. In scuffle with his brother-in the husband shot him dead.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) All are liable for murder because they had common intention
(b) All are riot liable because they had no common intention
(c) All are liable because they had common object
(d) All are not liable as they had no common object
Ans. (c)

50. What is the basic difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of I.P.C.?
(a) Section 34 creates a principle of joint liability and does not create a specific offence. Section 149 creates a specific offence
(b) Section 149 does not create a specific offence but Section 34 creates a specific offence
(c) Both create specific offences but the principle of joint liability is created only by Section 34
(d) Both create specific offences but the principle of joint liability is created only by Section 149
Ans. (a)L

LAW OFFICERS EXAM QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following scholars considers international law as true law?
(a) Grotius
(b) Hobbes
(c) Holland
(d) Austin
Ans. (a)

2. Consider the following statements:
1. Emergence of a large number of States has not only made ‘Euro centrism’ in thinking about International law as anachronistic but also brought qualitative changes in the basic norms and principles of international law.
2. Austin’s view was that International law is not a true law but only positive international morality and is not in consonance with the present day reality.
3. There is no majority rule among the family of nations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and3
(d) 1, 2and3
Ans. (a)

3. “International law governs relations between independent states. The rule of law binding upon states, therefore, emanates from their own free will as expressed in conventions or usages (to which they are a party). Restrictions upon the independe4ce of states cannot therefore, be presumed”
This view is expressed in which one of the following cases?
(a) Chorzow Factory case
(b) Youman’s case
(c) S. S. Lotus case
(d) I’m Alone case
Ans. (a)

4. Consider the following statements:
International law is that body of law which states feel themselves bound to observe and includes the rules of law relating to the international institutions and their relations with states and individuals, and also certain rules of law relating to individuals and non-state entities. Accordingly,
1. States and individuals are the subjects of International law.
2. States alone are subjects of International law.
3. International institutions and other non-state entities are also the subjects of International law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (d)

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Principle/Decision) (Case)
A. There may be an existing customary law between 1. North Sea Continental Shelf Case
just two nations
B. A treaty may create customary law between 2. The Asylum Case
nations but not between a party to a treaty
C. Non-ratification by Peru of the Montevideo 3. The Right of Passage over Indian
Convention shows that Peru was not a party of Territory Case
the alleged Latin-American custom
Codes:
A B C
(a) 1 3 2
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2
(d) 2 3 1
Ans. (d)

6. Which of the following statements is correct? The Secretary General of the United Nations
(a) is appointed by the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council for a five-year, renewable term
(b) is appointed by the Security Council upon the recommendation of the General Assembly for a- five year, renewable term
(c) is appointed by the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council for a four-year, renewable term
(d) is appointed by the Security Council upon the recommendation of the General Assembly for a four-year, renewable term
Ans. (c)

7. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Opinio juris sine necessitatis meatis
(a) jurist’s opinion regarding existence of a long practice is a necessary requirement for a valid custom
(b) the practice is recognized as obligatory and there is a conviction that its repetition is the result of a compulsory rule

(c) jurist’s opinion is that states are required necessarily to follow the practice
(d) the alleged practice must be proved by satisfactory evidence before juristic tribunals
Ans. (b)

8. Match List-I with List-IT and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Case) (Court)
A. The Paquette Habana and Lola Case 1. The International Court of Justice
B. The S. S. Lotus Case 2. The U.S. Supreme Court
C. The Island of Palmas Case 3. The Permanent Court of International Justice
Arbitration
D. The Asylum Case 4. The Permanent Court of International
(Haya Dela Torres Case) Arbitration
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (b)

9. Consider the following statements:
1. A treaty rule can become custom and a customary rule can lead to a treaty.
2. A treaty to become customary law for non-party states should create mandatory norms for party states.
3. A treaty cannot create customary law for nations who have refrained from ratifying it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (d)

10. consider the following human rights, recognized under the International covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights:
1. People’s right of self-determination and right to freely determine their political status.
2. People’s right to freely dispose off their natural wealth and resources.
3. People’s right to freely pursue their economic, social and cultural development.
Which of these rights have found place in the International covenant on civil and Political Rights also?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) l and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)

11.consider the following statements
1. The 10 non-permanent members of the UN Security Council are elected for a 3-year term by a two-third majority of the General Assembly.
2. The Security Council has the primary responsibility under the UN Charter for the maintenance of international judges in peace and security.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)

12. Match List-I with List-II and select the coned answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Subject Matter) (Case)
A. Compensation for mining and supporting 1. The Gulf of Maine Case
contra guerillas in breach of International law (Canada Vs USA)
B. Existence of a local or particular custom 2. The Nicaragua Case
between two states (Nicaragua Vs USA)
C. Delimitation of continental shelf between 3. The Corfu Channel Case
two states (UK Vs Albania)
D. Right of innocent passage and duties of 4. The Bight of Pas over Indian
coastal states Territory Case
(Portugal Vs India)
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans. (d)

13. Consider the following statements:
1. Judges of the International Court of Justice are elected both by the General Assembly and the Security Council.
2. The total number of judges in International Court of Justice is seventeen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)

14. Consider the following sources of International law:
1. Judicial decisions
2. Customs
3. General Principles of Law recognized by civilized nations
4. Conventions
Which one of the following is the correct order in which they are mentioned in the ICJ Statute?
(a) 4-1-3-2
(b) 3-2-4-1
(c) 4-2-3-1
(d) 3-1-4-2
Ans. (c)

15. Consider the following big powers in the Security Council:
1. U .S. A.
2. U. K
3. France
4. The People’s Republic of China
Which of these big powers have withdrawn/terminated their declarations, accepting the compulsory jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice?
(a) l and 2
(b)1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)

16. Consider the following statements
1. There is no bar to two members of the ICJ being nationals of the same state.
2. The statute of the ICJ emphasizes on maintaining the independence of judges who are to be elected “regardless of their nationality”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)

17. Which of the following are among the 6 main committees of the UN General Assembly?
1. Legal Committee
2. Disarmament and International Security Committee
3. Administrative and Budgetary Committee
4. Social, Humanitarian and Cultural Committee
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) l and 4
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)

18. Consider the following statements in respect of International law:
For recognition of belligerency,
1. hostilities must be general
2. rebels must have organized force
3. rebels should be having control over substantial part of national territory.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)

19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Doctrine) (Effect)
A. Estrada doctrine 1. Relates to non-recognition
B. Retroactivity doctrine 2. Recognition validates the acts of a government from
the date of its inception
C. Stimson doctrine 3. Relates to establishment of diplomatic relations on
change of government through revolution
Codes:
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 3 1 2
(d) 1 3 2
Ans. (b)

20. Consider the following statements
1. The bulk of state practice supports the evidentiary theory of recognition.
2 International law recognizes duty oil the part of existing states to give recognition to new states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)

21. Consider the following statements:
The acknowledgement of a judicial fact that there exists a state of hostilities between two factions contending for power or authority may give rise to
1. recognition of insurgency
2. recognition of belligerency
3. retroactive effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 only
Ans. (d)

22. Consider the following statements:
1. Political treaties do not succeed
2. Dispositive treaties succeed
3. Claims to un-liquidated damages succeed
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d)1 and3
Ans. (c)

23. Consider the following statements:
1. There cannot be exchange of diplomatic representatives without the presumption that the foreign state exists independently.
2. De jure recognition once given cannot be withdrawn.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List – I List -II
(Principle) (Case)
A. Principle of prescription 1. Maverommatis Palestine Concessions Case
B. Principle of res judicata 2. The UN Administrative Tribunal Case
C. Principle of estoppel 3. Eastern Greenland Case
D. Principle of Subrogation 4. Temple of Preah Vihar Case
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (b)

25. Consider the following statements about General Principles of Law recognized by civilized nations:
1. This has been recognized in a most authoritative international instrument as a source of International law.
2. It means the general principles of International law which have been recognized by civilized states:
3. It has been increasingly used especially in those cases where no law is applicable on a particular point.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)

26. Assertion (A) Savigny is universally recognized as the founder of historical School of Jurisprudence.
Reason (R) : Savigny emphasized on history as an important factor for study of law
Codes:
(a) Both A and Rare individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a)

27. Consider the following statements:
1. Where there is a right, there is remedy
2. Rights and duties go side by side.
3. State is always able to enforce all the rights.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) l and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (b)

28. Consider the following statements:
1. Since duties do not describe, but only prescribe behaviour, it follows hat they fail to express notional patterns of conduct to which people ought to conform.
2. A duty can be created with reference to past conduct, in which case it represents a notional pattern of conduct as to how people ought to have behaved.
Which of-the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

29. consider the following statements:
1. Moral rules are nor changed by deliberate single acts, while legal rules can be so changed.
2. Moral pressure is applied mainly through appeal to the morality of the conduct, not by coercion as with legal rules.
Which of the statements
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

30. There is a school of jurisprudence which attempts to identify purpose of law and the measures and-ma in which they are fulfilled. What is this approach known as?
(a) Realist School
(b) Sociological School
(c) Analytical School
(d) Philosophical School
Ans. (c)

31. Which one of the following concepts does not belong to sociological school of jurisprudence?
(a) Public interest
(b) Social interest
(c) Command
(d) Jural Postulate
Ans. (c)

32. Consider the. following statements with reference to the philosophical school of jurisprudence:
1. There is inter-relationship between law and morality.
2. The main exponents of this school of jurisprudence were Hugo Grotius, Immanuel Kant and Schelling.
3. The law has nothing to do with ethics.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)

33. The concept of “Rule of Law” in India and England, and “Due Process” in USA are essentially based on which one of the following?
(a) Positive law philosophy
(b) Realist approach
(c) Natural law philosophy
(d) Social solidarity doctrine
Ans. (c)

34. consider the following statements:
1. The concept of natural law is ambiguous because the concept of nature is ambiguous.
2. Natural law means law made by ancient societies by way of custom.
3. Medieval and modem notions of natural law have little in common.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (c)

35. consider the following statements:
The Criminal justice system is based on the premise
1. that punishment keeps people under control.
2. of inherent power of the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)

36. Keeton divided ‘sources of law’ into which two heads?
(a) Binding and persuasive
(b) Custom and legislation
(c) Legislation and judicial precedents
(d) Custom and equity
Ans. (a)

37. consider the following statements :
1. A custom to be legally accepted should not infringe fundamental rules of law.
2. With the development communication, the scope gradually shrunk.
3. In the modem times, custom has ceased to be a source of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) l and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
Ans. (c)

38. Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of legislation?
(a) Legislation is difficult to trace
(b) Legislation as source of law is much older than the customary law
(c) Legislation is complete, precise in written form and easily accessible
(d) Legislation grows out of practice and long existence
Ans. (c)

39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Content of Duties) (Type of Duty)
A. Duty to pay off debt 1. Positive legal duty
B. Duties owed to state, breach of which is a crime 2. Absolute duty
C. Duties owed to person, breach of which is a civil injury 3. Relative duty
D. Duty to pay damage for injury done 4. Secondary duty
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (d)

40. Consider the following statements:
Article 20 of the Constitution of India provides that
1. no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
2. no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both land 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)

41. Under Article 22 (4) of the Constitution of India, with the exception of certain provisions stated therein, what is the maximum period for detention of a person under preventive detention?
(a) 2 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 6 months
Ans. (b)

42. 93rd amendment in the Constitution of India deals with:
(a) Right to education
(b) Right in respect of physically handicapped persons for appointments in the services under the state
(c) Reservation for admission in educational institutions
(d) Reservation in the matters of promotion in the services under the state in favour of the other backward classes.
Ans. (c)

43. Which one of the following statements about the meaning of “Eminent Domain”, under the Constitution of India, is correct?
(a) Power of the state for requisition
(b) Sovereign power of the state to acquire private property of an individual for public purpose
(c) Sovereign power of the !state to acquire private property of an individual for public purpose after paying compensation
(d) Power of the state to arrest an individual
Ans. (b)

44. For the purpose of inquiring into and advising upon inter-state dispute, if at any time, it appears to the President that the public interest would be served by the establishment of such council, he is empowered to establish which one of the following?
(a) Zonal Council
(b) Inter Council
(c) Inter-State Zonal Council
(d) The Central Inter-Zonal Council
Ans. (b)

45. which one of the following functions does not require consultation with the Public Service Commissions as per provisions of the Constitution of India?
(a) Methods of recruitment to civil services and civil posts
(b) Principles to be followed in making appointments to civil services
(c) The manner in which any provision referred to in Article 16 (4) may be made
(d) Any claim for the award of a pension in respect of injuries suffered by a person while serving under the Government of India or the Government of a State in a civil capacity.
Ans. (c)

46. In which of the following cases; the power of superintendence of High Courts does not extent?
1. Administrative Tribunals constituted under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985.
2. Tribunals created under the Army Act, 1950
3. Tribunals created for adjudication of disputes with regard to inter-state rivers.
4. Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 4 only
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (a)

47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List –I List-II
(Writ) (Matter in dispute)
A. Habeas Corpus 1. Appointment of a university teacher
B. Mandamus 2. Custody of a child by parents
C. Quo Warranto 3. Violation of natural justice
D. Certiorari 4. Refund of money illegally collected as cess by taxing authority
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans. (b)

48. Who, among the following, can establish additional courts for better administration of any existing law with respect to a matter contained in the Union List?
(a) Parliament by law
(b) Parliament with the consent of states
(c) Union Government by resolution
(d) Supreme Court of India
Ans. (b)

49. In the appointment of the Judges of the Supreme Court, the recommendations of the Collegium consisting of the Chief Justice of India and four of the senior most Judges of the Supreme Court is binding on the President of India, because
(a) it is so provided in Article 124 of the Constitution of India
(b) it has been the consistent practice for a long time
(c) it has been laid down by the Supreme Court in S.P Gupta Vs Union of India (1982)
(d) it has been laid down by the Supreme Court in Advocates-on-Record Association Vs Union of India (1994).
Ans. (d)

50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Decision) (Judicial Principle)
A. Supreme Court Advocates on-record 1. Parliamentary privileges
Association Vs Union of India
B. In Re Vinay Chandra Mishra 2. “Curative petition”
C. In Re Keshav Singh 3.. Contempt power
D. Pupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra 4. Appointment and transfer of Judges of
the Supreme Court and High Court
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (d)

Public Administration Objective Questions

Public Administration Objective Questions

Useful for UPSC, RPSC,MPPS,CPSC,

1. The most effective instrument of the executive control over administration is —

(A) Civil service code

(B) Communication

(C) Rule-making power

(D) Power of appointment and removal

2. To exercise effective control over administration, the citizen requires mostly —

(A) a high level of education

(B) a high degree of political consciousness

(C) an adequate standard of public spiritedness

(D) an adequate knowledge of administrative theory

3. Match —

List-I (Writ)

A. Writ of Mandamus

B. Writ of Injunction

C. Writ of Certiorari

D. Writ of Quo Warranto

List-II (Purpose)

1. Prohibition of an action

2. Direction to the official for the performance of a duty

3. Trial of the right to title or elective office

4. Transferring of a case from lower court to a court of higher jurisdiction

Codes :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 1 2 3 4

(C) 3 4 2 1

(D) 4 3 1 2

4. Which of the following can be regarded as means of public control over administration ?

1. System of election

2. System of recall

3. Consultative Committees

4. Parliamentary Committees

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below —

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

5. On which of the following does the effectiveness of executive control over public administration depend?

1. The relationship between the Civil Servants and Ministers

2. The experience and capabilities of the Ministers

3. The nature of political system existing in the Country

4. The Constitutional position of the Civil Servants

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below —

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

6. Executive control over administration is exercised through which of the following ?

1. Formulation of administrative policy

2. Discussions on `Demands for Grant'

3. Approval of the decisions of the subordinates

4. Periodic review meetings

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below —

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

7. Which of the following are reasons for judicial control over administration being imminent?

1. Administrators usurp authority

2. Rights of citizens have to be protected

3. Officers fight for exercise of authority

4. There is need to uphold the law of the land

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below —

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

8. From which one of the following does the judicial control over administration emanate?

(A) Judicial conventions

(B) Administrative orders

(C) Acts of legislature

(D) The Rule of Law

9. Which of the following constitute the basis on which the legislature exercises control over the executive in a democracy?

1. It is the legislature which votes the supplies

2. It represents the people who have the sovereign power

3. The political executive is part of the legislature

4. It has the power to decide all policy matters

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below —

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) —

Assertion (A) : In a Parliamentary democracy like India the Government goes out of power if the Lower House passes a no confidence motion against the Government.

Reason (R) : The Constitution of India provides for the removal of the Prime Minister through a no confidence motion passed in the Lok Sabha.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

11. "There is excessive Parliamentary interference in Public Administration of India.'' This has been the conclusion of the —

(A) Bhootlingam Committee Report

(B) Appleby Report

(C) Hanumanthaiya Commission Report

(D) Raja Chelhah Committee Report

12. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Parliamentary control over administration by its very nature tends to be weak and discontinuous

(B) Executive control over administration is the best guarantee of efficiency and integrity

(C) Judicial control over administration is not a contradiction in terms

(D) Redressal of citizens' grievances does not constitute control over administration

13. Which one of the following is the most effective means of executive control of administration?

(A) Appointment and removal of top officials

(B) Subordinate Legislation

(C) Financial Administration

(D) Political direction

14. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) —

Assertion (A) : The control to be exercised by the Lokpal and the Lokayukt on administration can be more effective than control by others

Reason (R) : The Lokpal and the Lokayukts are members of the judiciary.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

15. The Parliamentary Commissioner of UK will entertain a complaint from a citizen only under certain circumstances. Which of the following are among such circumstances ?

1. When it has been referred to him by a Member of Parliament

2. When a complain has exhausted all the opportunities of appeal

3. When it has been recommended by the Speaker of the House of Commons

4. When the Minister concerned certifies that the relevant records and information will be made available

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below —

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

16. The Lokayukta and Uplokayuktas Act was first passed in —

(A) Maharashtra

(B) West Bengal

(C) Karnataka

(D) Orissa

17. Which one of the factors does not justify the apparent need for control of the civil service by the executive?

(A) There is an apparent need for control of the civil service so that its behaviour may conform to the executive's expectations

(B) Under the prevalent system public policies originate from the chief executive

(C) Policies are implemented by the civil service, who unlike the chief executive, enjoy permanent tenure and are not affected by the ups and downs of political parties

(D) The executive control over the civil service will ultimately lead to the politicalization of the public administration

18. Of all the controls over public administration the one which is more continuous and self-corrective is —

(A) control by the legislature

(B) control by the executive

(C) control by the judiciary

(D) control by the media

19. Which of the following are the weaknesses of judicial control over administration?

1. It follows a post-mortem approach

2. It intervenes in cases of error of law

3. Its scope does not cover cases involved `Lack of Jurisdiction'

4. It tends to act when administration is guilty of misfeasance

Select the correct answer from the codes given below —

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 2, 3 and 4

20. Given below are two statements one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The primary objective of judicial control is the protection of rights of citizens against arbitrary exercise of authority by officials.

Reason (R) : In a bureaucratic system officials function according to the provisions of the authority vested in them

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

21. Which of the following institutions have been set up by Government of India to check misconduct, malpractices, corruption and misdemeanour on the part of public servants?

1. Central Vigilance Commission

2. Lokpal

3. Special Police Establishment

4. Central Bureau of Investigation

Choose the correct answer by using the codes given below —

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 4

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1, 3 and 4

22. Which of the following are major features of the institutions of Lokpal and Lokayukta as recommended by the Administration Reforms Commission?

1. They should be demonstrably independent and impartial

2. They should be compared with the highest judicial functionary in the country

3. They should be directly accountable to Parliament

4. Their appointments should as far as possible be non-political

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below —

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(D) None

23. Which of the following are tools of executive control over administration?

1. Budget

2. Civil Service Code

3. Audit C & AG

4. Rule-making power

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below —

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 2, 3 and 4

24. The most important device of supplying power to the judiciary to invalidate a Statute in India is provided by —

(A) The Directive Principles of State Policy

(B) The Fundamental Rights

(C) Articles 350 and 351

(D) Prerogative Writs

25. Under which of the following circumstances judicial intervention in administration is justified?

1. When there is abuse of discretion

2. When there is honest difference of opinion

3. When there is error of law

4. When there is lack of jurisdiction

Select the correct answer by using codes given below —

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1, 3 and 4

(C) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

26. What is the correct chronological order of the following administrative events?

1. Pendleton Act, USA

2. The All India Services Act

3. Kothari Commission on Recruitment Policy and Selection Methods

4. Fulton Committee on the Reorganization of the British Civil Service

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) 1, 2, 4, 3

(B) 2, 3, 1, 4

(C) 3, 4, 2, 1

(D) 4, 3, 1, 2

27. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. In India the basic policy governing recruitment to civil service was first laid down in 1854

2. Kothari Committee was appointed in 1976

3. Kothari Committee submitted its report in 1977

4. Kothari Committee's recommendations were implemented by the Central Government in 1979

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 4

(C) 1 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

28. The role of training of civil servants has been thoroughly analyzed by :

(A) Appleby's Report

(B) Assheton Committee Report

(C) Kothari Committee Report

(D) Hoover Commission Report

29. The major feature of induction training is that it is imparted :

(A) before a candidate is selected

(B) before a candidate assumes responsibility

(C) when the official is half-way through his service

(D) when the official is about to be promoted

30. Employees learning by doing the work and acquiring administrative skill through practice is known as :

(A) Informal training

(B) Formal training

(C) Post-Entry training

(D) Orientation training

31. Consider the following statement regarding Achievement-oriented leadership—

1. does not allow participation by subordinates

2. shows a genuine human concern for subordinates

3. sets challenging goals for subordinates

4. asks for and use suggestion from subordinates

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 2 and 4

32. Which of the following are the assumptions in Theory `X'?

1. Human beings have an inherent dislike of work

2. Because of human dislike of work, people must be punished

3. Human beings are committed to objectives

4. Human beings avoid responsibility

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2 3 and 4

33. Match List-I with List-II and Select the Correct answer by using the Codes give below the Lists—

List-I

A. The Practice of Management

B. Motivation and Personality

C. The Human side of Enterprise

D. Work and the Nature of Man

List-II

1. Herzberg

2. McGregor

3. Drucker

4. Maslow

5. Alderfecr

Codes :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) 3 1 2 5

(B) 5 1 4 2

(C) 5 2 3 4

(D) 3 4 2 1

34. Match List-I with List-II and Select the Correct answer by using the Codes give below the Lists—

List-I

A Entropy

B Grapevine

C Gobbledygook

D Noise

List-II

1. Keith Davis

2. Shannon and Weaver

3. Herbrt Simon

4. Norbert Weiner

5. Rudolf Flesch

Codes :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) 2 3 4 1

(B) 2 3 5 4

(C) 4 1 5 2

(D) 4 3 2 1

35. Match List-I with List-II and Select the Correct answer by using the Codes give below the Lists—

List-I

A. Self-actualisation

B. Vertical job loading

C. Achicevemcnt-motive

D. Valence and Expectancy

List-II

1. Victor Vroom

2. Maslow

3. Kurt Goldstein

4. McClclland

5. Herzberg

Codes :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) 2 4 5 3

(B) 4 1 2 3

(C) 2 3 5 1

(D) 3 5 2 1

36. Which of the following type of leaders were considered to be more effective by Likert?

(A) People oriented

(B) Production oriented

(C) Task oriented

(D) Value oriented

37. Which of the following principles is a useful guide for establishing good communication?

(A) Principle of Feedback

(B) Principle of Integrity

(C) Principle of Attention

(D) All of the above

38. Which Theory is connected with the democratic leadership style?

(A) Theory X

(B) Theory Y

(C) Theory Z

(D) Theory A

39. Communication has been classified as `up', `down' and `across'. In which of the following ways `down' communication is not achieved?

(A) Stern warnings

(B) Staff conferences

(C) Budget sanctions

(D) Written orders

40. Motivation is basic to management as a tool of efficiency. Which of the following does not contribute to proper motivation?

(A) Liberal conditions of service

(B) Incentives and rewards

(C) Strict supervisory controls

(D) Fringe benefits

41. Theory X of motivation has been propounded by—

(A) Chris Argyris

(B) Abraham Maslow

(C) Elton Mayo

(D) Douglas McGregor

42. Every organisation has an informal communication system which is commonly referred to as—

(A) proper channel

(B) close circuit

(C) grapevine

(D) circular

43. Consider the following in the context of Maslow's theory of ``Hierarchy of Human Needs'

1. Egoistic and esteem needs

2. Safety needs

3. Physiological needs

4. Self-actualization needs

Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of the above?

(A) 1, 4, 3, 2

(B) 2, 1, 4, 3

(C) 4, 2, 3, 1

(D) 3, 2, 1, 4

44. The traditional theory of motivation is the theory of—

(A) Path-Goal

(B) Participation

(C) Motivation-Hygiene

(D) Fear and Punishment

45. Regarding the nature of senior-subordinate relationship, which one of the following writers enunciated theory X and theory Y?

(A) Douglas Murray McGregor

(B) Abraham Maslow

(C) Frederick Herzberg

(D) Chris Argyris

46. Herbert A. Simon outlined his theory in the book—

(A) `Decision-making and the Administrative Organization'

(B) `Administrative Behaviour : A Study of Decision'

(C) `Administrative Behaviour and Decision-making'

(D) `Administrative Behaviour in the Administration Organization'

47. A course of action, governed by rules and precedents is known as—

(A) decision as per rules

(B) a management decision

(C) a guided decision

(D) a programmed decision

48. Which of the following are involved in leader-ship?

1. Influencing people

2. Generating the will to act

3. Lifting man's vision to higher sights

4. Resolving disputes between followers

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below—

(A) 1 and 4

(B) 2 and 4

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2 and 3

49. From which of the following can feedback be obtained within an organisation?

1. Vertical communication

2. Official records

3. Proceedings of the meetings

4. Horizontal communication

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below—

(A) 3 and 4

(B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

50. According to Herzberg, motivating factors include—

(i) pay

(ii) Security

(iii) Recognition

(iv) Achievement

Code :

(A) (i) and (ii)

(B) (i) and (iii)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (iii) and (iv)

Answers :

1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (B)

6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (C)

11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14.(C) 15. (A)

16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C)

21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (D)

26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (A)

31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (C) 35. (C)

36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (C)

41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (A)

46. (B) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (D)