(a) animus domini only
(b) corpus possessionis only
(c) animus domini and corpus possessionis
(d) quasi possessio
Ans. (c)
2. Persons in possession of an object has better title over it, against the whole world except the real owner. This principle has been illustrated in which one of the following cases?
(a) Armory vs Delamirie
(b) Bridges vs Hawkesworth
(c) R vs Moor
(d) Re Cohen’s case
Ans. (a)
3. Assertion (A): Law are means of achieving an .end, namely social control.
Reason (R): The ultimate end of law is to secure greatest happiness of the greatest number.
Ans. (b)
4. Assertion (A): Custom is per se law, independent of its prior recognition by the Sovereign or the Judge.
Reason (R): Custom is a source of law, but by itself is not law
Ans. (a)
5. Assertion (A): Idol is a person who can hold property.
Reason (R): Only human beings can be called ‘persons’, not the lifeless things.
Ans. (c)
6. According to the decision of B. Emmanuel vs State of Kerala, what is imperative to show the requisite respect to the National Anthem?
(a) To bow
(b) To sing the same
(c) To stand respectfully.
(d) To sing and stand respectfully
Ans. (c)
7. The right to freedom of religion guaranteed in Article 25 of the Constitution of India is subject to which of the following?
(a) Public order, morality and to the other provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India
(b) Public order, morality and health
(c) Reasonable restrictions in the interests of the security of the State
(d) Public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India.
Ans. (d)
8. Consider the following statements:
1. Admission of the tape recorded statements of an accused taken without his/her knowledge and without compulsion is valid.
2. No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India relates/relate to the protection and improvement of environment?
(a) Article 48A only
(b) Article 5lA only
(c) Both Article 48A and Article 5 1A
(d) Neither Article 48A nor Article 51A
Ans. (c)
10. Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament and State legislatures have concurrent power to make law prescribing punishment for untouchability.
2. Parliament may make law empowering any court to exercise powers of the Supreme Court to enforce the fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
11. Consider the following statements:
1. The powers of High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India we wider than those of Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution of India.
2. Both High Court and Supreme Court have concurrent power to enforce the fundamental rights.
3. It is mandatory for a petitioner first to approach the High Court instead of approaching the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)
12. Which among the following is not a fundamental duty as enumerated in Article 51 A?
(a) To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
(d) To cherish fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual
Ans. (a)
13. Consider the following statements:
1. After the President of India has asked the Council of Ministers to reconsider the advice given by the Council of Ministers, the President may not act in accordance with the advice rendered after such reconsideration.
2. The President of India can grant pardon under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, to any person convicted of any offence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
14. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The same person can be appointed as Governor of three States.
(b) A Governor can be appointed only in consultation with Chief Minister of the State concerned
(c) A Governor has no power to entrust any of the functions of the State to Government of India even with the latter’s consent
(d) Only a person who has completed 30 years of age can be appointed as Governor of a State.
Ans. (a)
15. Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a High Court to be Attorney-General for India.
2. In the performance of his duties the Attorney-General shall have right of audience in all courts in India.
3. The Attorney-General shall hold office during the presence of the President and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
16. Consider the following statements with respect to Article 107 of the Constitution of India:
1. A Bill pending in the Parliament shall lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses.
2. A Bill pending in the Council & States which has not been passed by the House of the People not lapse on dissolution of the House of the People.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
17. Which one of the following is not covered under Article 20 of the Constitution of India?
(a) ex post facto laws
(b) Preventive detention
(c) Double jeopardy
(d) Self-incrimination
Ans. (b)
18. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Parliament may by law, provide for the appointment of a Joint State Public Service Commission to serve the needs of two or more States,
(a) when the President deems it to be necessary
(b) when the Governors of those States request the Centre to appoint such Commission
(c) when a resolution to that effect is passed by the legislatures of those States
(d) when the Parliament deems it to be necessary
Ans (c)
19. Which of the following are not the functions of Union Public Service Commission?
1. Disciplinary matters relating to Union civil servants.
2. Matters referred to under Article 16(4).
3. Manner in which Article 335 may be given effect.
4. Principles to be followed in making appointment of Union civil servants
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) l and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. (c)
20. Which of the following statements is correct?
A joint session of the Parliament shall be:
1. convented by the Speaker under Article 108.
2. presided over by the senior most member of the House.
3. convened by the President under Article 108 to break impasse in the pas of a Bill.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
21. Consider the following statements:
On proclamation of emergency under Article 352(1), the Fundamental Rights guaranteed in Article 19 become automatically suspended by virtue of Article 358.
Additionally, the President of India may by order under Article 359(1) suspend:
1. the enforcement of all or any of the Fundamental Right (except Articles 20 and 21) as may be specified in his order.
2. the enforcement of all or any of the Fundamental Right except Article 21.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
22. In which one of the following cases, did the Supreme Court observe that there is a need to confine the exercise of power under Article 356(1) strictly to the situation mentioned therein which is a condition precedent to the said exercise?
(a) S. R. Bommai vs Union of India
(b) Minerva Mills Ltd. vs Union of India
(c) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(d) State of Rajasthan vs Union of India
Ans. (a)
23. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Emergency shall
(a) be proclaimed by the President on his satisfaction
(b) be proclaimed by the President on the basis of the
recommendation of the Union C
(c) be declared under Article 353
(d) continue for a maximum period of three years
Ans. (b)
24. What does injuria sine damno mean?
(a) Damage without legal injury
(b) Damage without actual injury
(c) Damage in the form of legal injury only
(d) Damage in the form of legal and actual injury
Ans. (c)
25. Which of the following legal propositions are correct?
1. A person can claim damages even if he has suffered no loss.
2. A person can claim damages for such wrongs which are caused intentionally.
3. A person can claim damages f a wrong if it is caused by infringement of his legal right. Which of the statement given above are correct?
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
26. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Tort is
(a) a civil wrong
(b) violation of legal right conferred by general law
(c) breach of duty imposed by general law
(d) breach of duty imposed by particular law
Ans. (d)
27. Which one of the following statements is correct?
When the act of defendant falls in tort and breach of contract, the defendant may be sued
(a) either in tort or breach of contract
(b) both in tort and breach of contract
(c) in tort only
(d) in breach of contract only
Ans. (b)
28. The guiding principle of foreseeability laid down in Wagon Mound’s case for determination of liability in tort has been followed in India in which one of the following cases?
(a) C. B. Singh vs The Cantonment Board, Agra
(b) Sushma Mitra vs M.P.S.R.T. Corporation
(c) Veeran vs Krishnamurthy
(4) Manindra Nath vs Mathuradas
Ans. (a
29. The Pigeon-hole theory, about the nature of tort, has been propounded by whom among the following?
(a) Salmond
(b) Winfield
(c) Street
(d) Pollock
Ans. (a)
30. A employs B, a surgeon, to attend his infant son C. By reason of B’s negligence C is injured.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) A can use B for tort only
(b) Both A and C can sue B for tort only
(c) A can sue B for tort or for breach of contract
(d) A can sue B neither for tort nor breath of contract
Ans. (b)
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Defamation is the publication of false statement intending to lower down the person in the estimation or right thinking members of the society.
2. Any word will be deemed defamatory which cause the plaintiff to be shunned or avoided by his neighbors
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
32. In Municipal Corporation of Delhi vs Subhagwanti, the Supreme Court applied which one of the following principles?
(a) Last opportunity rule
(b) Contributory negligence
(c) Basic negligence
(d) Res ipsa loquitur
Ans. (d)
33. Consider the following statements about legal propositions:
1. Joint tort-feasors can be sued jointly and severally.
2. They are liable for the whole damage resulting from the tort.
3. Damages may be recovered from all or either of them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
Ans. (a)
34. Consider the following statements:
All persons are joint tort-feasors, who?
1. aid in the commission of wrongful act.
2. expect one and the same result of their act.
3. joined the act complained.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
35. The joint liability in respect of joint tort-feasors arises in which one of the following circumstances?
1. Agency, when one person employs another to do an act which turns out to be a tort.
2. Vicarious liability, i.e., the liability arising from relations.
3. Joint action-where two or more persons combine together to commit an act which amounts to a tort.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) l and 3
Ans. (c)
36. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Truth is a defense is defamation, if the statement is true in
(a) substance only
(b) contents only
(c) contents as welt as substance
(d) its natural meaning
Ans. (a)
37. Private nuisance is an injury to the right of a person in respect of which one of the following?
(a) Possession of the property
(b) Ownership of property
(c) Enjoyment of property
(d) Both ownership and possession of property
Ans. (c)
38. The window panels of a building belonging to the defendant, which was by the side of a highway, had been broken one Friday in an air-raid. The plaintiff was injured by a glass falling from the window the next Thursday by which time no repairs had been got done by the defendant. In this case, which one of the following is correct?
(a) The defendant is liable for negligence
(b) The defendant is liable for nuisance
(c) The defendant is not liable either of nuisance or of negligence
(d) The defendant would get the defense of inevitable accident
Ans. (a)
39. Consider the following situation:
The plaintiff, while passing through the public way-near defendant’s premises injured by fall of snow accumulated on the roof of the defendant’s house as a result of severe storm, for which no warning had been given by the defendant to passer-by. It is a case of which one of the following?
(a) Nuisance only
(b) Negligence only
(c) Nuisance and negligence both
(d) An act of God
Ans. (d)
40. Which of the following is an important factor/are important factors to constitute the tort of nuisance?
1. Abnormal sensitivity on the part of the plaintiff.
2. Malice on the part of the defendant.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
41. Which one of the following statement is correct? For the tort of false imprisonment
(a) the plaintiff must be restrained from moving to any direction
(b) the plaintiff must be restrained to move in particular direction
(c) the fact of imprisonment must be known to the plaintiff
(d) the imprisonment must be for a considerable period
Ans. (a)
42. Consider the following statements in regard to institute a case of malicious prosecution:
1. The proceeding must have been instituted by the defendant.
2. The proceeding must hate terminated in favour of the defendant.
3. The defendant must have acted without reasonable and probable cause.
4. The defendant must have acted maliciously.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) l, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) l, 2 and 4
Ans. (b)
43. Consider the following statements:
For the offence of adultery, under Section 497 I.P.C.
1. both the partners can be punished.
2. the wife shall not be punishable as an abettor.
3. the imprisonment for adultery may extend for a term of five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) l and 3
Ans. (c)
44. What is the prime object of criminal law?
(a) To punish the forbidden conduct
(b) To protect public property
(c) To protect public and private property
(d) To protect public by maintenance of law and order
Ans. (d)
45. Section 292 I.P.C. makes the selling, hiring distributing, publicly exhibiting, importing etc. of obscene books, pamphlets, writing, drawing etc.an offence.
Which one of the following is correct?
Mens rea is
(a) required only for selling and hiring books
(b) required Sly for exhibiting
(c) required only for importing and exporting
(d) not required at all for offences under S. 292
Ans. (d)
46. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against which one of the following in any court during the term of his office?
(a) President, Vice-President or Governor
(b) President, Prime Minister and Governor
(c) President and Governor only
(d) President, Vice-President and Prime Minister
Ans. (c)
47. The right of private defense of property extends to causing death of the wrongdoer under certain descriptions.
Which one of the following description is not included in those?
(a) Robbery
(b) House breaking by night
(c) Lurking house trespass by night
(d) Mischief by fire on any human dwelling
Ans. (c)
48. Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List -II
A. Krishna Govind Patil v State of Maharashtra 1. Abetment
B. Sheo Dial Mal case 2. Proof of Conspiracy
C. Kehar Singh vs State 3. Common Intention
4. Joint liability
Codes:
A B C
(a) 3 1 2
(b) 2 4 3
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 2
Ans. (a)
49. Five persons attempted to take away the wife of one of them from her brother’s home. In scuffle with his brother-in the husband shot him dead.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) All are liable for murder because they had common intention
(b) All are riot liable because they had no common intention
(c) All are liable because they had common object
(d) All are not liable as they had no common object
Ans. (c)
50. What is the basic difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of I.P.C.?
(a) Section 34 creates a principle of joint liability and does not create a specific offence. Section 149 creates a specific offence
(b) Section 149 does not create a specific offence but Section 34 creates a specific offence
(c) Both create specific offences but the principle of joint liability is created only by Section 34
(d) Both create specific offences but the principle of joint liability is created only by Section 149
Ans. (a)L
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